ID: 1@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.456Z

Question:

In the example below, the scientific method is used to solve an everyday problem. Order the scientific method steps (numbered items) with the process of solving the everyday problem (lettered items). Based on the results of the experiment, is the hypothesis correct? If it is incorrect, propose some alternative hypotheses.

  Scientific Method   Everyday process
1 Observation A There is something wrong with the electrical outlet.
2 Question B If something is wrong with the outlet, my coffeemaker also won’t work when plugged into it.
3 Hypothesis (answer) C My toaster doesn’t toast my bread.
4 Prediction D I plug my coffee maker into the outlet.
5 Experiment E My coffeemaker works.
6 Result F What is preventing my coffeemaker from working?
A:
The original hypothesis is correct. There is something wrong with the electrical outlet and therefore the toaster doesn’t work.
B:
The original hypothesis is incorrect. Alternative hypothesis includes that toaster wasn’t turned on.
C:
The original hypothesis is correct. The coffee maker and the toaster do not work when plugged into the outlet.
D:
The original hypothesis is incorrect. Alternative hypotheses includes that both coffee maker and toaster were broken.

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ID: 2@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.481Z

Question:

Decide if each of the following is an example of inductive or deductive reasoning.

  1. All flying birds and insects have wings. Birds and insects flap their wings as they move through the air. Therefore, wings enable flight.
  2. Insects generally survive mild winters better than harsh ones. Therefore, insect pests will become more problematic if global temperatures increase.
  3. Chromosomes, the carriers of DNA, separate into daughter cells during cell division. Therefore, DNA is the genetic material.
  4. Animals as diverse as insects and wolves all exhibit social behavior. Therefore, social behavior must have an evolutionary advantage for humans.
A:
1- Inductive, 2- Deductive, 3- Deductive, 4- Inductive
B:
2- Inductive, 1- Deductive, 3- Deductive, 4- Inductive
C:
1- Inductive, 2- Deductive, 3- Inductive, 4- Deductive
D:
1- Inductive, 2-Inductive, 3- Inductive, 4- Deductive

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ID: 3@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.497Z

Question:
What is a suggested and testable explanation for an event called?
A:
discovery
B:
hypothesis
C:
scientific method
D:
theory

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ID: 4@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.521Z

Question:
Which of the following sciences is not considered a natural science?
A:
Astronomy
B:
Biology
C:
Computer science
D:
Physics

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ID: 5@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.532Z

Question:
What process helps to ensure that a scientist’s research is original, significant, logical, and thorough?
A:
publication
B:
public speaking
C:
peer review
D:
the scientific method

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ID: 6@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.549Z

Question:
What are two topics that are likely to be studied by biologists and two areas of scientific study that would fall outside the realm of biology?
A:
<p>diseases affecting humans, pollution affecting species habitat,</p> <p>calculating surface area of rectangular ground, functioning of planetary orbitals</p>
B:
<p>calculating surface area of rectangular ground, functioning of planetary orbitals,</p> <p>formation of metamorphic rocks, galaxy formation and evolution</p>
C:
<p>plant responses to external stimuli, functioning of planetary orbitals,</p> <p>formation of metamorphic rocks, galaxy formation and evolution</p>
D:
<p>plant responses to external stimuli, study of the shape and motion of physical objects,</p> <p>formation of metamorphic rocks, galaxy formation and evolution</p>

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ID: 7@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.565Z

Question:
Is mathematics a natural science? Explain your reasoning.
A:
No, it is not a natural science. Mathematics aids natural sciences.
B:
No, it is not a natural science. Mathematics does not use the chemical and physical measurements.
C:
Yes, it is a natural science. Mathematics deals with verifying the experimental data.
D:
Yes, it is a natural science. It uses chemical and physical measurements.

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ID: 8@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.582Z

Question:

Although the scientific method is used by most of the sciences, it can also be applied to everyday situations. A situation is given below. Using the scientific method try to arrange the given steps in the correct order. Situation:

  1. If the car doesn’t start the problem might be in the battery.
  2. Car doesn’t start.
  3. After changing the battery. Car starts working.
  4. The car should start after charging the battery or changing the battery.
  5. The car doesn’t start because the battery is dead.
  6. The car doesn’t start even after charging the battery, the battery must have stopped working.
A:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B:
2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
C:
2, 1, 5, 4, 6, 3
D:
2, 1, 5, 6, 3, 4

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ID: 9@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.594Z

Question:
Like plants, humans also respond to messages from the environment. What are some ways the human body responds to external stimuli?
A:
We shiver when we are cold and sweat when we are hot.
B:
We walk by putting our front leg forward and pushing off with our back leg.
C:
We are able to breath in and out unconsciously.
D:
Our hair and fingernails grow at a constant rate over time.

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ID: 10@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.616Z

Question:
The word helix means spiral. What does this tell you about the structure of DNA, which is a double helix macromolecule?
A:
The nucleotides of the two strands bond together with spiral bonds.
B:
A double-stranded DNA molecule has two spiral stands bound together.
C:
DNA is a double helix because it has two spiral strands held together like a spiral staircase.
D:
Nucleotides are spiral-shaped molecules that bond together to form DNA.

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ID: 11@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.637Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is false?
A:
Tissues exist within organs which exist within organ systems.
B:
Communities exist within populations which exist within ecosystems.
C:
Organelles exist within cells which exist within tissues.
D:
Communities exist within ecosystems which exist in the biosphere.

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ID: 12@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.643Z

Question:
In which domain would a fish be classified? Why?
A:
Archaea, because fish are multicellular.
B:
Eukarya, because fish are multicellular.
C:
Archaea, because fish are single-celled.
D:
Eukarya because fish are single-celled.

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ID: 13@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.665Z

Question:
Why are viruses not considered living?
A:
They are not made of cells.
B:
They cannot replicate.
C:
They do not contain DNA or RNA.
D:
They lack a cell membrane.

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ID: 14@1

2015-08-20T13:03:30.686Z

Question:
The presence of a membrane-enclosed nucleus is a characteristic of what?
A:
bacteria
B:
eukaryotic cells
C:
living organisms
D:
prokaryotic cells

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ID: 15@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.079Z

Question:
What is a group of individuals of the same species living in the same area called?
A:
a community
B:
an ecosystem
C:
a family
D:
a population

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ID: 16@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.092Z

Question:
Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from the most inclusive to the least complex level?
A:
biosphere, ecosystem, community, population, organism
B:
organelle, tissue, biosphere, ecosystem, population
C:
organism, organ, tissue, organelle, molecule
D:
organism, community, biosphere, molecule, tissue, organ

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ID: 17@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.141Z

Question:
Where in a phylogenetic tree would you expect to find the organism that had evolved most recently?
A:
at the base
B:
at the nodes
C:
at the branch tips
D:
within the branches

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ID: 18@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.147Z

Question:
What is a characteristic that is not present in all living things?
A:
homeostasis and regulation
B:
metabolism
C:
nucleus containing DNA
D:
reproduction

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ID: 19@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.169Z

Question:
Consider the levels of organization of the biological world and place each of these items in order from smallest level of organization to most encompassing: skin cell, elephant, water molecule, planet Earth, tropical rainforest, hydrogen atom, wolf pack, liver.
A:
hydrogen atom, water molecule, skin cell, liver, elephant, wolf pack, tropical rainforest, planet Earth
B:
hydrogen atom, skin cell, water molecule, liver, elephant, wolf pack, tropical rainforest, planet Earth
C:
hydrogen atom, skin cell, water molecule, liver, wolf pack, elephant, tropical rainforest, planet Earth
D:
water molecule, hydrogen atom, skin cell, liver, elephant, wolf pack, tropical rainforest, planet Earth

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ID: 20@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.187Z

Question:
What scientific evidence was used by Carl Woese to determine there should be a separate domain for Archaea?
A:
a sequence of DNA
B:
a sequence of rRNA
C:
a sequence of mRNA.
D:
a sequence of tRNA.

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ID: 21@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.199Z

Question:
Both astronomy and astrology study the stars. Which one is considered a natural science? Explain your reasoning.
A:
Astrology is a natural science as it indirectly influences human affairs and the natural world.
B:
Astronomy is a natural science as it deals with observations and prediction of events in the sky, which is based on the laws of physics.
C:
Astrology is a natural science as it deals with observations and prediction of events in the sky, influences human affairs and the natural world.
D:
Astrology is a natural science as it deals with the study of asteroids and comets, which is based on the laws of natural sciences.

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ID: 22@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.216Z

Question:
Which of the following structures is conserved in all living organisms and points to a common origin?
A:
All living organisms have mitochondria that produce energy.
B:
All living organisms store genetic material in DNA/RNA.
C:
All living organisms use the energy from sunlight
D:
All living organisms have a nucleus.

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ID: 23@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.227Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is the strongest argument in favor of two organisms, A and B, being closely related evolutionarily?
A:
A and B look alike.
B:
A and B live in the same ecosystem.
C:
A and B use the same metabolic pathways.
D:
The DNA sequences of A and B are highly homologous.

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ID: 24@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.239Z

Question:
A phylogenetic tree begins with organism 1, with four branches at points A, B, C and D. The organisms at the ends of these branches are 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. In the phylogenetic tree shown, which organism is most distantly related to 2?
A:
1
B:
3
C:
4
D:
5

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ID: 25@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.250Z

Question:
A phylogenetic tree begins with organism 1, with four branches at points A, B, C and D. The organisms at the ends of these branches are 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. In the diagram shown which is the most recent common ancestor of 1 and 3?
A:
A
B:
B
C:
C
D:
D

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ID: 26@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.261Z

Question:
The French scientist Jacques Monod famously said, “Anything found to be true of E. coli must also be true of elephants.” How is this statement based on the notion that living organisms share a common ancestor?
A:
<em>E. coli</em> is a eukaryote and share similarities with most of the living organisms.
B:
<em>E. coli</em> is a prokaryote. The various metabolic processes and core functions in <em>E. coli</em> share homology with higher organisms.
C:
<em>E. coli</em> contains a nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles that are shared by all the living organisms.
D:
<em>E. coli</em> is a prokaryote and reproduces through binary fission which is common to most of the living organisms.

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ID: 27@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.272Z

Question:
Birds have been reclassified as reptiles. Which lines of evidence have led to this reclassification?
A:
<em>Archeopteryx</em> is the connecting link between birds and reptiles which shows that birds and reptiles are related.
B:
Birds have scales, having the same origin as that of reptiles.
C:
Birds and reptiles have the same circulatory and excretory systems and both are egg laying animals.
D:
Birds and reptiles have similar anatomical and morphological features.

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ID: 28@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.278Z

Question:
A phylogenetic tree for mammals is illustrated. Most of the descendants of the common ancestor have legs except for the whale who shares a common ancestor with the camel, pig, deer, sheep and hippo; and manatee and dugong who share a common ancestor with the elephant. Phylogenetic trees can represent traits that are derived or lost due to evolution. One example is the absence of legs in some marine mammals. One such group is the Cetaceans, which includes toothed whales, such as dolphins and killer whales, and baleen whales, such as humpback whales. Cetaceans are descended from even-toed ungulates and share a common ancestry with the hippopotamus, cows, sheep, camel, and pig. Based on this phylogenetic tree, which of the following animal is the most closely related to a horse?
A:
an armadillo
B:
a camel
C:
a bat
D:
a cat

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ID: 29@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.295Z

Question:
Which of the following college departments would not be associated with natural sciences?
A:
Botany
B:
Mathematics
C:
Microbiology
D:
Physics

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ID: 30@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.307Z

Question:
Which of the following statement describes an activity in a natural science?
A:
digging ancient pottery in Colorado
B:
measuring the magnetic field of the Earth
C:
playing the piano
D:
writing a research paper on the life of Darwin

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ID: 31@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.312Z

Question:
Which of the following steps in the scientific method usually comes first?
A:
analyze the results
B:
report results
C:
make a hypothesis
D:
make an observation

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ID: 32@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.329Z

Question:
Which of the following reasonings is deductive?
A:
Most swimming animals use fins; therefore, fins are an adaptation to swimming.
B:
Mitochondria are inherited from the mother; therefore, maternally inherited traits are encoded by mitochondrial DNA
C:
Small animals lose more heat than long animals. One would not expect to find wild mice in the poles.
D:
Water conservation is a major requirement to survive in the desert. Long leaves increase loss of water by evaporation. Therefore, desert plants should have smaller leaves.

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ID: 33@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.339Z

Question:

Read the following questions. Does the statement lend itself to investigation using the scientific method? In other words, is the hypothesis falsifiable (can be proven false)?

  1. Is macaroni and cheese tastier than broccoli soup?
  2. Are hummingbirds attracted to the color red?
  3. Is the moon made out of green cheese?
  4. Is plagiarism dishonest?
A:
Questions 1 and 2 are subjective and cannot be disproven using scientific method. Questions 3 and 4 can be tested using scientific method.
B:
Questions 3 and 4 are subjective and cannot be disproven using scientific method. Questions 1 and 2 can be tested using scientific method.
C:
Questions 1 and 3 are subjective and cannot be disproven using scientific method. Questions 2 and 4 can be tested using scientific method.
D:
Questions 1 and 4 are subjective and cannot be disproven using scientific method. Questions 2 and 3 can be tested using scientific method.

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ID: 34@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.351Z

Question:
Which of the following statements does not represent a characteristic shared by all living organisms?
A:
growth
B:
metabolism
C:
photosynthesis
D:
reproduction

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ID: 35@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.356Z

Question:
Plants grown indoors bend towards the light. This is an example of which of the following characteristics of life?
A:
adaptation to the environment
B:
metabolism
C:
regulation
D:
response to the environment

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ID: 36@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.367Z

Question:
In the following hierarchy, which is the broadest unit of life?
A:
cell
B:
DNA
C:
the gastrointestinal tract
D:
stomach

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ID: 37@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.384Z

Question:
Which of the following units of life includes non-biological (abiotic) elements?
A:
a community
B:
an ecosystem
C:
an organism
D:
a population

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ID: 38@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.395Z

Question:
In which domain of life are humans classified?
A:
Archaea
B:
Bacteria
C:
Eukarya
D:
Protista

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ID: 39@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.406Z

Question:

Which of the following domains contains prokaryotes?

  1. Archaea
  2. Bacteria
  3. Eukarya
A:
2 only
B:
3 only
C:
1 and 2
D:
2 and 3

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ID: 40@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.412Z

Question:
Some plants called lithops grow in the South African desert and look like stones. How were scientists able to determine they are living organisms?
A:
Lithops reproduce and are heterotrophic.
B:
Lithops are lithotrophic and they reproduce.
C:
Lithops are succulent plants and show a heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
D:
Lithops are autotrophic. They show growth and reproduction.

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ID: 41@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.423Z

Question:
Consider the cardiovascular system. Rank in order of increasing complexity all its levels of organization starting with the hemoglobin.
A:
hemoglobin, red blood cells, blood, artery, capillaries, veins, cardiovascular system
B:
hemoglobin, red blood cells, blood, artery, veins, cardiovascular system
C:
red blood cells, hemoglobin, blood, veins, capillaries, cardiovascular system
D:
oxygen, carbon dioxide, red blood cells, hemoglobin, blood, artery, cardiovascular system.

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ID: 42@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.434Z

Question:
How many neutrons do carbon-12 and carbon-13 have, respectively?
A:
Carbon-12 contains <span data-math="6">6</span> neutrons while carbon-13 contains <span data-math="7">7</span> neutrons.
B:
Carbon-12 contains <span data-math="7">7</span> neutrons while carbon-13 contains <span data-math="6">6</span> neutrons.
C:
Carbon-12 contains <span data-math="12">12</span> neutrons while carbon-13 contains <span data-math="13">13</span> neutrons.
D:
Carbon-12 contains <span data-math="13">13</span> neutrons while carbon-13 contains <span data-math="12">12</span> neutrons.

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ID: 43@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.451Z

Question:
Based on carbon dating, scientists estimate this pygmy mammoth died $11\text{,}000\,\text{years}$ ago. How would the ratio of $^{14}\text{C}$ to $^{12}\text{C}$ in a living elephant compare to the $^{14}\text{C}$ to $^{12}\text{C}$ ratio found in the mammoth?
A:
The ratio would be the same in the elephant and the mammoth.
B:
The ratio would be lower in the elephant than the mammoth.
C:
The ratio would be higher in the elephant than the mammoth.
D:
The ratio would depend on the diet of each animal.

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ID: 44@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.462Z

Question:
K-41 is one of the naturally occurring isotopes of potassium. Use the periodic table to explain how the structure of K-41 differs from the normal K atom.
A:
K-41 has a total of <span data-math="24">24</span> neutrons and normal K atom has <span data-math="22">22</span> neutrons
B:
K-41 has a total of <span data-math="22">22</span> neutrons and normal K atom has <span data-math="20">20</span> neutrons
C:
K-41 has one more neutron than the normal K atom
D:
K-41 has one less neutron than normal K atom

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ID: 45@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.473Z

Question:
Bohr diagrams of elements from groups 1, 14, 17 and 18, and periods 1, 2 and 3 are shown. Period 1, in which the 1n shell is filling, contains hydrogen and helium. Hydrogen, in group 1, has one valence electron. Helium, in group 18, has two valence electrons. The 1n shell holds a maximum of two electrons, so the shell is full and the electron configuration is stable. Period 2, in which the 2n shell is filling, contains lithium, carbon, fluorine, and neon. Lithium, in group 1, has 1 valence electron. Carbon, in group 14, has 4 valence electrons. Fluorine, in group 17, has 7 valence electrons. Neon, in group 18, has 8 valence electrons, a full octet. Period 3, in which the 3n shell is filling, contains sodium, silicon, chlorine, and argon. Sodium, in group 1, has 1 valence electron. Silicon, in group 14, has 4 valence electrons. Chlorine, in group 17, has 7 valence electrons. Argon, in group 18, has 8 valence electrons, a full octet. An atom may give, take, or share electrons with another atom to achieve a full valence shell, the most stable electron configuration. Looking at this figure, how many electrons do elements in group 1 need to lose in order to achieve a stable electron configuration? How many electrons do elements in groups 14 and 17 need to gain to achieve a stable configuration?
A:
Elements of group 1 need to lose one electron, elements of group 14 need to gain 4 electrons, and elements of group 17 need to gain 1 electron
B:
Elements of group 1 need to lose 4 electrons while elements of group 14 and 17 need to gain 1 electron each.
C:
Elements of group 1 need to lose 2 electrons, elements of group 14 need to gain 4 electrons and elements of group 17 need to gain 1 electron.
D:
Elements of group 1 need to gain 1 electron while, elements of group 14 need to lose 4 electrons and elements of group 17 need to lose 1 electron.

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ID: 46@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.484Z

Question:
Use the periodic table to describe what a Bohr model of Fluorine (F) would look like and explain why the Bohr model is not an accurate representation of the electron orbitals in fluorine.
A:
Bohr model would have 2 electron rings, Bohr model would not give information about atomic mass
B:
Bohr model would have one electron ring, Bohr model would not show the sub-shells of first ring
C:
Bohr model would have 2 electron rings, Bohr model would not show the sub-shell of second ring
D:
Bohr model would have one electron ring, Bohr model would not give information about number of electron in each ring

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ID: 47@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.495Z

Question:
The shape of hair proteins is maintained by a combination of hydrogen bonds and covalent, disulfide bonds. Heat is sufficient to break the hydrogen bonds, but harsh chemicals are required to break the disulfide bonds. Why is it harder to break the disulfide bonds than the hydrogen bonds?
A:
Covalent bonds are stronger than hydrogen bonds.
B:
There are many more disulfide bonds than hydrogen bonds.
C:
Covalent bonds are stronger than disulfide bonds.
D:
Covalent bonds are less elastic than hydrogen bonds.

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ID: 48@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.501Z

Question:
What makes ionic bonds different from covalent bonds?
A:
Ionic bond involves the transfer of electrons whereas covalent bond involves the sharing of electrons.
B:
Ionic bond involves the van der Waals force of interaction whereas covalent bond involves the sharing of electrons.
C:
Ionic bond involves the sharing of electrons whereas a covalent bond involves the transfer of electrons.
D:
An ionic bond involves the transfer of electrons whereas a covalent bond involves the van der Waals force of interaction.

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ID: 49@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.517Z

Question:
What are atoms that vary in the number of neutrons found in their nuclei called?
A:
Ions
B:
Isotopes
C:
Isobars
D:
Neutral atoms

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ID: 50@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.523Z

Question:
Potassium has an atomic number of 19. What is its electron configuration?
A:
Shells 1 and 2 are full, and shell 3 has nine electrons.
B:
Shells 1, 2 and 3 are full, and shell 4 has three electrons.
C:
Shells 1, 2 and 3 are full, and shell 4 has one electron.
D:
Shells 1, 2 and 3 are full, and no other electrons are present.

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ID: 51@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.534Z

Question:
Which type of bond exemplifies a weak chemical bond?
A:
Covalent bond
B:
Hydrogen bond
C:
Ionic bond
D:
Nonpolar covalent bond

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ID: 52@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.545Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is false?
A:
Electrons are unequally shared in polar covalent bonds.
B:
Electrons are equally shared in nonpolar covalent bonds.
C:
Hydrogen bonds are weak bonds based on electrostatic forces.
D:
Ionic bonds are generally stronger than covalent bonds.

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ID: 53@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.555Z

Question:
List the mass number, atomic number of carbon-12 and carbon-13, respectively.
A:
The mass number and atomic number of carbon-13 is <span data-math="13">13</span> and <span data-math="6">6</span>, while that of carbon-12 is <span data-math="12">12</span> and <span data-math="6">6</span>, respectively.
B:
The mass number and atomic number of carbon-13 is <span data-math="13">13</span> and <span data-math="12">12</span>, while that of carbon-12 is <span data-math="12">12</span> and <span data-math="6">6</span>, respectively.
C:
The mass number and atomic number of carbon-13 is <span data-math="13">13</span> and <span data-math="13">13</span>, while that of carbon-12 is <span data-math="12">12</span> and <span data-math="6">6</span>, respectively.
D:
The mass number and atomic number of carbon-13 is <span data-math="13">13</span> and <span data-math="12">12</span>, while that of carbon-12 is <span data-math="12">12</span> and <span data-math="12">12</span>, respectively.

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ID: 54@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.566Z

Question:
Why are hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interactions necessary for cells?
A:
Hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interactions form weak associations between molecules, providing the necessary shape and structure for DNA to function in the body.
B:
Hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interactions form strong associations between molecules, providing the necessary shape and structure for DNA to function in the body.
C:
Hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interactions form weak associations between different molecules, providing the necessary shape and structure for acids to function in the body.
D:
Hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interactions form strong associations between same molecules, providing the necessary shape and structure for acids to function in the body.

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ID: 55@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.577Z

Question:
Identify the red and white balls in the model and explain how arrangement of the molecules supports the fact that ice floats on water.
A:
Red and white balls represent oxygen and hydrogen, respectively, loose arrangement of molecules results in low density of ice
B:
Red and white balls represent oxygen and hydroge,n respectively, tightly packed arrangement of molecules results in a low density of ice
C:
Red and white balls represent hydrogen and oxygen, respectively, loose arrangement of molecules results in low density of ice
D:
Red and white balls represent oxygen and hydrogen, respectively, tightly packed arrangement of molecules results in high density of ice

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ID: 56@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.594Z

Question:
One of the risks for people with diabetes is diabetic ketoacidosis, a build-up of acid in the blood stream. Explain why this is dangerous to humans.
A:
Diabetic ketoacidosis decrease the normal pH (8.35-8.45) to a lower value.
B:
Diabetic ketoacidosis increases normal pH level of blood disrupting biological processes.
C:
Diabetic ketoacidosis keeps pH level of blood constant which disrupts biological processes.
D:
Diabetic ketoacidosis decreases normal pH (7.35-7.45) to a lower value.

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ID: 57@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.605Z

Question:
Water takes up 333 million cubic miles on Earth, yet access to drinking water is a critical issue for many communities around the world. Explain why this is so.
A:
Drinking water is only obtained by rain water harvesting.
B:
Only 4 percent of the total water on earth is freshwater which is found only in glaciers.
C:
Only 4 percent of the total water on earth is freshwater, out of which 68 percent is found in glaciers.
D:
Drinking water is only obtained by desalination treatments of salt water found on earth.

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ID: 58@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.610Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is not true?
A:
Water is polar.
B:
Water can stabilize the temperature of nearby air.
C:
Water is essential for life.
D:
Water is the most abundant molecule in the Earth’s atmosphere.

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ID: 59@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.626Z

Question:
Why do hydrogen and oxygen form polar covalent bonds within water molecules?
A:
Hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen, generating a partial negative charge near the hydrogen atom.
B:
Hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen, generating a partial positive charge near the hydrogen atom.
C:
Oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, generating a partial negative charge near the oxygen atoms.
D:
Oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, generating a partial positive charge near the oxygen atoms.

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ID: 60@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.632Z

Question:
What happens to the pH of a solution when acids are added?
A:
decrease
B:
increase
C:
increases and then decreases
D:
stay the same

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ID: 61@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.643Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is true?
A:
Acids and bases cannot mix together.
B:
Acids and bases can neutralize each other.
C:
Acids, not bases, can change the pH of a solution.
D:
Acids donate hydroxide ions (<span data-math="\text{OH}^-">\text{OH}^-</span>); bases donate hydrogen ions (<span data-math="\text{H}^+">\text{H}^+</span>).

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ID: 62@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.655Z

Question:
Why can some insects walk on water?
A:
Insects can walk on water because of its high surface tension.
B:
Insects can walk on water because it is a polar solvent.
C:
Insects can walk on water because they are less dense than water.
D:
Insects can walk on water because they are denser than water.

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ID: 63@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.671Z

Question:
Discuss how buffers help prevent drastic swings in pH.
A:
Buffers absorb excess hydrogen and hydroxide ions to prevent increases or decrease in pH. An example is the bicarbonate system in human body.
B:
Buffers absorb extra hydrogen ions to prevent increases or decreases in pH. An example is the bicarbonate system in the human body.
C:
Buffers absorb excess hydroxide ions to prevent increases or decreases in pH. An example of that is the bicarbonate system in the human body.
D:
Buffers absorb excess hydrogen and hydroxide ions to prevent increases or decreases in pH. An example of that is carbonate system in human body.

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ID: 64@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.683Z

Question:
Why can water be a good insulator within the body of warm-blooded animals?
A:
adhesive properties
B:
surface tension
C:
heat of vaporization
D:
specific heat capacity

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ID: 65@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.694Z

Question:
When the temperature of liquid water is reduced, water freezes and becomes less dense. This is a property not seen in most other liquids. Ice floats on liquid water because it is less dense. What molecular property of water allows for this phenomenon?
A:
When water cools, hydrogen bonds between hydrogen atoms push water molecules further apart.
B:
When water cools, hydrogen bonds between hydrogen atoms pull water molecules closer together.
C:
When water cools, covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen atoms push water molecules further apart.
D:
When water cools, covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen atoms pull water molecules closer together.

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ID: 66@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.705Z

Question:

The unique properties of water are important in biological processes. For the following three properties of water, define the property and give one example of how the property affects living organisms:

  1. cohesion
  2. adhesion
  3. high heat of vaporization
A:
Cohesion is the attraction between the water molecules, which helps create surface tension. Insects can walk on water because of cohesion. Adhesion is the attraction between water molecules and other molecules. Water moving up from the roots of plants to the leaves as a result of capillary action is because of adhesion. Heat of vaporization is the amount of energy required to convert liquid into gas. This property helps humans maintain homeostasis of body temperature by evaporation.
B:
Cohesion is the attraction between water and other molecules, which help create surface tension. Insects can walk on water because of cohesion. Adhesion is the attraction between water molecules. Water moving up from the roots of plants to the leaves as a result of capillary action is because of adhesion. Heat of vaporization is the amount of energy required to convert liquid into gas. This property helps humans maintain homeostasis of body temperature by evaporation.
C:
Cohesion is the attraction between the water molecules, which helps create surface tension. Insects can walk on water because of cohesion. Adhesion is the attraction between water molecules and other molecules. Water moving up from the roots of plants to the leaves as a result of capillary action is because of adhesion. Heat of vaporization is the amount of energy required to convert solid into gas. This property helps humans maintain homeostasis of body temperature by evaporation.
D:
Cohesion is the attraction between the water molecules, which helps create surface tension. Insects can float on water because of cohesion. Adhesion is the attraction between water molecules and other molecules. Water moving up from the roots of plants to the leaves as a result of capillary action is because of adhesion. Heat of vaporization is the amount of energy required to convert liquid into gas. This property helps humans maintain homeostasis of body temperature by evaporation.

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ID: 67@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.717Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is false?
A:
Molecules with the formulas <span data-math="\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}">\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{C}_3\text{H}_6\text{O}_2">\text{C}_3\text{H}_6\text{O}_2</span> could be structural isomers.
B:
Molecules must have a double bond to be cis-trans isomers.
C:
To be enantiomers, a molecule must have at least three different atoms or groups connected to a central carbon.
D:
To be enantiomers, a molecule must have at least four different atoms or groups connected to a central carbon.

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ID: 68@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.728Z

Question:
What is the maximum number of atoms or molecules a single carbon molecule can bond with?
A:
4
B:
1
C:
6
D:
2

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ID: 69@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.734Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is true?
A:
Molecules with the formulas <span data-math="\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}">\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{C}_3\text{H}_6\text{O}_2">\text{C}_3\text{H}_6\text{O}_2</span> could be structural isomers.
B:
Molecules must have a single bond to be cis-trans isomers.
C:
To be enantiomers, a molecule must have at least three different atoms or groups connected to a central carbon
D:
To be enantiomers, a molecule must have at least four different atoms or groups connected to a central carbon

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ID: 70@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.745Z

Question:
Which of the following is not a functional group that can bond with carbon?
A:
carbonyl
B:
hydroxyl
C:
phosphate
D:
sodium

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ID: 71@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.761Z

Question:
Which of the following functional groups is not polar?
A:
carbonyl
B:
hydroxyl
C:
methyl
D:
sulfhydryl

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ID: 72@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.772Z

Question:
This illustration shows carbon 12 and carbon 13 atoms. The nucleus of each atom contains neutrally charged neutrons and positively charged protons represented by spheres. Both atoms have two circular orbitals surrounding the nucleus. The inner orbital has 2 electrons and the outer orbital has 4 electrons, for a total of 6 electrons in each atom. The difference between the carbon 12 and carbon 13 is in the composition of the nucleus: the carbon 12 nucleus contains 6 protons and 6 neutrons. The carbon 13 nucleus contains 6 protons and 7 neutrons What property of carbon makes it essential for organic life?
A:
Carbon can form up to four covalent bonds, allowing it to form long chains
B:
Carbon can form more than four covalent bonds, allowing it to form long chains
C:
Carbon can form more than four covalent bonds, but can only form short chains.
D:
Carbon can form up to four covalent bonds, but can only form short chains.

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ID: 73@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.784Z

Question:
What property of carboxyl makes carboxyl containing molecules hydrophilic? Which macromolecules contain carboxyl?
A:
Carboxyl groups release <span data-math="\text{H}^{+} {\!}">\text{H}^{+} {\!}</span>, making its parent molecule hydrophilic. It is found in phospholipids and triglycerides.
B:
Carboxyl groups absorb <span data-math="\text{H}^{+} {\!}">\text{H}^{+} {\!}</span> ion, making its parent molecule hydrophilic. It is found in phospholipids and triglycerides.
C:
Carboxyl groups release <span data-math="\text{OH}^{-} {\!}">\text{OH}^{-} {\!}</span>, making its parent molecule hydrophilic. It is found in phospholipids phosphates and triglycerides
D:
Carboxyl groups release <span data-math="\text{OH}^{-} {\!}">\text{OH}^{-} {\!}</span>, making its parent molecule hydrophilic. It is found in phospholipids and DNA.

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ID: 74@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.795Z

Question:
Limestone is a naturally occurring mineral rich in calcium carbonate ( $\text{CaCO}_3$ ). In water, calcium carbonate dissolves to form carbonate $({{\text{CO}_3}{\!}}^{2-})$ , a weak base that acts as a buffer. Which would you expect to be more affected by acid rain, an environment rich in limestone or an environment poor in limestone?
A:
The presence of limestone would not make a difference.
B:
An environment rich in limestone would be more affected by acid rain.
C:
An environment poor in limestone would be more affected by acid rain.
D:
The impact would depend on the type of vegetation present.

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ID: 75@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.800Z

Question:
If xenon has an atomic number of $54$ and a mass number of $108$ , how many neutrons does it have?
A:
<span data-math="27">27</span>
B:
<span data-math="54">54</span>
C:
<span data-math="100">100</span>
D:
<span data-math="108">108</span>

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ID: 76@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.811Z

Question:
Calcium has an atomic number of $20$ . What is its electron configuration?
A:
Shells 1 and 2 are full, and shell 3 has ten electrons
B:
Shells 1, 2, and 3 are full, and shell 4 has two electrons
C:
Shells 1, 2, and 3 are full, and shell 4 has one electron
D:
Shells 1, 2, 3, and 4 are full

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ID: 77@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.823Z

Question:
What forms ionic bonds?
A:
atoms by the equal sharing of electrons
B:
atoms by the unequal sharing of electrons
C:
ions with similar charges
D:
ions with opposite charges

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ID: 78@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.835Z

Question:
Table showing the electronegativity of several elements. They are: nitrogen, 3.04. Hydrogen, 2.20. Chlorine, 3.16. Oxygen, 3.44. Lithium, 0.98. Fluorine, 3.98. Based on the information provided, which of the following statements is true?
A:
In <span data-math="\text{NH}^2\!">\text{NH}^2\!</span>, the nitrogen atom acquires a partial positive charge, and the hydrogen atoms acquire a partial negative charge.
B:
In <span data-math="\text{H}_2\text{O}">\text{H}_2\text{O}</span>, the hydrogen atoms acquire a partial negative charge, and the oxygen atom acquires a partial positive charge.
C:
In <span data-math="\text{HCl}(\text{aq})">\text{HCl}(\text{aq})</span>, the hydrogen atom acquires a partial positive charge, and the chlorine atom acquires a partial negative charge.
D:
In <span data-math="\text{LiF}">\text{LiF}</span>, the lithium atom acquires a partial negative charge, and the fluorine atom acquires a partial positive charge.

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ID: 79@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.851Z

Question:
Bohr diagrams of elements from groups 1, 14, 17 and 18, and periods 1, 2 and 3 are shown. Period 1, in which the 1n shell is filling, contains hydrogen and helium. Hydrogen, in group 1, has one valence electron. Helium, in group 18, has two valence electrons. The 1n shell holds a maximum of two electrons, so the shell is full and the electron configuration is stable. Period 2, in which the 2n shell is filling, contains lithium, carbon, fluorine, and neon. Lithium, in group 1, has 1 valence electron. Carbon, in group 14, has 4 valence electrons. Fluorine, in group 17, has 7 valence electrons. Neon, in group 18, has 8 valence electrons, a full octet. Period 3, in which the 3n shell is filling, contains sodium, silicon, chlorine, and argon. Sodium, in group 1, has 1 valence electron. Silicon, in group 14, has 4 valence electrons. Chlorine, in group 17, has 7 valence electrons. Argon, in group 18, has 8 valence electrons, a full octet. Looking at the above figure, can you infer which two groups together will form a strong ionic bond?
A:
Group 1 and Group 17
B:
Group 1 and Group 14
C:
Group 14 and Group 18
D:
Group 1 and Group 18

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ID: 80@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.856Z

Question:
Define water’s property of adhesion.
A:
a force that allows surface water molecules to escape and vaporize
B:
the attraction between water molecules and other molecules
C:
the intermolecular force between water molecules
D:
the force that keeps particles dispersed in water

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ID: 81@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.873Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about the properties of water is false?
A:
The amount of energy required to change one gram of liquid water to a gas is lower than most other substances.
B:
The amount of heat one gram of water must absorb to increase its temperature by one degree Celsius is higher than most other common liquids on Earth.
C:
Water is capable of dissolving polar molecules and ionic compounds because water has slightly positive and slightly negative charges.
D:
The surface of liquid water can withstand being ruptured when placed under pressure due to hydrogen bonding.

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ID: 82@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.879Z

Question:
In a solution, what kind of molecule binds up excess hydrogen ions?
A:
acid
B:
base
C:
donator
D:
isotope

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ID: 83@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.890Z

Question:
What are the two acids in the following reaction? $\text{HNO}_3 + \text{H}_2\text{O}\;\text{H}_3\text{O}^+ + {\text{NO}_3}^-$
A:
<span data-math="\text{HNO}_3">\text{HNO}_3</span> and <span data-math="\text{H}_3\text{O}^+">\text{H}_3\text{O}^+</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{H}_2\text{O}">\text{H}_2\text{O}</span> and <span data-math="\text{HNO}_3">\text{HNO}_3</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{H}_2\text{O}">\text{H}_2\text{O}</span> and <span data-math="\text{H}_3\text{O}^+">\text{H}_3\text{O}^+</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{H}_2\text{O}">\text{H}_2\text{O}</span> and <span data-math="\text{NO}_3^-">\text{NO}_3^-</span>

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ID: 84@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.907Z

Question:
What are three examples of how the characteristics of water are important in maintaining life?
A:
First, the lower density of water as a solid versus a liquid allows ice to float, forming an insulating surface layer for aquatic life. Second, the high specific heat capacity of water insulates aquatic life or bodily fluids from temperature changes. Third, the high heat of vaporization of water allows animals to cool themselves by sweating.
B:
First, the higher density of water as a solid versus a liquid allows ice to float, forming an insulating surface layer for aquatic life. Second, the high specific heat capacity of water insulates aquatic life or bodily fluids from temperature changes. Third, the low heat of vaporization of water allows animals to cool themselves by sweating.
C:
First, the lower density of water as a solid versus a liquid allows ice to float, forming an insulating surface layer for aquatic life. Second, the low specific heat capacity of water insulates aquatic life or bodily fluids from temperature changes. Third, the high heat of vaporization of water allows animals to cool themselves by sweating.
D:
First, the lower density of water as a solid versus a liquid allows ice to float, forming an insulating surface layer for aquatic life. Second, the low specific heat capacity of water insulates aquatic life or bodily fluids from temperature changes. Third, the low heat of vaporization of water allows animals to cool themselves by sweating.

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ID: 85@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.912Z

Question:
Describe the pH scale and how it relates to living systems. Give an example of how drastic pH changes are prevented in living systems.
A:
The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, where anything below 7 is acidic and above 7 is alkaline. The bicarbonate system in the human body buffers the blood.
B:
The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, where anything below 7 is alkaline and above 7 is acidic. The bicarbonate system in human body buffers the blood.
C:
The pH scale ranges from 0 to 7, where anything below 7 is acidic and above 7 is alkaline. Water in the human body buffers the blood.
D:
pH scale ranges from 0 to 7, where anything below 4 is acidic and above 4 is alkaline. Water in the human body buffers the blood.

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ID: 86@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.924Z

Question:
What are enantiomers?
A:
Hydrocarbon consisting of closed rings of carbon atoms
B:
Isomers with similar bonding patterns differing in the placement of atoms along a double covalent bond.
C:
Molecules that share the same chemical bonds but are mirror images of each other.
D:
Molecules with the same chemical formula but differ in the placement of their chemical bonds

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ID: 87@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.941Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is false?
A:
Aromatic hydrocarbons consist of closed rings of carbon atoms.
B:
Enantiomers are molecules that share the same chemical structure and chemical bonds but differ in the three-dimensional placement of atoms so that they are mirror images.
C:
Hydrocarbons may exist as linear carbon chains, carbon rings, or combinations of both.
D:
Structural isomers have nearly the same atoms but differ in how their atoms are arranged.

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ID: 88@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.951Z

Question:
What is the functional group $\text{R}{\large -}\text{CH}_3$ ?
A:
amino
B:
carbonyl
C:
hydroxyl
D:
methyl

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ID: 89@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.957Z

Question:
What functional group is present in the molecule $\text{NH}_2\text{CO}_2\text{H}$ ?
A:
amino
B:
methyl
C:
phosphate
D:
sulfhydryl

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ID: 90@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.973Z

Question:
Compare and contrast saturated and unsaturated triglycerides.
A:
Saturated triglycerides contain single bonds and are solids at room temperature, while unsaturated triglycerides contain double bonds and are liquids at room temperature.
B:
Saturated triglycerides contain double bonds and are solids at room temperature, while unsaturated triglycerides contain single bonds and are liquids at room temperature.
C:
Saturated triglycerides contain single bonds and are liquids at room temperature, while unsaturated triglycerides contain double bonds and are solids at room temperature.
D:
Saturated triglycerides contain double bonds and are liquids at room temperature, while unsaturated triglycerides contain single bond and are solids at room temperature.

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ID: 91@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.979Z

Question:
A hexagonal carbon ring with three double bonds has four hydrogens bonding with four of the carbons at the left side of the ring. The fifth carbon on the right has a single bond with an oxygen, which then has a single bond with a carbon. This carbon then has a double bond with an oxygen, and a single bond with CH3. The sixth carbon has a single bond with a carbon, which then has a single bond with an OH and a double bond with an oxygen. Name the three functional groups in the compound pictured.
A:
carbonyl, methyl and carboxyl
B:
carbonyl, methyl and alcohol
C:
carbonyl, amine and carboxyl
D:
carbonyl, dimethyl and carboxyl

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ID: 92@1

2015-08-20T13:03:32.991Z

Question:
What role do electrons play in dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis?
A:
Sharing of electrons between monomers occurs in both dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis.
B:
The sharing of electrons between monomers occurs in hydrolysis only.
C:
<span data-math="\text{H}^+">\text{H}^+</span> and <span data-math="\text{OH}^-">\text{OH}^-</span> ions share electrons with the respective monomers in dehydration synthesis.
D:
<span data-math="\text{H}^+">\text{H}^+</span> and <span data-math="\text{OH}^-">\text{OH}^-</span> ions share electrons with the respective monomers in hydrolysis.

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ID: 93@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.002Z

Question:
Dehydration synthesis leads to the formation of what?
A:
monomers
B:
polymers
C:
water and polymers
D:
water and monomers

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ID: 94@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.013Z

Question:
What is removed during the formation of nucleic acid polymers?
A:
carbon
B:
hydroxyl groups
C:
phosphates
D:
amino acids

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ID: 95@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.024Z

Question:
During the breakdown of polymers, which of the following reactions takes place?
A:
condensation
B:
covalent bond
C:
dehydration
D:
hydrolysis

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ID: 96@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.041Z

Question:
Energy is released as a result of which of the following chemical reactions?
A:
condensation
B:
dehydration synthesis
C:
hydrolysis
D:
dissolution

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ID: 97@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.052Z

Question:
The word hydrolysis is defined as the lysis of water. How does this apply to polymers?
A:
Polymers break by separating water into hydrogen and hydroxyl group that are added to the monomers.
B:
Polymers are synthesized by using the energy released by the breaking of water molecules into hydrogen and hydroxyl group.
C:
Polymers are separated into monomers producing energy and water molecules.
D:
Polymers are hydrolyzed into monomers using water in the process and are called as dehydration synthesis.

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ID: 98@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.058Z

Question:
What role do electrons play in dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis?
A:
Electrons are added to <span data-math="\text{OH}">\text{OH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{H}">\text{H}</span> ion in the dehydration synthesis. They are removed from <span data-math="\text{OH}">\text{OH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{H}">\text{H}</span> in hydrolysis.
B:
Electrons are transferred from <span data-math="\text{OH}">\text{OH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{H}">\text{H}</span> ions to the monomers in dehydration synthesis. They are taken up by the <span data-math="\text{H}">\text{H}</span> and <span data-math="\text{OH}">\text{OH}</span> ions from the monomers in hydrolysis.
C:
Electrons are removed from <span data-math="\text{OH}">\text{OH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{H}">\text{H}</span> in the dehydration synthesis. They are added to <span data-math="\text{OH}">\text{OH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{H}">\text{H}</span> in hydrolysis.
D:
Electrons are transferred from monomers to <span data-math="\text{H}">\text{H}</span> and <span data-math="\text{OH}">\text{OH}</span> ions in hydrolysis and from <span data-math="\text{OH}">\text{OH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{H}">\text{H}</span> to monomers in dehydration synthesis.

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ID: 99@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.069Z

Question:
Urey and Miller constructed an experiment to illustrate the early atmosphere of the Earth and possible development of organic molecules in the absence of living cells. Which assumption did Urey and Miller make regarding conditions on Earth?
A:
electric sparks occurred to catalyze the reaction
B:
the composition of the gases in the atmosphere
C:
there was sufficient oxygen for creating life
D:
it produced water-soluble organic molecules

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ID: 100@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.086Z

Question:
Urey and Miller proposed that a series of reactions occurred, which ultimately resulted in amino acid formation. Which of the following is true?
A:
Hydrogen and nitrogen combined to create amino acids.
B:
Hydrogen and oxygen combined to create macromolecules.
C:
Nitrogenous bases combined to form monomers then RNA.
D:
Periodic elements combined to create molecules then DNA.

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ID: 101@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.091Z

Question:
How does Stanley Miller and Harold Urey’s model support the claim that simple precursors present on early Earth could have assembled into complex molecules necessary for life?
A:
The simple molecules assembled to form amino acids and nucleic acids.
B:
The organic molecules assembled to form the large complexes such as water and methane.
C:
The inorganic molecules assembled to form the amino acids and nucleic acids.
D:
The inorganic molecules assembled to form the large complexes such as water and methane.

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ID: 102@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.102Z

Question:
Which statement most accurately describes the importance of the condensation stage during Urey and Miller’s experiment significant?
A:
Condensed water enabled the formation of monomers.
B:
Condensation and evaporation simulated lightning storms.
C:
Condensation and evaporation simulated the water cycle.
D:
Condensed water enabled the formation of polymers.

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ID: 103@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.118Z

Question:
According to the findings of the Urey and Miller experiment, the primitive atmosphere consisted of water in the form of steam, methane, ammonia, and hydrogen gases. If there was so much hydrogen gas in the early atmosphere, why is there so little now?
A:
Hydrogen gas is so light with a molecular weight of 1 that the excess diffused into space over time and is now absent from the atmosphere.
B:
Hydrogen combined with ammonia to make ammonium.
C:
It was all used up in the production of organic molecules.
D:
The excess hydrogen gas was dissolved in the early oceans.

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ID: 104@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.124Z

Question:
Could the primitive atmosphere illustrated by the Urey and Miller experiment be reproduced on today’s Earth? Why or why not?
A:
The primitive atmosphere cannot be created due to the oxidizing atmosphere and lack of hydrogen.
B:
The primitive atmosphere can be created as the atmosphere is reducing and the Earth has sufficient hydrogen to reproduce the conditions.
C:
The primitive atmosphere cannot be created due to the presence of abundant water and hydrogen in the atmosphere.
D:
The primitive atmosphere can be created as the atmosphere is oxidizing and has less of hydrogen.

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ID: 105@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.140Z

Question:

What kind of sugars are these, aldose or ketose?

  1. fructose
  2. galactose
  3. glucose
A:
Glucose and galactose are aldoses. Fructose is a ketose
B:
Glucose and fructose are aldoses. Galactose is a ketose.
C:
Galactose and fructose are ketoses. Glucose is an aldose.
D:
Glucose and fructose are ketoses. Galactose is an aldose.

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ID: 106@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.152Z

Question:
Fiber is not really a nutrient, because it passes through our body undigested. Explain why fiber cannot be digested and why it is important to our diet.
A:
The enzymes required to digest cellulose are not produced in human body; undigested fiber adds bulk to the food easing bowel movements.
B:
The enzymes that digests cellulose cannot bind to the cellulose due to altered active sites; undigested fiber adds bulk to the food easing bowel movements.
C:
The enzymes required to digest cellulose are not produced in human body; fiber produces energy for the metabolism.
D:
The enzymes that digest cellulose cannot bind to the cellulose due to the presence of competitive inhibitors; undigested fiber adds bulk to the food easing bowel movements.

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ID: 107@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.162Z

Question:
Plant cell walls contain which of the following in abundance?
A:
cellulose
B:
glycogen
C:
lactose
D:
starch

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ID: 108@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.174Z

Question:
What makes up the outer layer of some insects?
A:
carbohydrate
B:
protein
C:
RNA
D:
triglyceride

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ID: 109@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.185Z

Question:
Give an example of a monosaccharide.
A:
cellulose
B:
fructose
C:
lactose
D:
sucrose

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ID: 110@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.190Z

Question:
What are cellulose and starch examples of?
A:
disaccharides
B:
lipids
C:
monosaccharides
D:
polysaccharides

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ID: 111@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.201Z

Question:
Lactose is a disaccharide. It is formed by what kind of bond? The bond occurs between glucose and what else?
A:
a glycosidic bond between glucose and lactose
B:
a glycosidic bond between glucose and galactose
C:
a hydrogen bond between glucose and sucrose
D:
a hydrogen bond between glucose and fructose

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ID: 112@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.212Z

Question:
What is structurally different about cellulose when compared to starch?
A:
an extra hydrogen atom is left on the monomer
B:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>-1,4 glycosidic linkages are used
C:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>-1,6 glycosidic linkages are used
D:
an extra hydroxyl group is removed during synthesis

Tags:

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ID: 113@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.229Z

Question:
Why is it impossible for humans to digest food that contains cellulose?
A:
Humans have a degenerated appendix that is unable to digest cellulose.
B:
An inactive form of cellulase in human digestive tract renders it undigested and removes it as waste.
C:
The acidic environment in the human stomach makes it impossible to break the bonds in cellulose.
D:
Human digestive enzymes cannot break down the <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>-1,4 linkage.

Tags:

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ID: 114@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.235Z

Question:
Describe the similarities and differences between glycogen and starch.
A:
Glycogen is less branched than starch and is found in animals.
B:
Glycogen is more highly branched than starch and is found in plants.
C:
Starch is less branched than glycogen and is found in plants.
D:
Starch is more branched than glycogen and is found in animals.

Tags:

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ID: 115@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.245Z

Question:
Using the three monosaccharides, explain the production of sucrose, maltose, and lactose.
A:
Glucose and fructose combine to form sucrose. Glucose and galactose combine to form lactose. Two glucose monomers combine to form maltose.
B:
Glucose and fructose combine to form sucrose. Glucose and galactose combine to form maltose. Two glucose combine to form lactose.
C:
Two glucose combine to form lactose. Glucose and galactose combine to form sucrose. Glucose and fructose combine to form maltose.
D:
Two galactose combine to form sucrose. Fructose and glucose combine to form lactose. Two glucose combine to form maltose.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s02 apbio-ch03-s02-lo03 apbio-ch03-ex024

ID: 116@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.257Z

Question:
What is structurally different between starch and cellulose that gives them different physical properties?
A:
Cellulose polymers are formed by 1,4 linkages that makes it rigid. Starch shows 1,4 and 1,6 linkage, which can be digested by amylase.
B:
Cellulose has 1,4 linkages in its structure that makes it rigid whereas starch shows 1,4 and 1,6 linkage, which is digested easily by amylase.
C:
Starch is made up of glucose monomers to produce amylose and amylopectin, which are rigid and cellulose is specific in structure and easy to digest.
D:
Starch is made of amylose and amylopectin, which provide it the high tensile strength. Cellulose is easy to digest.

Tags:

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ID: 117@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.268Z

Question:
Athletes consume large amounts of energy to meet the needs of their high activity level. Carbohydrates are an excellent choice for delivering calories that quickly fuel the body. Which of the following would be the best source of energy for an athlete? A is a three carbon chain with an oxygen double bonded to the first carbon and an -OH group bonded to each of the second and third carbons. b is a five carbon chain with an oxygen doubled bonded to the first carbon and an -OH group bonded to each of the remaining four carbons. c is a six carbon chain with an oxygen doubled bonded to the first carbon and an -OH group bonded to each of the remaining carbons. d. is a three carbon chain with an oxygen double bonded to the middle carbon and an -OH group bonded to the first and last carbon.
A:
( a )
B:
( b )
C:
( c )
D:
( d )

Tags:

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ID: 118@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.279Z

Question:
Animals cannot digest cellulose due to the type of bonding between the glucose monomers. The glucose monomers are there for an energy source but are unattainable. Yet ruminants such as cows and sheep, and termites eat cellulose in the form of grasses and wood. How do they do it?
A:
Specialized glands in the digestive tracts of these animals secrete digestive enzymes that affect cellulose.
B:
Specialized bacteria and protists are found in the digestive tracts of these animals making cellulase that results in cellulose breakdown.
C:
These animals make a specialized type of amylase that digests cellulose.
D:
The saliva of these animals initiates the breakdown of cellulose and it is completed in their stomach.

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ID: 119@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.295Z

Question:
What are the differences between saturated and unsaturated fats?
A:
Saturated fats have at least one double bond between carbon atoms but unsaturated fats have no double bonds.
B:
Saturated fats are solid at room temperature and unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature
C:
Saturated fats are liquid at room temperature and unsaturated fats are solid at room temperature.
D:
Saturated fats are solid at room temperature and have at least one double bond unlike unsaturated fats.

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ID: 120@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.301Z

Question:
Which of the following are classified as lipids?
A:
disaccharides and cellulose
B:
essential amino acids
C:
mRNA and DNA
D:
oils and waxes

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo01 apbio-ch03-ex029

ID: 121@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.317Z

Question:
What is cholesterol specifically classified as?
A:
a lipid
B:
a phospholipid
C:
a steroid
D:
a wax

Tags:

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ID: 122@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.328Z

Question:
Which fat serves as an animal’s major form of energy storage?
A:
cholesterol
B:
glycerol
C:
phospholipid
D:
triglycerides

Tags:

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ID: 123@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.340Z

Question:
Which hormones are made from cholesterol?
A:
estradiol and testosterone
B:
insulin and growth hormone
C:
progesterone and glucagon
D:
prolactin and thyroid hormone

Tags:

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ID: 124@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.352Z

Question:
Which of the following characteristics is not true for saturated fats?
A:
They are solid at room temperature.
B:
They have single bonds within the carbon chain.
C:
They are usually obtained from animal sources.
D:
They tend to dissolve in water easily.

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ID: 125@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.363Z

Question:
Which fat has the least number of hydrogen atoms?
A:
trans fat
B:
saturated fat
C:
unsaturated fat
D:
wax

Tags:

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ID: 126@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.381Z

Question:
What are phospholipids important components of?
A:
the double bond in hydrocarbon chains
B:
the plasma membrane of animal cells
C:
the ring structure of steroids
D:
the waxy covering on leaves

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo04 apbio-ch03-ex035

ID: 127@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.386Z

Question:
What is a diacylglycerol 3-phosphate?
A:
phospholipid
B:
phosphatidylcholine
C:
phosphatidylserine
D:
phosphatidate

Tags:

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ID: 128@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.403Z

Question:
What is the basic structure of a steroid?
A:
four fused hydrocarbon rings
B:
glycerol with three fatty acid chains
C:
two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group
D:
two six carbon rings

Tags:

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ID: 129@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.408Z

Question:
Besides its use in hormone production, what does the body use cholesterol for?
A:
mRNA transport
B:
production of bile salts
C:
water reabsorption in the kidney
D:
wax production

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo05 apbio-ch03-ex038

ID: 130@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.424Z

Question:
Where is cholesterol found in cell membranes?
A:
attached to the inner side of the membrane
B:
attached to the outer side of the membrane
C:
floating in the phospholipid tail layer
D:
penetrating both lipid layers

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ID: 131@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.436Z

Question:
Which type of body cell would have a higher amount of cholesterol in its membrane?
A:
a cartilage cell
B:
a liver cell
C:
a red blood cell
D:
a spleen cell

Tags:

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ID: 132@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.447Z

Question:
List the four classes of lipids. Provide a common example for each one.
A:
<ol> <li>lipids like margarine</li> <li>wax like the coating on feathers</li> <li>phospholipids like cell membrane constituents</li> <li>steroid like cholesterol</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>lipids like phosphatidylserine</li> <li>wax like phosphatidic acid</li> <li>phospholipids like oleic acid</li> <li>steroid like epinephrine</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>lipids like phosphatidic acid</li> <li>waxes like margarine</li> <li>phospholipids like phosphatidylcholine</li> <li>steroids like testosterone</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>lipids like cholesterol</li> <li>waxes like the coating on feathers</li> <li>phospholipids like phosphatidylserine</li> <li>steroids like margarine</li> </ol>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo01 apbio-ch03-ex041

ID: 133@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.459Z

Question:
Explain at least three functions that lipids serve in plants and/or animals.
A:
Lipids serve in the storage of energy, as a structural component of hormones, and also the phospholipids.
B:
Lipids serve in the storage of energy, as carriers for the transport of proteins across the membrane, and as signaling molecules.
C:
Lipids serve in the breakdown of stored energy molecules, as signaling molecules, and as structural components of hormones.
D:
Lipids serve in the breakdown of stored energy molecules, as signaling molecules, and as channels for protein transport.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo02 apbio-ch03-ex042

ID: 134@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.465Z

Question:
Why have trans fats been banned from some restaurants? How are they created?
A:
Trans fat is produced by the hydrogenation of oil that makes it saturated. It serves to increase the LDL amounts.
B:
The dehydrogenation of oil forms the trans fat, which contains single bonds in its structure. This increases the HDL in the body and has been banned.
C:
Trans fat is produced by dehydrogenation of oils, which makes it unsaturated. It increases the LDL in body.
D:
The hydrogenation of oil makes the trans fat, which contains double bonds in its structure. It decreases the HDL in the body.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo03 apbio-ch03-ex043

ID: 135@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.476Z

Question:
How do phospholipids contribute to cell membrane structure?
A:
Phospholipids orient their heads towards the polar molecules and tails in the interior of the membrane, thus forming a bilayer.
B:
Phospholipids orient their tails towards the polar molecules and heads in the interior of the membrane, thus forming a bilayer.
C:
Phospholipids orient their heads towards the non-polar molecules and tails in the interior of the membrane, forming a bilayer.
D:
Phospholipids orient their tails towards the polar molecules and heads in the non-polar side of the membrane, forming a bilayer.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo04 apbio-ch03-ex044

ID: 136@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.488Z

Question:
What type of compound functions in hormone production, contributes to membrane flexibility, and is the starting molecule for bile salts?
A:
All steroid molecules help in the mentioned functions.
B:
Cholesterol, which is a lipid and also a steroid, functions here.
C:
Glycogen, which is a multi-branched polysaccharide of glucose, is the compound.
D:
Phosphatidylcholine that is a phospholipid with a choline head group, which serves the functions.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo05 apbio-ch03-ex045

ID: 137@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.505Z

Question:
What part of cell membranes gives flexibility to the structure?
A:
carbohydrates
B:
cytoskeleton filaments
C:
lipids
D:
proteins

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo06 apbio-ch03-ex046

ID: 138@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.511Z

Question:
Two six carbon rings with hydroxyl groups are shown. The hydroxyl group on one is highlighted red, the hydrogen of a hydroxyl group of the other is highlighted red. An arrow points to two five carbon rings connected by an oxygen. Complex polymers are built from combinations of smaller monomers. What type of reaction is shown and what is a product of the following reaction?
A:
a synthesis reaction producing glucose
B:
a hydrolysis reaction producing fructose
C:
a condensation reaction producing lactose
D:
a dehydration reaction producing water

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-aplo-4-2 apbio-ch03-ex049

ID: 139@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.528Z

Question:
The fatty acids of triglycerides are classified as saturated, unsaturated, or trans fats. What is it about the structure of these compounds that give them their physical characteristics?
A:
Saturated fats and trans fats contain the greatest possible number of hydrogen atoms, while unsaturated fats do not.
B:
Saturated and unsaturated fats have stable configurations, while trans fats are transient.
C:
Unsaturated fats and trans fats have some double bonded carbon atoms, while saturated fats do not.
D:
Unsaturated and trans fats are the same; the fatty acids are just found on opposite sides of a trans fat.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short ap-test-prep blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-aplo-4-3 apbio-ch03-ex050

ID: 140@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.539Z

Question:
Which categories of amino acid would you expect to find on the surface of a soluble protein, and which would you expect to find in the interior? What distribution of amino acids would you expect to find in a protein embedded in a lipid bilayer?
A:
Polar and charged amino acids will be found on the surface. Non-polar amino acids will be found in the interior. The membrane proteins will be non-polar and hydrophobic.
B:
Polar and charged amino acids will be found on the surface. Non-polar amino acids will be found in the interior. The membrane protein will be polar and hydrophobic.
C:
Non-polar and charged amino acids will be present on the surface and polar in the interior of the membrane. Non-polar amino acids will be found in the membrane embedded proteins.
D:
Non-polar and uncharged proteins will be found on the surface as well as in the interior. Only non-polar amino acids will be found in the embedded proteins.

Tags:

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ID: 141@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.544Z

Question:
Why is the process of protein synthesis critical to life?
A:
Protein is the body’s preferred source for energy.
B:
Protein is stored in the liver and muscles to supply energy for future use.
C:
Protein is required for tissue formation and constitutes hormones and enzymes.
D:
Proteins are required for absorption and storage of some types of vitamins.

Tags:

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ID: 142@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.561Z

Question:
The protein sequence of cytochrome c from chimpanzees and humans is identical. The protein sequence of cytochrome c from rhesus monkeys differs from the human sequence by one amino acid. What do these comparisons suggest?
A:
Rhesus monkeys are more closely related to humans than chimpanzees.
B:
Chimpanzees are more closely related to rhesus monkeys than to humans.
C:
Humans are related to chimpanzees, but are not related to rhesus monkeys.
D:
Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than rhesus monkeys.

Tags:

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ID: 143@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.572Z

Question:
Vegans are people who do not consume any animal products in their diet. Why do vegans need to pay special attention to the protein they eat?
A:
Plant proteins contain all the essential as well as non-essential amino acids.
B:
All plants proteins do not have all the essential proteins amino acids.
C:
Plant proteins contain only non-essential amino acids.
D:
Plants proteins do not have all of the non-essential amino acids, but do contain the essential amino acids.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo01 apbio-ch03-ex054

ID: 144@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.578Z

Question:
Which of the following is a function of proteins in cells?
A:
energy storage
B:
gene storage and access
C:
membrane fluidity
D:
structure

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo01 apbio-ch03-ex055

ID: 145@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.589Z

Question:
What type of protein facilitates or accelerates chemical reactions?
A:
an enzyme
B:
a hormone
C:
a membrane transport protein
D:
a tRNA molecule

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo01 apbio-ch03-ex056

ID: 146@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.606Z

Question:
What are the monomers that make up proteins called?
A:
amino acids
B:
chaperones
C:
disaccharides
D:
nucleotides

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo02 apbio-ch03-ex057

ID: 147@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.611Z

Question:
Where is the linkage made that combines two amino acids?
A:
between the R group of one amino acid and the R group of the second
B:
between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of the other
C:
between the 6 carbon of both amino acids
D:
between the nitrogen atoms of the amino groups in the amino acids

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo02 apbio-ch03-ex058

ID: 148@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.622Z

Question:
The ${\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}}{\!}$ -helix and the ${\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}}{\!}$ -pleated sheet are part of which protein structure?
A:
the primary structure
B:
the secondary structure
C:
the tertiary structure
D:
the quaternary structure

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo03 apbio-ch03-ex059

ID: 149@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.633Z

Question:
Which structural level of proteins is most often functional?
A:
the primary structure
B:
the secondary structure
C:
the tertiary structure
D:
the quaternary structure

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo03 apbio-ch03-ex060

ID: 150@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.645Z

Question:
Which of the following may cause a protein to denature?
A:
changes in pH
B:
high temperatures
C:
high temperatures, changes in pH, and some chemicals
D:
some chemicals

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo04 apbio-ch03-ex061

ID: 151@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.656Z

Question:
What is a protein’s chaperone?
A:
a chemical that assists the protein in its enzymatic functions
B:
a second protein that completes the quaternary structure
C:
a chemical that helps the protein fold properly
D:
a chemical that functions as a cofactor for the protein

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo04 apbio-ch03-ex062

ID: 152@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.674Z

Question:
How do the differences in amino acid sequences lead to different protein functions?
A:
Different amino acids produce different proteins based on the bonds formed between them.
B:
Differences in amino acids lead to the recycling of proteins, which produces other functional proteins.
C:
Different amino acids cause rearrangements of amino acids to produce a functional protein.
D:
Differences in the amino acids cause post-translational modification of the protein, which reassembles to produce a functional protein.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo01 apbio-ch03-ex063

ID: 153@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.679Z

Question:
What causes the changes in protein structure through the three or four levels of structure?
A:
The primary chain forms secondary -helix and -pleated sheets which fold onto each other forming the tertiary structure.
B:
The primary structure undergoes alternative splicing to form secondary structures, which fold on other protein chains to form tertiary structures.
C:
The primary structure forms secondary -helix and -pleated sheets. This further undergoes phosphorylation and acetylation to form the tertiary structure.
D:
The primary structure undergoes alternative splicing to form a secondary structure, and then disulfide bonds give way to tertiary structures.

Tags:

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ID: 154@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.690Z

Question:
What structural level of proteins is functional? Why?
A:
The secondary structure is functional as it attains its 2-dimentional shape which has the necessary bonds.
B:
The tertiary structure is functional as it possesses the geometric shape showing the necessary loops and bends.
C:
The tertiary structure is functional as it has the non-covalent and covalent bonds along with the subunits attached at the right places, which help it function properly.
D:
Quaternary structure is functional as it has the essential set of subunits.

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ID: 155@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.701Z

Question:
Describe how a chaperone works with proteins.
A:
Chaperones assist proteins in folding.
B:
Chaperones cause the aggregation of polypeptides.
C:
Chaperones associate with proteins once the target protein is folded.
D:
Chaperones escort proteins during translation.

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ID: 156@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.717Z

Question:
Carbohydrates serve various functions in different animals. Arthropods like insects, crustaceans, and others, have an outer layer, called the exoskeleton, which protects their internal body parts. This exoskeleton is made mostly of chitin. Chitin is also a major component of the cell walls of fungi, the kingdom that includes molds and mushrooms. Chitin is a polysaccharide. What is the major difference between chitin and other types of polysaccharides?
A:
Chitin is a nitrogen-containing polysaccharide, with repeating units of N-acetyl-<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>-D-glucosamine, a modified sugar.
B:
Chitin is similar to amylase, but with sulfur linkages between the monomers.
C:
Chitin is similar to inulin, a polysaccharide with fructose, but with additional glucose monomers.
D:
Chitin contains phosphate groups that give it a stiffness not found in other polysaccharides.

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ID: 157@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.723Z

Question:
What categories of amino acids would you expect to find on the surface of a soluble protein and which would you expect to find in the interior? List some examples for each part of the answer.
A:
Non-polar and charged amino acids will be present on the surface and polar in the interior of the membrane whereas non-polar will be found in the membrane embedded proteins.
B:
Non-polar and uncharged proteins will be found on the surface with non-polar in the interior, while only non-polar will be found in the embedded proteins.
C:
Polar and charged amino acids will be found on the surface whereas non-polar in the interior.
D:
Polar and charged amino acids will be found on the surface whereas non-polar in the interior. The membrane protein will be polar and hydrophobic.

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ID: 158@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.734Z

Question:
You have been identifying the sequence of a segment of a protein. The sequence to date is: leucine-methionine-tyrosine-alanine-glutamine-lysine-glutamate. You insert arginine between the leucine and methionine. What effect would this have on the segment?
A:
Arginine is a negatively charged amino acid and could attach to the glutamate at the end of the segment
B:
Inserting arginine places a positively charged amino acid in a portion that is non-polar, creating the possibility of a hydrogen bond in this area.
C:
There would be no effect other than an additional amino acid.
D:
The arginine could attach to the lysine and bend the protein chain at this point.

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ID: 159@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.745Z

Question:
Predict what happens if even one amino acid is substituted for another in a polypeptide and provide a specific example.
A:
The amino acid will show no effect on the function and structure of the protein.
B:
The amino acid may not show any significant effect the protein structure and function or it may have a significant effect as in the case of sickle cell hemoglobin.
C:
These changes would increase the possibility of having extra bends and loops in the proteins as in Leber congenital disease.
D:
These changes would modify the structures of proteins making them nonfunctional.

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ID: 160@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.756Z

Question:
A mutation occurs, and cytosine is replaced with adenine. What impact do you think this will have on the DNA structure?
A:
The DNA will normally pair its adenine with thymine, causing no change in the DNA structure.
B:
The DNA will bulge in the places where cytosine is replaced by adenine.
C:
The adenine substituted in the place of cytosine will get methylated and will not be transcribed further.
D:
The DNA will cause another mutation to replace this incorrect DNA base.

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ID: 161@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.773Z

Question:
Why is DNA replication like an assembly line?
A:
It consists of many biochemical machines that functions specifically in order to drive a specific action like an assembly line.
B:
It consists of many biochemical machines that have the same function in order to drive a specific action like an assembly line.
C:
It consists of many biochemical machines where each functions randomly in order to drive a specific action like an assembly line.
D:
It consists of many biochemical machines that functions in order to drive a non-specific action like an assembly line.

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ID: 162@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.785Z

Question:
What are the building blocks of nucleic acids?
A:
nitrogenous bases
B:
nucleotides
C:
peptides
D:
sugars

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ID: 163@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.791Z

Question:
What may a nucleotide of DNA contain?
A:
ribose, uracil, and a phosphate group
B:
deoxyribose, uracil, and a phosphate group
C:
deoxyribose, thymine, and a phosphate group
D:
ribose, thymine, and a phosphate group

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ID: 164@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.803Z

Question:
What is DNA’s structure described as?
A:
a step ladder
B:
a double helix
C:
a tertiary protein-like structure
D:
barber pole

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ID: 165@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.820Z

Question:
What is found in RNA that is not in DNA?
A:
deoxyribose and adenine
B:
fructose and thymine
C:
glucose and quinine
D:
ribose and uracil

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ID: 166@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.826Z

Question:
What is the smallest type of RNA?
A:
mRNA
B:
microRNA
C:
rRNA
D:
tRNA

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ID: 167@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.837Z

Question:
Where is DNA found in a eukaryotic cell?
A:
attached to the inner layer of the cell membrane
B:
in the nucleus
C:
in the cytoplasm
D:
on ribosomes

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ID: 168@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.848Z

Question:
What are the structural differences between DNA and RNA?
A:
DNA is made from nucleotides; RNA is not.
B:
DNA contains deoxyribose and thymine while RNA contains ribose and uracil.
C:
DNA contains adenine, while RNA contains guanine.
D:
DNA is double stranded, while RNA may be double stranded in animals.

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ID: 169@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.864Z

Question:
Where is hereditary information stored in nucleic acids?
A:
Hereditary information is stored in DNA.
B:
Hereditary information is stored in mRNA.
C:
Hereditary information is stored in proteins.
D:
Hereditary information is stored in tRNA.

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ID: 170@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.870Z

Question:
Compare the four types of RNA by structure and function.
A:
mRNA is a single stranded transcript of DNA. rRNA is found in ribosomes. tRNA transfers specific amino acids to a developing protein strand. miRNA regulates the expression of mRNA strands.
B:
mRNA is a single stranded transcript of rRNA. rRNA is translated in ribosomes to make proteins. tRNA transfers specific amino acids to a developing protein strand. microRNA (miRNA) regulates the expression of the mRNA strand.
C:
mRNA regulates the expression of the miRNA strand. rRNA are found in ribosomes. tRNA transfers specific amino acids to a developing protein strand. miRNA is a single stranded transcript of DNA.
D:
mRNA is a single stranded transcript of DNA. rRNA transfers specific amino acids to a developing protein strand. tRNA is found in ribosomes. miRNA regulates the expression of the mRNA strand.

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ID: 171@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.881Z

Question:
HIV is an RNA virus that affects CD4 cells, also known as T cells, in the human body. Which mechanism is most likely responsible for the fast rate at which HIV can spread?
A:
recombination
B:
mutation
C:
reassortment
D:
replication errors

Tags:

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ID: 172@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.897Z

Question:
DNA is considered the storage material for cellular genes in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms. Viruses are not classified in either category, but still use DNA for gene storage, except for a group of viruses called RNA viruses. The virus of AIDS, HIV, is one of these. These viruses do not contain any DNA, but RNA similar to mRNA. They do carry and transmit genetic information. How can they do that?
A:
An enzyme reverses the usual process, producing DNA from the viral RNA.
B:
The viral RNA goes through translation in the host cell.
C:
The viral RNA is actually a variant of DNA.
D:
Viral RNA attaches to the host’s chromosomes.

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ID: 173@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.903Z

Question:
For many years, scientist believed that proteins were the source of heritable information. There are many thousands of different proteins in a cell, and they mediate the cell’s metabolism, producing the traits and characteristics of a species. Researchers working with DNA viruses proved it is DNA that stores and passes on genes. They worked with viruses with an outer coat of protein and a DNA strand inside. How did they prove that it was DNA, not protein, which the primary sources of heritable information?
A:
The DNA and protein of the virus were tagged with different isotopes and exposed to host cell where only the DNA was transferred to the host.
B:
The DNA was tagged with an isotope, which was retained in the virus, proving it to be the genetic material.
C:
The viral protein was tagged with an isotope, and the host cell was infected by it. This protein was transferred to the host.
D:
The viral DNA, when sequenced, was found to be present in the host cell proving it to be the hereditary material instead of protein.

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ID: 174@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.919Z

Question:
The genetic code is based on each amino acid being coded for by a distinctive series of three nucleic acid bases called a codon. The following is a short segment of DNA using the slash symbol ( / ) to separate the codons for easy viewing: $\text{ATC/GTT/GAA/CTG/TAG/GAT/AAA}$ A change has occurred in the segment resulting in the following: $\text{ATC/GTT/GTA/CTG/TAG/GAT/AAA}$ What kind of change has occurred?
A:
A substitution of <span data-math="\text{T}">\text{T}</span> for <span data-math="\text{A}">\text{A}</span>, changing the coding for the third codon
B:
An addition of <span data-math="\text{C}">\text{C}</span> for <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span>, lengthening the strand and changing every codon past the addition
C:
A deletion of an <span data-math="\text{A}">\text{A}</span>, resulting in a shortening and changing every codon past the deletion
D:
No change has occurred; the same one base was replaced with the same one

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch03-ex085

ID: 175@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.930Z

Question:
Using the DNA from the previous question, $\text{ATC/GTT/GTA/CTG/TAG/GAT/AAA}$ what mRNA would be made from this DNA fragment?
A:
<span data-math="\text{UAC/CAA/CAT/GAC/AUC/CUA/UUU}">\text{UAC/CAA/CAT/GAC/AUC/CUA/UUU}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{UAG/CAA/CAU/GAC/AUC/CUA/AAA}">\text{UAG/CAA/CAU/GAC/AUC/CUA/AAA}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{UAG/CAA/CAU/GAC/AUC/CUA/UUU}">\text{UAG/CAA/CAU/GAC/AUC/CUA/UUU}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{UAC/CAT/CAU/GAC/AUC/CUA/UUU}">\text{UAC/CAT/CAU/GAC/AUC/CUA/UUU}</span>

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch03-ex086

ID: 176@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.941Z

Question:
A change in DNA on a chromosome affects all proteins made from that gene for the life of the cell. A change in the RNA involved in protein production is short lived. Explain the difference between the effects of the changes in the two types of nucleic acids.
A:
DNA is the hereditary genetic material transferred from parents to offspring affecting generations. RNA is not inherited and would eventually be degraded.
B:
DNA would not affect the individuals as the proteins made are finally altered and modified. RNA would cause harm to the person as the RNA is encoded by the DNA and is not altered.
C:
DNA is the genetic material and is transferred from one generation to another making use of repair mechanisms for every mutation. The RNA does not use a repair mechanism.
D:
DNA, when mutated, makes use of the repair mechanisms and can be repaired whereas RNA is not repaired and is transferred in generations.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch03-ex087

ID: 177@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.952Z

Question:
What process is used to produce polymers?
A:
dehydration synthesis
B:
hydrolysis
C:
hydrogen bonding
D:
oxidation

Tags:

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ID: 178@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.958Z

Question:
How does the formation of nucleic acid polymers differ from the formation of polysaccharides?
A:
Carbon is removed from nucleic acids, but not from polysaccharides.
B:
Hydroxyl groups are used to form nucleic acids, but not polysaccharides.
C:
Phosphates are removed from nucleic acids, but not polysaccharides.
D:
Water is removed from nucleic acids, but not from polysaccharides.

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ID: 179@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.968Z

Question:
In the metabolism of cell, why is hydrolysis used?
A:
Hydrolysis breaks down polymers.
B:
Hydrolysis is used to form linkages in DNA.
C:
Hydrolysis is used to produce proteins.
D:
Hydrolysis synthesizes new macromolecules.

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ID: 180@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.979Z

Question:
How can energy be supplied to chemical reactions?
A:
condensation
B:
dehydration synthesis
C:
hydrolysis
D:
transcription

Tags:

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ID: 181@1

2015-08-20T13:03:33.997Z

Question:
Dehydration is a word usually used to mean the removal of water. How does this apply to macromolecules?
A:
Each monomer releases one water molecule when forming a polymer, thereby causing dehydration.
B:
The hydroxyl groups of two monomers are used to form a bond by removing a molecule of water.
C:
The diffusion of a water molecule occurs out of the cell, whenever the polymerization occurs. This provides the required energy to the process.
D:
Two hydrogen atoms from one monomer and an oxygen from the phosphate group releases water when producing a polymer.

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s01 apbio-ch03-s01-lo01 apbio-ch03-ot005

ID: 182@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.003Z

Question:
Which of the following bodily process would most likely be hindered by a lack of water in the body?
A:
digestion
B:
protein synthesis
C:
copying DNA
D:
breathing

Tags:

apbio dok3 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s01 apbio-ch03-s01-lo02 apbio-ch03-ot006

ID: 183@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.019Z

Question:
Where is cellulose found in plants, but not in animals?
A:
cell membranes
B:
cell walls
C:
cellular capsules
D:
mitochondria

Tags:

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ID: 184@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.030Z

Question:
Where are structural carbohydrates found in relation to insects?
A:
as an exoskeleton
B:
in microfibrils
C:
isolated in the liver
D:
supporting internal muscle attachments

Tags:

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ID: 185@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.035Z

Question:
Galactose is classified as a type of what?
A:
amino acid
B:
disaccharide
C:
monosaccharide
D:
polysaccharide

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s02 apbio-ch03-s02-lo02 apbio-ch03-ot009

ID: 186@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.052Z

Question:
Which of the following are polysaccharides?
A:
cellulose and starch
B:
DNA
C:
lactose
D:
peptides

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s02 apbio-ch03-s02-lo02 apbio-ch03-ot010

ID: 187@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.063Z

Question:
A bond between two glucose molecules creates what kind of molecule?
A:
galactose
B:
lactose
C:
maltose
D:
sucrose

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s02 apbio-ch03-s02-lo03 apbio-ch03-ot011

ID: 188@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.068Z

Question:
Where are ${\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}} {\!}$ -1,4 glycosidic linkages found?
A:
cellulose
B:
disaccharides
C:
RNA
D:
starch

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s02 apbio-ch03-s02-lo03 apbio-ch03-ot012

ID: 189@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.086Z

Question:
Why is it possible for humans to digest food that contains starch, but not cellulose?
A:
Amylase can digest 1,4 linkage of glucose found in starch whereas it cannot digest the linkage of glucose found in cellulose.
B:
Amylase can digest 1,4 linkage of glucose found in cellulose whereas it can’t digest the glucose found in starch.
C:
Amylase can digest the 1,4 linkage of glucose found in starch but not the glucose found in cellulose.
D:
Amylase can digest the 1,6 linkage of glucose found in starch whereas it cannot digest the 1,6 linkage of glucose found in cellulose.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s02 apbio-ch03-s02-lo01 apbio-ch03-ot013

ID: 190@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.092Z

Question:
Describe two types of starch.
A:
Amylose has 1,4 linkages between monomers found in a straight line. Amylopectin has 1,6 linkages between glucose present in a branched manner.
B:
Amylose has 1,6 linkages between glucose found in a straight line. Amylopectin has 1,4 linkages between monomers present in a branched manner.
C:
Amylose has 1,4 linkages between monomers found in a branched manner. Amylopectin has 1,6 linkages between the glucose present in a straight line.
D:
Amylose has 1,6 linkages between glucose present in a branched manner. Amylopectin has 1,4 linkages between monomers found in a straight line.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s02 apbio-ch03-s02-lo02 apbio-ch03-ot014

ID: 191@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.106Z

Question:
Where are sucrose, maltose, and lactose found in nature?
A:
Sucrose is found in fruit juices, maltose in beer, and lactose in dairy products.
B:
Sucrose is found in malted milk, maltose in table sugar, and lactose in dairy products.
C:
Maltose is found in sweet potato and in malted milk, lactose in cheese.
D:
Sucrose is found in molasses, maltose in honey, and lactose in milk.

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ID: 192@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.117Z

Question:
Oils and waxes are classified as what?
A:
carbohydrates
B:
lipids
C:
nucleic acids
D:
proteins

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo01 apbio-ch03-ot016

ID: 193@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.191Z

Question:
What is an example of a common steroid?
A:
carbohydrates
B:
cholesterol
C:
starch
D:
triglyceride

Tags:

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ID: 194@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.234Z

Question:
What is the principle function or role of triglycerides in animals?
A:
a precursor to cholesterol
B:
a major energy source
C:
a component of cell membranes
D:
a carrier of high energy phosphates

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ID: 195@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.251Z

Question:
Estradiol and testosterone are made from what?
A:
cholesterol
B:
triglycerides
C:
proteins
D:
nucleic acids

Tags:

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ID: 196@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.263Z

Question:
The tendency to not easily dissolve in water describes which of the following?
A:
carbohydrates
B:
proteins
C:
saturated fats
D:
unsaturated fats

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ID: 197@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.268Z

Question:
What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fats?
A:
the number of fatty acids
B:
the length of the fatty acids
C:
the number of hydrogen atoms on the triglycerides
D:
the ester bonds between the fatty acids and glycerol

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ID: 198@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.279Z

Question:
Plasma membranes contain a large number of what?
A:
phospholipids
B:
ring structures of steroids
C:
the waxy covering on leaves
D:
the double bond in hydrocarbon chains

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ID: 199@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.296Z

Question:
What is an example of a phosphatidate?
A:
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
B:
diacylglycerol 3-phosphate
C:
phosphatidylcholine
D:
phosphatidylserine

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ID: 200@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.301Z

Question:
What type of macromolecule consists of four fused hydrocarbon rings?
A:
a triglyceride
B:
a phospholipid
C:
cholesterol
D:
a monosaccharide

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ID: 201@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.312Z

Question:
Bile salts are derived from what?
A:
a wax type of lipid
B:
cholesterol
C:
protein based hormones
D:
starch

Tags:

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ID: 202@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.323Z

Question:
What is a component of cell membranes that does not float?
A:
cholesterol
B:
carbohydrate
C:
Phospholipid
D:
integral proteins

Tags:

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ID: 203@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.335Z

Question:
What is in the red blood cell membrane that gives the cell its flexibility?
A:
carbohydrates
B:
cholesterol
C:
phospholipids
D:
peripheral proteins

Tags:

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ID: 204@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.346Z

Question:
Name the type of lipid that is found in the following: a candle, a major part of plasma membrane, cholesterol, triglycerides.
A:
<ol> <li>a candle is a wax</li> <li>a major part of a plasma membrane is a phospholipid</li> <li>cholesterol is a steroid</li> <li>a triglyceride is a lipid/oil</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>a candle is a lipid/oil</li> <li>a major part of a plasma membrane is a phospholipid</li> <li>cholesterol is a steroid</li> <li>a triglyceride is a wax</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>a candle is a wax</li> <li>a major part of a plasma membrane is a phospholipid</li> <li>cholesterol is a lipid</li> <li>a triglyceride is a steroid</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>a candle is a lipid</li> <li>a major part of a plasma membrane is a phospholipid</li> <li>cholesterol is a lipid</li> <li>a triglyceride is a steroid</li> </ol>

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo01 apbio-ch03-ot028

ID: 205@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.362Z

Question:
What are the differences in the way lipids are found or function in plants and animals?
A:
Plants store starch and do not have bile salts whereas animals store triglycerides and have bile salts.
B:
Plants store triglycerides and do not have bile salts whereas animals store starch.
C:
Plants have cholesterol but lack bile salts whereas animals have phytosterol and bile salts.
D:
Plants store glycogen and starch. Animals store only glycogen and bile salts.

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ID: 206@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.368Z

Question:
How can an unsaturated fat be made to function like a saturated one?
A:
Dehydration of unsaturated fats produces saturated fats.
B:
Dehydration of saturated fats forms trans fat
C:
Hydrogenation of unsaturated fats forms the trans fats.
D:
Hydrogenation of saturated fats produces trans fats.

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo03 apbio-ch03-ot030

ID: 207@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.384Z

Question:
How do phospholipids contribute flexibility to cell membrane structure?
A:
One fatty acid chain is saturated which is stiff and other is unsaturated which provides the flexibility.
B:
One fatty acid chain is saturated and provides the flexibility. The other is unsaturated and is stiff.
C:
The two fatty acid chains are flexible as they are unsaturated and provide the flexibility.
D:
The two fatty acid chains are saturated. Embedded cholesterol and proteins provide the flexibility.

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ID: 208@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.396Z

Question:
What type of compound functions in hormone production, contributes to membrane flexibility, and is the starting molecule for bile salts?
A:
Lipids serve in the hormone production where saturated fatty acids provide membrane flexibility, and bile salt formation.
B:
Carbohydrates serve in producing hormones and cholesterol contributes to membrane flexibility, and production of bile salts.
C:
Steroids serve in the hormone production and cholesterol contributes to membrane flexibility, and precursor for bile salt production.
D:
Steroids serve in hormone production where triglycerides help in membrane flexibility, and bile production.

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo05 apbio-ch03-ot032

ID: 209@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.408Z

Question:
What parts of cell membranes give flexibility to the structure?
A:
phospholipids and cholesterol
B:
phospholipids and proteins
C:
phospholipids and carbohydrates
D:
phospholipids and triglycerides

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s03 apbio-ch03-s03-lo06 apbio-ch03-ot033

ID: 210@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.419Z

Question:
Which type of macromolecule functions in the structure of cells, facilitates chemical reactions, and is used to make some hormones?
A:
carbohydrates
B:
proteins
C:
lipids
D:
nucleic acids

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ID: 211@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.431Z

Question:
What type of protein carries chemical messages through the body?
A:
enzymes
B:
hormones
C:
membrane transport proteins
D:
tRNA molecules

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ID: 212@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.437Z

Question:
What is the linkage between amino acids in a protein called?
A:
hydrolysis
B:
an ionic bond
C:
a peptide bond
D:
a helical bond

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ID: 213@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.454Z

Question:
Where does the linkage between the $\text{-COOH}$ group on one end of one molecule and the $\text{-NH}_2$ group at the end of another molecule occur in?
A:
disaccharides
B:
fatty acids
C:
nucleotides
D:
peptides

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo02 apbio-ch03-ot037

ID: 214@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.460Z

Question:
What is characteristic of the secondary structure of proteins?
A:
<span data-math="{\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}}{\!}">{\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}}{\!}</span>-helix and the <span data-math="{\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}}{\!}">{\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}}{\!}</span>-pleated sheet
B:
complex folding into a three dimensional structure
C:
linkage with rRNA at ribosomes
D:
straight-line linkages

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ID: 215@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.477Z

Question:
In most proteins, what is the tertiary level of its structure?
A:
the last part of the structural development
B:
the functional form of the protein
C:
the level using an <span data-math="{\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}}{\!}">{\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}}{\!}</span>-helix and the <span data-math="{\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}}{\!}">{\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}}{\!}</span>-pleated sheet
D:
the level using straight-line linkages

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo03 apbio-ch03-ot039

ID: 216@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.488Z

Question:
High temperatures and changes in pH can have what type of effect on proteins?
A:
denaturation
B:
enhance translation
C:
stabilize the tertiary structure
D:
initiate protein synthesis

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo04 apbio-ch03-ot040

ID: 217@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.499Z

Question:
What is a chemical called that helps a protein fold properly?
A:
cofactor
B:
coenzyme
C:
chaperone
D:
proenzyme

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo04 apbio-ch03-ot041

ID: 218@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.510Z

Question:
How do the differences in amino acid sequence lead to different protein functions?
A:
Different amino acids provide different geometric configurations and thus varied functions.
B:
The amino acids rearrange themselves in a varied sequence after posttranslational modifications.
C:
The differences in the requirement of subunits for each protein are different and give them a different function.
D:
The intermediate amino acid gets digested in subsequent modifications and produces varied proteins with varied functions.

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo01 apbio-ch03-ot042

ID: 219@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.522Z

Question:
What causes the changes in protein structure through the three or four levels of structure?
A:
The primary structure attains a curved shape and covalent bonds, which further acquire hydrogen bonds at specific pH.
B:
The primary structure undergoes alternative splicing to form secondary structures, which fold on other protein chains to form tertiary structures.
C:
The primary structure forms secondary -helix and -pleated sheets and the polypeptide further undergoes phosphorylation and acetylation to form tertiary structure.
D:
The primary structure undergoes alternative splicing to form a secondary structure, which shows disulfide bonds to give tertiary structures.

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s04 apbio-ch03-s04-lo02 apbio-ch03-ot043

ID: 220@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.528Z

Question:
What structural level of proteins is functional? Why?
A:
Secondary structure is functional as it attains its 2-dimentional shape, which has the necessary bonds.
B:
Tertiary structure is functional, as it possesses the geometric shape showing the necessary loops and bends.
C:
Tertiary structure is functional as it has the non-covalent and covalent bonds along with the subunits attached at the right places which help in its proper functioning
D:
Quaternary structure is functional as it has the essential set of subunits.

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ID: 221@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.545Z

Question:
What can nucleotides contain?
A:
nitrogenous bases, sugars, and hydrogen bonds
B:
phosphate groups
C:
sugars and phosphate groups
D:
sugars, phosphate groups, and nitrogenous bases

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ID: 222@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.550Z

Question:
Where are deoxyribose, thymine, and a phosphate group found?
A:
chromosomal protein
B:
DNA
C:
mRNA
D:
microRNA

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-lo02 apbio-ch03-ot046

ID: 223@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.561Z

Question:
The term double helix is used to describe the structure of what?
A:
chromosomal protein
B:
DNA
C:
mRNA
D:
microRNA

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-lo03 apbio-ch03-ot047

ID: 224@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.573Z

Question:
If ribose, but not deoxyribose is found in RNA, what nitrogenous base is in RNA, but not DNA?
A:
adenine
B:
cytosine
C:
thymine
D:
uracil

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ID: 225@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.590Z

Question:
What type of RNA passes through the nuclear membrane into the cytoplasm before splicing?
A:
mRNA
B:
microRNA
C:
tRNA
D:
rRNA

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-lo03 apbio-ch03-ot049

ID: 226@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.601Z

Question:
Which type of nucleic acid is not found free in the cytoplasm of a cell?
A:
DNA
B:
mRNA
C:
rRNA
D:
tRNA

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-lo01 apbio-ch03-ot050

ID: 227@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.613Z

Question:
Why is DNA double stranded while RNA is single stranded in plants and animals?
A:
DNA encodes multiple genes and is tightly bound. RNA codes for particular genes and is always functional.
B:
DNA gets denatured in the single stranded form, thus remains double stranded, while RNA does not.
C:
RNA is more stable in its single stranded form, but DNA is rendered instable when single stranded and is prone to digestion
D:
DNA is always functional, while RNA, as a single strand, is not.

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-lo01 apbio-ch03-ot051

ID: 228@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.624Z

Question:
Why is hereditary information stored in DNA and not proteins?
A:
The DNA is stable and encodes for amino acids, but proteins are unstable and can be excreted out of the cell.
B:
The DNA was the forerunner of the proteins, thus it has been considered as the hereditary material.
C:
The DNA produces RNA and proteins do not produce RNA, which makes DNA the genetic material.
D:
Protein functioning is dependent on the DNA, therefore DNA is the hereditary material.

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apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch03 apbio-ch03-s05 apbio-ch03-s05-lo02 apbio-ch03-ot052

ID: 229@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.630Z

Question:
Why are electron microscopes crucial for the study of cell biology?
A:
Electron microscopes are required for higher magnification and resolution whereas light microscopes can be used to see the external three dimensional shape of an object.
B:
Electron microscopes provide visualization of three dimensional external shapes of objects whereas light microscopes are used to magnify cells for a closer look at the details of a cell and cellular processes.
C:
Electron microscopes are required for higher magnification and resolution as well as to some types of electron microscopes are used to see the three dimensional external shape of objects.
D:
Electron microscope can magnify cells and show some organelles, thus are crucial for the study of cell biology.

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ID: 230@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.644Z

Question:
When viewing as specimen through a light microscope, what do scientists use to distinguish the individual components of cells?
A:
a beam of electrons
B:
high temperatures
C:
radioactive isotopes
D:
special stains

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex002

ID: 231@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.657Z

Question:
What is the basic unit of life?
A:
cell
B:
organism
C:
organ
D:
tissue

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex003

ID: 232@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.674Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is part of the cell theory?
A:
All living organisms are made of cells.
B:
All cells contain DNA that they pass on to daughter cells.
C:
All cells depend on their surroundings to provide energy.
D:
All cells have a nucleus.

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ID: 233@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.689Z

Question:
Using a scanning electron microscope, what is it possible to visualize?
A:
cells swimming in a drop of pond water.
B:
details of structures inside cells
C:
a three-dimensional view of the surface of a membrane
D:
the movement of molecules inside the cell

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex005

ID: 234@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.695Z

Question:
The first single cells were observed by whom?
A:
Anton van Leeuwenhoek.
B:
Matthias Schleiden
C:
Robert Hooke
D:
Theodore Schwann

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex006

ID: 235@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.730Z

Question:
Which of the following observations contributed to the cell theory?
A:
Animal and plant cells have nuclei and organelles.
B:
Non-living material cannot give rise to living organisms.
C:
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are surrounded by a plasma membrane.
D:
Viruses replicate.

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ID: 236@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.744Z

Question:
Which element of the cell theory has practical applications in health care because it promotes the use of sterilization and disinfection?
A:
All cells come from pre-existing cells.
B:
All living organisms are composed of one or more cells.
C:
A cell is the basic unit of life.
D:
A nucleus and organelles are found in prokaryotic cells.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo03 apbio-ch04-ex008

ID: 237@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.757Z

Question:
What are the advantages and disadvantages of light microscopes? What are the advantages and disadvantages of electron microscopes?
A:
Advantage: In light microscopes, light beam does not kill the cell. Electron microscopes are helpful in viewing intricate details of a specimen and have high resolution. Disadvantage: Light microscopes have low resolving power. Electron microscopes are costly and require killing the specimen.
B:
Advantage: Light microscopes have high resolution. Electron microscopes are helpful in viewing surface details of a specimen. Disadvantage: Light microscopes kill the cell. Electron microscopes are costly and low resolution.
C:
Advantage: Light microscopes have high resolution. Electron microscopes are helpful in viewing surface details of a specimen. Disadvantage: Light microscopes can be used only in the presence of light and are costly. Electron microscopes uses short wavelength of electrons and hence have lower magnification.
D:
Advantage: Light microscopes have high magnification. Electron microscopes are helpful in viewing surface details of a specimen. Disadvantage: Light microscopes can be used only in the presence of light and have lower resolution. Electron microscopes can be used only for viewing ultra-thin specimens.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex009

ID: 238@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.769Z

Question:
Mitochondria are observed in plant cells that contain chloroplasts. Isn’t this a waste for the cell? Why do you find mitochondria in photosynthetic tissue?
A:
It will be a waste as the ATP is constantly available in stored form.
B:
It will not be a waste; the mitochondria and chloroplasts produce energy in a combined form.
C:
It will be a waste; the plant gets its energy by breaking NADH directly.
D:
It is not a waste; the cell goes through the dark phase when it requires energy from mitochondria in the form of ATP.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex010

ID: 239@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.775Z

Question:
Prokaryotic cells are much smaller than eukaryotic cells. What advantages might small cell size confer on a cell? What advantages might large cell size have?
A:
Small, prokaryotic cells do not expend energy in intracellular transport of substances. Larger eukaryotic cells have organelles, which enable them to produce complex substances.
B:
Small, prokaryotic cells easily escape the spontaneous changes in environmental conditions. Large, eukaryotic cells have complex mechanisms to cope with such changes.
C:
Small, prokaryotic cells divide at a higher rate. Large, eukaryotic cells show division with genetic variations.
D:
Small, prokaryotic cells have fewer phospholipids in their membrane. Large, eukaryotic cells have more transport proteins in their phospholipid bilayer, supporting efficient transport of molecules.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-2-6 apbio-ch04-ex011

ID: 240@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.795Z

Question:
In order to obtain some materials as well as getting rid of waste, what do prokaryotes depend on?
A:
cell division
B:
diffusion
C:
flagella
D:
ribosomes

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex012

ID: 241@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.806Z

Question:
When bacteria lack fimbriae, what are they less likely to do?
A:
Adhere to cell surfaces
B:
retain the ability to divide
C:
swim through bodily fluids
D:
synthesize proteins

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex013

ID: 242@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.818Z

Question:
What are some of the differences between eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells?
A:
Both cells have a nucleus but prokaryotic cells lack cytoplasm.
B:
Both cells have cytoplasm but prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus.
C:
Both cells have DNA but prokaryotic cells lack a cell membrane.
D:
Both cells have a cell membrane but prokaryotic cells lack DNA.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex014

ID: 243@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.829Z

Question:
Eukaryotic cells contain complex organelles that carry out their chemical reactions. Prokaryotes lack many of these complex organelles. However, most prokaryotic cells can exchange nutrients with the outside environment faster than most eukaryotic cells. Why is this so?
A:
Most prokaryotic cells are smaller, and have a higher surface-to-volume ratio, than eukaryotic cells.
B:
Most prokaryotic cells are larger, and have a higher surface-to-volume ratio than eukaryotic cells.
C:
Most prokaryotic cells are smaller, and have a lower surface-to-volume ratio than eukaryotic cells.
D:
Prokaryotic cells are larger and have a lower surface-to-volume ratio than eukaryotic cells.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex015

ID: 244@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.834Z

Question:
The major role of the cell wall in bacteria is protecting the cell against changes in osmotic pressure, pressure caused by different solute concentration in the environment. Bacterial cells swell, but do not burst, in low solute concentrations. What happens to bacterial cells if a compound that interferes with the synthesis of the cell wall is added to an environment with low solute concentrations?
A:
Bacterial cells will shrink due to the lack of cell wall material.
B:
Bacterial cells will grow larger in size due to the influx of water.
C:
Bacterial cells burst due to the difference in the pressure across the wall.
D:
Bacterial cells remain normal; they have alternative pathways to synthesize cell walls.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex016

ID: 245@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.853Z

Question:
We have discussed the upper limits of cell size; yet, there is a lower limit to cell size. What determines how small a cell can be?
A:
The cell should be large enough to escape detection.
B:
The cell should be able to accommodate all the structures and metabolic activities necessary to survival.
C:
The size of the cell should be large enough to reproduce itself.
D:
The cell should be large enough to adapt to the changing environmental conditions.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex017

ID: 246@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.863Z

Question:
Which of the following organisms appear first in the fossil record?
A:
archaea
B:
fish
C:
protists
D:
plants

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-1-32 apbio-ch04-ex018

ID: 247@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.874Z

Question:
Why is it challenging to study bacterial fossils and determine if the fossils are members of the domain Archaea, rather than Bacteria?
A:
Bacteria lack rigid structures, thus do not form fossils.
B:
Bacteria have rigid structures, but their fossil impression is scarce.
C:
Fossils of bacteria are rarely found because bacteria were not abundant in the past.
D:
A fossil of bacteria changes overtime due to the presence of new bacteria living on them.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long dok4 ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-1-32 apbio-ch04-ex019

ID: 248@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.890Z

Question:
Two spheres, A and B, are illustrated. A is labelled with a radius of 5 microns. B is much larger and is labelled with a radius of 50 microns. Pictured are two cells along with their radius. What does Cell B likely have when compared to cell A?
A:
smaller surface area and larger volume
B:
larger surface area and smaller volume
C:
smaller surface-to-volume ratio
D:
larger surface-to-volume ratio

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-2-6 apbio-ch04-ex020

ID: 249@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.911Z

Question:
A sphere and a cube are illustrated. They appear to be equal in size Consider the shapes. The diameter of the sphere is equal to $1\,\text{mm}$ and the side of the cube is also equal to $1\,\text{mm}$ . What is the ratio of the surface to volume ratios for the sphere and the cube?
A:
<span data-math="3 : 1">3 : 1</span>
B:
<span data-math="4 : 1">4 : 1</span>
C:
<span data-math="1 : 1">1 : 1</span>
D:
<span data-math="2 : 1">2 : 1</span>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-2-6 apbio-ch04-ex021

ID: 250@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.923Z

Question:
A sphere and a cube are illustrated. They appear to be equal in size Which of the following is true regarding the surface-to-volume ratios of the cube and the sphere?
A:
The sphere will have a higher surface area than the cube.
B:
The sphere will have a higher volume than the cube.
C:
The sphere will have a higher surface-to-volume ratio than the cube.
D:
Their surface-to-volume ratios will be equal.
E:
The sphere will have a lower surface-to-volume ratio than the cube.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-2-7 apbio-ch04-ex022

ID: 251@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.938Z

Question:
What is the major consideration in setting the lower limit of cell size?
A:
The cell must be large enough to fight the pathogens
B:
The cell must be large enough to attach to a substrate.
C:
The lower limit should be small enough, for the cell to move in the fluid efficiently.
D:
The cell size must be small as to fit all the processes and structures to support life.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-2-7 apbio-ch04-ex023

ID: 252@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.954Z

Question:
If the nucleolus were not able to carry out its function, what other cellular organelles would be affected?
A:
The structure of endoplasmic reticulum would not form.
B:
The function of lysosomes would be hindered, as hydrolases are formed by nucleolus.
C:
The free ribosomes and the rough endoplasmic reticulum, which contains ribosomes, would not form.
D:
The Golgi apparatus will not be able to sort proteins properly.

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ID: 253@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.960Z

Question:
Based on what you know about plant and animals cells, which of the following events are most likely to have occurred?
A:
A host cell that gave rise to modern plants ingested both aerobic and photoautotrophic bacteria, while a host cell that gave rise to modern animals ingested aerobic bacteria only.
B:
A host cell that gave rise to modern plants ingested photoautotrophic bacteria only, while a host cell that gave rise to modern animals ingested aerobic bacteria only.
C:
A host cell that gave rise to modern plants ingested both aerobic and photoautotrophic bacteria, while a host cell that gave rise to modern animals ingested photoautotrophic bacteria only.
D:
A host cell that gave rise to modern plants and animals ingested both aerobic and photoautotrophic bacteria.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 evolution apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex025

ID: 254@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.975Z

Question:
Which of the following is surrounded by two phospholipid bilayers?
A:
lysosomes
B:
ribosomes
C:
nucleolus
D:
nucleus

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex026

ID: 255@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.993Z

Question:
Peroxisomes got their name because hydrogen peroxide is:
A:
a cofactor for the organelles’ enzymes
B:
incorporated into their membranes
C:
produced during their oxidation reactions
D:
used in their detoxification reactions

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo03 apbio-ch04-ex027

ID: 256@1

2015-08-20T13:03:34.999Z

Question:
In plant cells, the function of the lysosomes is carried out by what?
A:
nuclei
B:
peroxisomes
C:
ribosomes
D:
vacuole

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo03 apbio-ch04-ex028

ID: 257@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.011Z

Question:
Which of the following is found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
A:
mitochondrion
B:
nucleus
C:
ribosomes
D:
centrosomes

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex029

ID: 258@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.029Z

Question:
Which of the following structures is not found in prokaryotic cells?
A:
plasma membrane
B:
chloroplast
C:
nucleoid
D:
ribosome

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex030

ID: 259@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.034Z

Question:
Where would you find DNA, the genetic material, in an animal cell?
A:
in the centriole
B:
in the mitochondria
C:
in the mitochondria and the nucleus
D:
in the nucleus

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex031

ID: 260@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.050Z

Question:
Give a possible explanation for the presence of a rigid cell wall in plant cells.
A:
Plants remain exposed to changes in temperature and thus require rigid cell walls to protect themselves.
B:
Plants are subjected to osmotic pressure and a cell wall helps them against bursting or shrinking.
C:
Plant cells have a rigid cell wall to protect themselves from grazing animals.
D:
Plant cells have a rigid cell wall to prevent the influx of waste material.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo02 apbio-ch04-ex033

ID: 261@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.056Z

Question:
Bacteria do not have organelles; yet, the same reactions that take place on the mitochondria inner membrane, the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP, and chloroplasts, photosynthesis, take place in bacteria. Where do these reactions take place?
A:
These reactions take place in the nucleoid of the bacteria.
B:
These reactions occur in the cytoplasm present in the bacteria.
C:
These reactions occur on the plasma membrane of bacteria.
D:
These reactions take place in the mesosomes.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex034

ID: 262@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.073Z

Question:
What are the structural and functional similarities and differences between mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A:
Similarities: double membrane, inter-membrane space, ATP production, contain DNA. Differences: mitochondria have inner folds called cristae, chloroplast contains accessory pigments in thylakoids, which form grana and a stroma.
B:
Similarities: DNA, inter-membrane space, ATP production, and chlorophyll. Differences: mitochondria have a matrix and inner folds called cristae; chloroplast contains accessory pigments in thylakoids, which form grana and a stroma.
C:
Similarities: double membrane and ATP production. Differences: mitochondria have inter-membrane space and inner folds called cristae; chloroplast contains accessory pigments in thylakoids, which form grana and a stroma.
D:
Similarities: double membrane and ATP production. Differences: mitochondria have inter-membrane space, inner folds called cristae, ATP synthase for ATP synthesis, and DNA; chloroplast contains accessory pigments in thylakoids, which, form grana and a stroma.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo03 apbio-ch04-ex035

ID: 263@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.078Z

Question:
Which of the following structures has the same general structure in Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya, pointing to a common origin?
A:
centriole
B:
cytoplasmic membrane
C:
Golgi apparatus
D:
nucleus

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch04-ex036

ID: 264@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.089Z

Question:
Explain why the cytoplasmic membrane structure points to a common ancestor.
A:
The presence of a cytoplasmic membrane in every organism does not point to a common ancestry.
B:
The similar arrangement of phospholipids and proteins points to common ancestry.
C:
The lipid nature of the membrane makes it the most primitive trait.
D:
The similar effect of temperature on the membrane makes it the ancestral trait.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch04-ex037

ID: 265@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.101Z

Question:
Which organelles would be present in high numbers in the leg muscles of a marathon runner?
A:
centrioles
B:
chloroplasts
C:
mitochondria
D:
peroxisome

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep blooms-1 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-aplo-2-13 apbio-ch04-ex038

ID: 266@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.112Z

Question:
Macrophages ingest and digest many pathogens. Which organelle plays a major role in the activity of macrophages?
A:
chloroplast
B:
lysosome
C:
nucleus
D:
peroxisome

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep blooms-1 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-aplo-2-13 apbio-ch04-ex039

ID: 267@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.133Z

Question:
You are looking at a sample under a light microscope and observe a new type of cell. You come to the conclusion that it is a bacterium and not a eukaryotic cell. What would you observe to come to this conclusion?
A:
the cell has a cell wall
B:
the cell has a flagellum
C:
the cell does not have a nucleus
D:
the cell is small

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-aplo-2-14 apbio-ch04-ex040

ID: 268@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.139Z

Question:
Thiomargarita namibiensis is a large single cell organism, which can reach lengths of $700\,\unicode[Arial]{x3BC}\text{m}$ . The cell is classified as a bacterium. What is the main argument to justify the classification?
A:
This organism shows simple diffusion for the uptake of nutrients and is thus classified as a bacterium.
B:
This organism does not show presence of any cell organelles, and thus is classified as a bacterium.
C:
the existence of these organisms in long chains and pearl appearance
D:
The organism demonstrates characteristics of gram-negative bacteria, and thus is classified as a bacterium.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-aplo-2-14 apbio-ch04-ex041

ID: 269@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.156Z

Question:
Radioactive amino acids are fed to a cell in culture for a short amount of time. This is called a pulse. You follow the appearance of radioactive proteins in the cell compartments. In which organelles and in what order does radioactivity appear?
A:
endoplasmic reticulum - lysosomes - Golgi body - vesicle - extracellular region
B:
endoplasmic reticulum - vesicles - Golgi body - vesicles - extracellular region
C:
Golgi Body - vesicles - endoplasmic reticulum - vesicles - extracellular region
D:
nucleus - endoplasmic reticulum - Golgi body - vesicle - extracellular region

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-aplo-4-5 apbio-ch04-ex042

ID: 270@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.166Z

Question:
If a peripheral membrane protein were synthesized inside the lumen of the ER, would it end up on the inside or outside of the plasma membrane?
A:
The vesicle travels from the endoplasmic reticulum to get embedded in plasma membrane.
B:
The vesicle travels from the Golgi to the plasma membrane to release the protein outside.
C:
The vesicle travels from the endoplasmic reticulum to the plasma membrane, and returns to the Golgi apparatus to get modified.
D:
The vesicle moves from the endoplasmic reticulum into the cytoplasmic area, remaining there.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s04 apbio-ch04-s04-lo01 apbio-ch04-s04-aplo-2-13 apbio-ch04-ex044

ID: 271@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.187Z

Question:
Explain how the nucleus and the endomembrane system work together for protein synthesis.
A:
The endomembrane system processes and ships proteins specified by the nucleus. In the nucleus, DNA is used to make RNA which exits the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm of the cell. The ribosomes on the rough ER use the RNA to create the different types of protein needed by the body.
B:
The endomembrane system processes and ships proteins specified by the nucleus. From the nucleus, RNA exits and enters the cytoplasm of the cell. The ribosomes on the rough ER use the RNA to create the different types of protein needed by the body.
C:
The endomembrane system processes and ships proteins specified by the nucleus. In the nucleus, DNA is used to make RNA which exits the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm of the cell. The smooth ER uses the RNA to create the different types of protein needed by the body.
D:
The endomembrane system processes and ships proteins specified by the nucleus. In the nucleus, DNA is used to make RNA which exits the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm of the cell. The ribosomes on the smooth ER use the RNA to create the different types of protein needed by the body.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s04 apbio-ch04-s04-lo01 apbio-ch04-s04-aplo-2-13 apbio-ch04-ex045

ID: 272@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.193Z

Question:
Which of the following is most likely to have the greatest concentration of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
A:
a cell that secretes enzymes
B:
a cell that destroys pathogens
C:
a cell that makes steroid hormones
D:
a cell that engages in photosynthesis

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s04 apbio-ch04-s04-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex046

ID: 273@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.214Z

Question:
Which of the following sequences correctly lists in order the steps involved in the incorporation of a protein within a cell?
A:
synthesis of the protein on the ribosome; modification in the Golgi apparatus; packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum; modification in the vesicle
B:
synthesis of the protein on the lysosome; modification in the Golgi; packaging in the vesicle; distribution in the endoplasmic reticulum
C:
synthesis of the protein on the ribosome; modification in the endoplasmic reticulum; tagging in the Golgi; distribution via the vesicle
D:
synthesis of the protein on the lysosome; packaging in the vesicle; distribution via the Golgi; modification in the endoplasmic reticulum

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s04 apbio-ch04-s04-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex047

ID: 274@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.226Z

Question:
Is the nuclear membrane part of the endomembrane system? Why or why not? Support your answer.
A:
The nuclear membrane is not a part of the endomembrane system as the endoplasmic reticulum is a separate organelle of the cell.
B:
The nuclear membrane is considered a part of the endomembrane system as it is continuous with the Golgi body.
C:
The nuclear membrane is part of the endomembrane system as it is continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
D:
The nuclear membrane is not considered a part of the endomembrane system as the nucleus is a separate organelle.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s04 apbio-ch04-s04-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex048

ID: 275@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.242Z

Question:
The extracellular matrix interacts with the following cellular structure:
A:
cytoskeleton
B:
lysosome
C:
nucleus
D:
smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc ap-test-prep blooms-1 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s04 apbio-ch04-s04-aplo-4-5 apbio-ch04-ex049

ID: 276@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.247Z

Question:
The Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infects and kills white blood cells. Over time, what affect does this have on the body’s immune system?
A:
The body’s immune system would not be affected by this.
B:
The body’s immune system would not be able to fight off pathogens like bacteria with fewer white blood cells. This can increase the risk of illness in HIV patients.
C:
The body’s immune system, in order to recoup this loss, will produce more WBC’s.
D:
The body’s immune system will fight the pathogens more vigorously in order to compensate for the fewer white blood cells.

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ID: 277@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.263Z

Question:
Which of the following have the ability to disassemble and reform quickly?
A:
intermediate filaments and microtubules
B:
microfilaments and intermediate filaments
C:
microfilaments and microtubules
D:
only intermediate filaments

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ID: 278@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.284Z

Question:
Which of the following do not play a role in intracellular movement?
A:
intermediate filaments and microtubules
B:
microfilaments and intermediate filaments
C:
microfilaments and microtubules
D:
only intermediate filaments

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ID: 279@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.296Z

Question:
What are the similarities and differences between the structures of centrioles and flagella?
A:
Centrioles and flagella are made of microtubules but show different arrangements.
B:
Centrioles are made of microtubules but flagella are made of microfilaments and both show the same arrangement.
C:
Centrioles and flagella are made of microfilaments. Centrioles have a 9 + 2 arrangement.
D:
Centrioles are made of microtubules and flagella are made of microfilaments and both have different structures.

Tags:

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ID: 280@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.301Z

Question:
Inhibitors of microtubule assembly, vinblastine for example, are used for cancer chemotherapy. How does an inhibitor of microtubule assembly affect cancerous cells?
A:
The inhibitors restrict the separation of chromosomes, thereby stopping cell division.
B:
The inhibition of microtubules interferes with the synthesis of proteins.
C:
The inhibitors bind the microtubule to the nuclear membrane, stopping cell division.
D:
The inhibitor interferes with energy production.

Tags:

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ID: 281@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.318Z

Question:
Which structure or structures allow bacteria to move about?
A:
fimbriae only
B:
flagella only
C:
flagella and fimbriae
D:
plasmid and capsule

Tags:

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ID: 282@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.331Z

Question:
Cells lining the intestine absorb a lot of nutrients. How did those cells adapt to their function?
A:
Cells use cilia to move nutrients to their surface.
B:
Cells grow much larger than adjacent cells to increase intake
C:
Cells are flat and thin to absorb more nutrients.
D:
Membrane folds called microvilli increase the surface area.

Tags:

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ID: 283@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.342Z

Question:
Explain two similarities and two differences between plant and animal cells that can be seen under a microscope
A:
Plant cells have cell walls which provide structure to the plant and also chloroplasts which allow for photosynthesis. Animal cells do not have either of these structures. Both cells have nuclei, the command center of the cell, and cytoplasm, the gel-like solution that fills the cell.
B:
Plant cells and animal cells have cell walls as well as nuclei. Plant cells have chloroplasts as well as plasmodesmata which are lacking in animal cells.
C:
Plant cells have cell walls which provide structure to the plant and also chloroplasts which allow for photosynthesis. Animal cells do not have either of these structures. Animal cells and plant cells both have glyoxysomes as well cytoplasm.
D:
Plant cells and animal cells both have a rigid plasma membrane as well as cytoplasm which is the gel-like solution that fills the cell. Plant cells have cell walls which provide structure to the plant and also chloroplasts which allow for photosynthesis. Animal cells do not have either of these structures.

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ID: 284@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.355Z

Question:
What type of junctions prevent the movement of chemicals between two adjacent animal cells?
A:
desmosomes
B:
gap junctions
C:
plasmodesmata
D:
tight junctions

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ID: 285@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.361Z

Question:
What are gap junctions formed by?
A:
gaps in the cell wall of plants
B:
protein complexes that form channels between cells
C:
tight, rivet-like regions in the membranes of adjacent cells
D:
a tight knitting of membranes

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ID: 286@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.378Z

Question:
Some animal cells produce extensive extracellular matrix. You would expect their ribosomes to synthesize large amounts of which of the following proteins?
A:
actin
B:
collagen
C:
myosin
D:
tubulin

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ID: 287@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.389Z

Question:
Which of the following molecules are typically found in the extracellular matrix?
A:
nucleic acids such as DNA
B:
peptidoglycans
C:
cellulose
D:
proteoglycans

Tags:

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ID: 288@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.405Z

Question:
In which human tissues would you find desmosomes? Think of tissues that undergo strong mechanical stress and must be held together with some flexibility.
A:
bone cells and cartilage cells
B:
muscle cells and skin cells
C:
nerve cells and muscle cells
D:
secretory cells and muscle cells

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s06 apbio-ch04-s06-lo01 apbio-ch04-ex065

ID: 289@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.416Z

Question:
If there is a mutation in the gene for collagen, such as the one involved in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and the individual produces defective collagen, how would it affect coagulation?
A:
The syndrome affects the clotting factors and platelet aggregation.
B:
The disease leads to hyper-coagulation of blood.
C:
Coagulation is not affected because collagen is not required for coagulation.
D:
The disease occurs due to the breakdown of platelets.

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ID: 290@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.426Z

Question:
What type of evidence for life was most likely found in a 3.5 billion year old rock?
A:
Scientists found bones buried in the rock resemble bones of living animals.
B:
Dead cells buried in the rock superficially resemble living prokaryotic cells.
C:
The fossil superficially resembles living microbial mats that exist today.
D:
Scientists found fossilized prokaryotic cells in the rock that are able to grow and divide.

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ID: 291@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.438Z

Question:
In light microscopy, the wavelength of visible light determines resolution, the ability to see two points as distinct. In the electron microscope, the increased resolution is due to what?
A:
the magnetic lenses
B:
the thinness of the sample
C:
the energy of the electron
D:
the wavelength of the electron

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ID: 292@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.454Z

Question:
What is the best way to observe living, colorless cells?
A:
light microscope
B:
phase contrast microscope
C:
transmission electron microscope
D:
scanning electron microscope

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ID: 293@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.471Z

Question:
Which of the following are found only in plant cells?
A:
desmosomes
B:
gap junctions
C:
plasmodesmata
D:
tight junctions

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apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo03 apbio-ch04-ot003

ID: 294@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.486Z

Question:
Which of the following structures in a bacterial cell contains DNA and is independent from the chromosome?
A:
cell wall
B:
capsule
C:
flagellum
D:
plasmid

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ID: 295@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.492Z

Question:
Some bacterial cells are filamentous, which means thread-like. What may be an advantage of such a shape?
A:
Cells stick better to a solid surface.
B:
Cells can swim faster.
C:
The ratio of surface-to-volume is increased.
D:
There is no special advantage to the shape.

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ID: 296@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.513Z

Question:
Which structure is responsible for the synthesis and assembly of ribosomes?
A:
Golgi apparatus
B:
nucleolus
C:
nucleoid
D:
rough endoplasmic reticulum

Tags:

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ID: 297@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.527Z

Question:
Which part of the cell theory is linked to the concept that cells cannot grow beyond a certain size?
A:
Cell theory states that the larger the size, larger is the probability of it to survive.
B:
Cell theory states that it is not effective to have a single giant cell.
C:
Cell theory supports the Darwin’s theory of the survival of the fittest.
D:
Cell theory supports the survival of a single large sized cell.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo03 apbio-ch04-ot007

ID: 298@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.533Z

Question:
In your everyday life, you have probably noticed that certain instruments are ideal for certain situations. For example, you would use a spoon, rather than a fork, to eat soup because a spoon is shaped for scooping, while soup would slip between the tines of a fork. The use of ideal instruments also applies in science. In what situation, or situations, would the use of a light microscope be ideal? Why?
A:
A light microscope is used to view the details of the surface of a cell as it cannot be viewed in detail by the transmission microscope.
B:
A light microscope allows visualization of small living cells, which have been stained and cannot be viewed by scanning electron microscope.
C:
A light microscope is used to view the 3D view of fluorescently labeled parts of a cell, which cannot be viewed by transmission electron microscopy.
D:
A light microscope reveals the internal structures of a cell, which cannot be viewed by transmission electron microscopy.

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apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo02 apbio-ch04-ot008

ID: 299@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.558Z

Question:
Explain why not all microbes are harmful.
A:
Microbes do not decompose organic matter.
B:
Microbes are the most primitive and known to be our ancestors.
C:
Microbes break down fiber in human diet.
D:
Microbes are found in all environments.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s01 apbio-ch04-s01-lo01 apbio-ch04-ot009

ID: 300@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.564Z

Question:
In which order would you cross all the layers surrounding a bacterial cell if you started on the outside?
A:
capsule, plasma membrane, cell wall
B:
plasma membrane, capsule, cell wall
C:
capsule, cell wall, plasma membrane
D:
cell wall, plasma membrane, capsule

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo01 apbio-ch04-ot010

ID: 301@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.576Z

Question:
What is the major reason cells cannot grow too large?
A:
A large cell requires too much energy to maintain homeostasis.
B:
Cells eventually run out of nutrients and starve because they cannot keep up with metabolic demands.
C:
The volume is too large for diffusion to take place in large cells.
D:
The surface-to-volume ratio decreases in large cells, slowing down the exchange with the environment.

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ID: 302@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.588Z

Question:
How do the cells lining the intestinal tract increase their surface-to-volume ratio?
A:
They are very small.
B:
They form pseudopods, extensions of the cytoplasmic membrane.
C:
They form numerous fold called microvilli.
D:
They flatten out to increase the surface area.

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ID: 303@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.604Z

Question:
What are the constraints that limit how small a cell can be?
A:
The cell should be able to accommodate all the structures and metabolic activities to survive.
B:
The cell should be large enough to protect itself from invading pathogens.
C:
The cell should be large enough to reproduce.
D:
The cell should be large enough to adapt to changing environmental conditions.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-lo01 apbio-ch04-ot013

ID: 304@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.617Z

Question:
Some unusually large cells do exist. How might such cells solve the problem of diffusion?
A:
These large cells show invaginations to increase the surface-to-volume ratio.
B:
The large cells shut off their ion pumps and maintain a stable concentration gradient to avoid diffusion.
C:
These cells have an intracellular mechanism to compensate for the constant diffusion taking place.
D:
These cells have an extra capsule surrounding the cell membrane to avoid excess diffusion.

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ID: 305@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.634Z

Question:
What characteristic would you expect to find in an organism that appeared early in the history of Earth?
A:
It can grow under extremely harsh conditions.
B:
It depends on a host to grow because it is a parasite.
C:
It has a well-developed system of internal membranes.
D:
It needs decaying organic matter to grow.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-1-32 apbio-ch04-ot017

ID: 306@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.644Z

Question:
Three cubes, A, B and C, are illustrated. A is about three-quarters the size of B, and C is about one and a half times the size of B Simple cuboidal epithelial cells line the ducts of certain human exocrine glands. Various materials are transported into or out of the cells by diffusion. The formula for the surface area of a cube is $6s^2$ and the formula for the volume of a cube is $s^3\!$ , where $s$ is the length of a side of a cube. $s$ is equal to $10\,\unicode[Arial]{x3BC}\text{m}$ for cube $\text{A}$ , $20\,\unicode[Arial]{x3BC}\text{m}$ for cube $\text{B}$ , and $30\,\unicode[Arial]{x3BC}\text{m}$ for cube $\text{C}$ . Which cell likely allows substances to diffuse the fastest into the cell?
A:
A
B:
B
C:
C
D:
D

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-2-6 apbio-ch04-ot018

ID: 307@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.661Z

Question:
Which of the following structures allows a plant cell to be larger than an animal cell?
A:
Chloroplasts, which capture light energy
B:
A large vacuole, which reduces the volume of cytoplasm
C:
Plasmodesmata, which holds the cell together.
D:
Rigid cell walls, which requires a larger cell to maintain.

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apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s02 apbio-ch04-s02-aplo-2-7 apbio-ch04-ot019

ID: 308@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.671Z

Question:
Which of the following structure or structures would not be observed under the electron microscope in a plant cell?
A:
lysosome
B:
mitochondria
C:
nucleus
D:
ribosomes

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo03 apbio-ch04-ot020

ID: 309@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.688Z

Question:
A compound that interferes with the following structure would be a safe antibacterial medication for humans to use:
A:
plasma membrane
B:
centriole assembly
C:
mitochondria
D:
peptidoglycan cell wall

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo02 apbio-ch04-ot021

ID: 310@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.696Z

Question:
Which structure in plant cells contains the pigments that capture light energy?
A:
central vacuole
B:
chloroplast
C:
centrosome
D:
cell wall

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo02 apbio-ch04-ot022

ID: 311@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.709Z

Question:
Which structure would not be expected to be observed in bacteria?
A:
centriole
B:
chromosome
C:
cytoplasm
D:
ribosome

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo01 apbio-ch04-ot023

ID: 312@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.720Z

Question:
Which of the following structures identifies a cell observed under the light as a plant cell or an alga?
A:
plasma membrane
B:
chloroplast
C:
nucleolus
D:
nucleus

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo01 apbio-ch04-ot024

ID: 313@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.732Z

Question:
Which organelle is the “stomach” of the animal cell?
A:
centriole
B:
lysosome
C:
mitochondrion
D:
peroxisome

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo03 apbio-ch04-ot025

ID: 314@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.749Z

Question:
In the context of cell biology, what do we mean by “form follows function?” What are at least two examples of this concept?
A:
The function of the body part is decided by its structure. Like how sharpness of teeth helps in eating and flexibility of fingers helps in holding objects.
B:
The form of the structure is dictated by its function. For example, the arms of humans and the wings of bats serve different functions, and thus their forms are adapted to those functions.
C:
The function of the body part is decided by its structure. For example, the arms of humans and the wings of bats serve different functions, and thus their forms are adapted.
D:
The form of the structure is decided by its function. Like how wings in bats and hands in humans have the same bones.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo01 apbio-ch04-ot026

ID: 315@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.755Z

Question:
You already know that ribosomes are abundant in red blood cells. In what other cells of the body would you find them in great abundance?
A:
Ribosomes are abundant in mature bone cells as they secrete proteins.
B:
Ribosomes are abundant in muscle cells as they contain large amounts of protein-based filaments necessary for contractions.
C:
Ribosomes are abundant in nerve cells as they grow and divide.
D:
Ribosomes are abundant in adipocytes, cells that store lipids.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo02 apbio-ch04-ot027

ID: 316@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.772Z

Question:
What are the structural and functional similarities and differences between mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A:
Similarities: double membrane, inter-membrane space, ATP production, contain DNA. Differences: mitochondria have inner folds called cristae, chloroplast contains accessory pigments in thylakoids, which form grana and a stroma.
B:
Similarities: DNA, inter-membrane space, ATP production, and chlorophyll. Differences: mitochondria have a matrix and inner folds called cristae; chloroplast contains accessory pigments in thylakoids, which form grana and a stroma.
C:
Similarities: double membrane and ATP production. Differences: mitochondria have inter-membrane spaces and inner folds called cristae; chloroplast contains accessory pigments in thylakoids, which form grana and a stroma.
D:
Similarities: double membrane and ATP production. Differences: mitochondria have inter-membrane space, inner folds called cristae, ATP synthase for ATP synthesis, and DNA; chloroplasts contains accessory pigments in thylakoids, which form grana and a stroma.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-lo03 apbio-ch04-ot028

ID: 317@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.778Z

Question:
Which organelle is responsible for the production of energy in all eukaryotic cells?
A:
centriole
B:
chloroplast
C:
cytoplasmic membrane
D:
mitochondrion

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch04 apbio-ch04-s03 apbio-ch04-s03-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch04-ot029

ID: 318@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.799Z

Question:
What organelle would be the largest in rapidly dividing cells? Explain your reasoning.
A:
The mitochondria will be the largest as the cell constantly requires energy to keep dividing.
B:
The nucleus must be the largest as the cell starts the next round of division and it does not have time to expand.
C:
The endoplasmic reticulum will be the largest as it will constantly provide the essential proteins for the division process.
D:
The microtubules will the largest as they play a major role in cell division.

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ID: 319@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.805Z

Question:
You are making a poster of a generic bacterium for your class. Which of the following structures will you leave out of your poster?
A:
plasma membrane
B:
DNA
C:
nucleolus
D:
ribosome

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ID: 320@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.822Z

Question:
Vesicles pinch off the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Where do they go from there?
A:
centriole
B:
cytoplasmic membrane
C:
Golgi apparatus
D:
peroxisome

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ID: 321@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.838Z

Question:
Which of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system?
A:
endoplasmic reticulum
B:
Golgi apparatus
C:
lysosome
D:
mitochondrion

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ID: 322@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.850Z

Question:
Often secreted proteins are modified with sugar residues. Where would you expect the sugar residues to be added on to the protein?
A:
Golgi apparatus
B:
peroxisome
C:
rough endoplasmic reticulum
D:
smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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ID: 323@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.859Z

Question:
What happens to the proteins that are synthesized on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm? Do they go through the Golgi apparatus?
A:
These proteins move through the Golgi apparatus and enter in the nucleus.
B:
These proteins go through the Golgi apparatus and remain in the cytosol.
C:
The proteins do not go through the Golgi apparatus and move into the nucleus for processing.
D:
The proteins do not go through the Golgi apparatus and remain free in the cytosol.

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ID: 324@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.876Z

Question:
Which components of the cytoskeleton are responsible for the contraction of muscles?
A:
all components of the cytoskeleton
B:
intermediate filaments
C:
microfilaments
D:
microtubules

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ID: 325@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.893Z

Question:
If a sperm cell produces defective microtubules, which cellular function is impaired?
A:
modification of proteins
B:
movement of the flagellum
C:
protein synthesis
D:
respiration

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ID: 326@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.907Z

Question:
How do cilia and flagella differ?
A:
Cilia are made of microfilaments and flagella of microtubules.
B:
Cilia are helpful in the process of engulfing food. Flagella are involved in the movement of the organism.
C:
Cilia are short and found in large numbers on the cell surface whereas flagella are long and less in number.
D:
Cilia are found in prokaryotic cells and flagella in eukaryotic cells.

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ID: 327@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.913Z

Question:
What junctions prevent the movement of chemicals between two adjacent animal cells?
A:
desmosomes
B:
gap junctions
C:
plasmodesmata
D:
tight junctions

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ID: 328@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.934Z

Question:
What forms gap junctions?
A:
gaps in the cell wall of plants
B:
protein complexes that form channels between cells
C:
tight, rivet-like regions in the membranes of adjacent cells
D:
tight knitting of membranes

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ID: 329@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.949Z

Question:
What is a junction between animal cells that allows free exchange of cytoplasm and small soluble molecules?
A:
desmosome
B:
gap junction
C:
plasmodesmata
D:
tight junction

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ID: 330@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.955Z

Question:
The blood brain barrier protects the brain from toxic compounds and pathogens that may be carried by blood. The epithelial cells lining the barrier can be described as “glued” together. Those cellular junctions must be:
A:
desmosomes
B:
gap junctions
C:
plasmodesmata
D:
tight junctions

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ID: 331@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.972Z

Question:
How does the structure of a plasmodesma differ from that of a gap junction?
A:
Gap junctions are essential for transportation in animal cells and plasmodesmata are essential for the movement of substances in plant cells.
B:
Gap junctions are found to provide attachment in animal cells and plasmodesmata are essential for attachment of plant cells.
C:
Plasmodesmata are essential for communication between animal cells and gap junctions are necessary for attachment of cells in plant cells.
D:
Plasmodesmata help in transportation and gap junctions help in attachment, in plant cells.

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ID: 332@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.977Z

Question:
Explain how the extracellular matrix functions.
A:
The extracellular matrix protects the cell as it is rigid in nature.
B:
The extracellular matrix helps in the attachment of the cell to other cells and to various substrata.
C:
The extracellular matrix helps in an efficient transfer of substances in and out of the cell.
D:
The extracellular matrix helps in an efficient exocytosis.

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ID: 333@1

2015-08-20T13:03:35.994Z

Question:
Why does the immune system attack a transplanted organ?
A:
Glycoproteins and glycolipids on the surface of the organ are similar to those found on pathogens.
B:
The immune system does not recognize the glycoproteins and glycolipids on the surface of the organ.
C:
Glycoproteins and glycolipids on the surface of the organ are toxic to the body.
D:
Glycoproteins and glycolipids on the surface of the organ are similar to those found on immune cells.

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ID: 334@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.005Z

Question:
Explain why glucose cannot pass directly through the cell membrane.
A:
The plasma membrane is impermeable to polar molecules, so transport proteins are required.
B:
The plasma membrane is selectively permeable to polar molecules, and a transport protein is required.
C:
The plasma membrane is permeable to polar molecules, but a transport protein is required.
D:
The plasma membrane is selectively permeable to polar molecules; a transport protein is not required.

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ID: 335@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.011Z

Question:
Which plasma membrane component can be either found on its surface or embedded in the membrane structure?
A:
carbohydrates
B:
cholesterol
C:
glycolipid
D:
protein

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ID: 336@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.027Z

Question:
In addition to a plasma membrane, eukaryotic cell organelles, such as mitochondria, also have membranes. In which way would these membranes differ?
A:
The proportion of phosphate within the phospholipids will vary.
B:
Only certain membranes contain phospholipids.
C:
Only certain membranes are selectively permeable.
D:
The proportions of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates will vary.

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ID: 337@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.033Z

Question:
Which characteristic of a phospholipid increases the fluidity of the membrane?
A:
cholesterol
B:
its head
C:
saturated fatty acid tail
D:
unsaturated fatty acid tail

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ID: 338@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.050Z

Question:
How would an organism maintain membrane fluidity in an environment where temperatures fluctuated from very high to very low?
A:
Greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids in membranes.
B:
Greater proportion of saturated phospholipids in membranes.
C:
Greater proportion of carbohydrates in membranes.
D:
Greater proportion of proteins in membranes.

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ID: 339@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.056Z

Question:
Why do phospholipids tend to spontaneously orient themselves into something resembling a membrane?
A:
Phospholipids are amphipathic molecules. The polar head faces towards water and the nonpolar fatty acid tails face towards other fatty acid tails.
B:
Phospholipids are lipophilic molecules. The polar head faces towards water and the nonpolar fatty acid tails face towards other fatty acid tails
C:
Phospholipids are amphipathic molecules. The nonpolar head faces towards other fatty acid tails and the polar fatty acid tails face towards water.
D:
Phospholipids are hydrophilic molecules. The polar head faces towards water and the nonpolar fatty acid tails face towards other fatty acid tails.

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ID: 340@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.073Z

Question:
Why is it advantageous for the plasma membrane to be fluid in nature?
A:
Fluidity allows greater flexibility to the cell and motion of membrane components required for transport.
B:
Fluidity helps only in transport of some materials, and does not contribute to the flexibility.
C:
Fluidity helps in maintaining the pH of intracellular fluid, and helps in maintaining the physiological pH of the cell.
D:
Fluidity helps in providing mechanical strength to the plasma membrane, preventing the plasma membrane from mechanical injury during stress.

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ID: 341@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.084Z

Question:
One type of mutation in the CFTR protein blocks the channel, preventing the transport of ions. Which of the following is most likely to be observed in the lungs of patients with this type of mutation?
A:
dehydrated epithelial cells
B:
dehydrated mucus
C:
mucus with excess water
D:
mucus with high electrolyte concentration

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ID: 342@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.090Z

Question:
Arsenic poisoning disrupts ATP production by inhibiting several of the enzymes in the oxidative phosphorylation pathway. Some of the symptoms of arsenic poisoning are similar to cystic fibrosis (difficulty breathing and frequent lung infections). Explain what impact arsenic poisoning may have on components of the plasma membrane and transport that result in CF like symptoms.
A:
Arsenic poisoning disrupts ATP production, leading to decreased transport of <span data-math="\text{Cl}^-\!">\text{Cl}^-\!</span> ions by epithelial cells. This leads to decreased electrolyte concentration in the mucus and retention of water into the cells. The mucus becomes dehydrated, as in CF.
B:
Arsenic poisoning disrupts the <span data-math="\text{Na}^+/\text{Cl}^-\!">\text{Na}^+/\text{Cl}^-\!</span> pump, leading to decreased transport of <span data-math="\text{Cl}^-\!">\text{Cl}^-\!</span> ions outside the epithelial cells. This increases the electrolyte concentration in the mucus and movement of water out of the cells. The mucus becomes hydrated as in CF.
C:
Arsenic poisoning affects the oxidative phosphorylation pathway, leading to decreased transport of <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> ions outside the epithelial cells. This leads to increased electrolyte concentration in the mucus and movement of water into the cells. The mucus becomes dehydrated as in CF.
D:
Arsenic poisoning disrupts the binding sites for <span data-math="\text{Cl}^-\!">\text{Cl}^-\!</span> ions, leading to decreased transport of <span data-math="\text{Cl}^-\!">\text{Cl}^-\!</span> ions outside the epithelial cells. This leads to decreased electrolyte concentration in the mucus and movement of water outside the cells. The mucus becomes hydrated as in CF.

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apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review dok4 ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s01 apbio-ch05-s01-aplo-2-10 apbio-ch05-ex010

ID: 343@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.109Z

Question:
Explain the difference between the two beakers .
A:
The lower temperature of left beaker causes yellow dye to diffuse faster than the right beaker.
B:
The lower temperature in left beaker causes yellow dye to diffuse slower in it than in the right beaker.
C:
The higher temperature of left beaker causes faster diffusion of yellow dye in the left beaker.
D:
The higher temperature of right beaker causes slower diffusion of yellow dye in the right beaker.

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ID: 344@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.114Z

Question:
Identify the principal force driving movement in diffusion.
A:
concentration gradient
B:
membrane surface area
C:
particle size
D:
temperature

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo01 apbio-ch05-ex012

ID: 345@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.126Z

Question:
Which of the following is an example of passive transport across a membrane?
A:
the movement of <span data-math="\text{H}^+\!">\text{H}^+\!</span> into a thylakoid disc during photosynthesis
B:
the uptake of glucose in the intestine
C:
the uptake of mineral ions into root hair cells of plants
D:
the movement of water from a nephron into the collecting duct of the kidney

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ID: 346@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.137Z

Question:
Water moves via osmosis in which direction?
A:
from an area with a high concentration of other solutes to a lower one
B:
from an area with a high concentration of water to one of lower concentration
C:
from an area with a low concentration of water to one of higher concentration.
D:
throughout the cytoplasm

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ID: 347@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.154Z

Question:
What problem is faced by organisms that live in fresh water?
A:
They will have higher concentrations of body solutes.
B:
Their bodies tend to take in too much water.
C:
They have no way of controlling their tonicity.
D:
Their bodies tend to lose too much water to their environment.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo02 apbio-ch05-ex015

ID: 348@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.160Z

Question:
Discuss why the following affect the rate of diffusion: molecular size, temperature, solution density, and the distance that must be traveled.
A:
Larger molecules move faster than lighter molecules. Temperature affects the molecular movement. Density is directly proportional to the molecular movement. Greater distance slows the diffusion.
B:
Larger molecules move slower than lighter molecules. Increasing or decreasing temperature increases or decreases the energy in the medium, affecting molecular movement. Density is inversely proportional to molecular movement. Greater distance slows the diffusion.
C:
Larger molecules move slower than lighter molecules. Temperature does not affect the rate of diffusion. Density is inversely proportional to molecular movement. Greater distance speeds up the diffusion.
D:
Larger molecules move slower than lighter molecules. Increasing or decreasing temperature increases or decreases the energy in the medium, affecting molecular movement. Density is inversely proportional to the molecular movement. Greater distance speeds up the diffusion.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo01 apbio-ch05-ex016

ID: 349@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.177Z

Question:
Both of the regular intravenous solutions administered in medicine, normal saline and lactated Ringer’s solution, are isotonic. Why is this important?
A:
Isotonic solutions maintain equilibrium and avoid the exchange of materials to or from the blood.
B:
Isotonic solutions disrupt equilibrium and allow better exchange of materials in the blood.
C:
Isotonic solutions increase the pH of blood and allow better absorption of saline in blood.
D:
Isotonic solutions decrease the pH of the blood and avoid the exchange of materials to or from the blood.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo02 apbio-ch05-ex017

ID: 350@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.182Z

Question:
This table shows the results of 7 experiments. In experiment 1, ATP was present inside the cells and outside the cells. Ouabain (or oubain) was not present inside cells nor outside the cells. Both sodium ions and potassium ions were transported. In experiment 2, ATP was present inside the cells but not outside the cells. Ouabain was not present inside nor outside the cells. Both sodium ions and potassium ions were transported. In experiment 3, ATP was not present inside the cells but was present outside the cells. Ouabain was not present inside the cells nor outside the cells. Neither sodium ions nor potassium ions were transported. In experiment 4, ATP was not present inside nor outside the cells. Ouabain was not present inside nor outside the cells. Neither sodium ions nor potassium ions were transported. In experiment 5, ATP was present inside the cells but was not present outside the cells. Ouabain was present both inside and outside the cells. Sodium ions were transported but potassium ions were not. In experiment 6, ATP was present inside the cells but not outside the cells. Ouabain was present inside the cells but not outside the cells. Both sodium ions and potassium ions were transported. In experiment 7, ATP was present inside the cells but not outside the cells. Ouabain was not present inside the cells but was present outside the cells. Sodium ions were transported but potassium ions were not transported The sodium-potassium ( $\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+$ ) pump functions like an anti-porter transporting $\text{Na}^+$ and $\text{K}^+$ across membranes using ATP. This protein spans the membrane with intracellular and extracellular domains. It has a binding site for $\text{Na}^+\!$ , $\text{K}^+\!$ , and ATP. An experiment was conducted to determine the locations of these binding sites. Artificial cells were created and incubated in buffers containing ATP, ouabain (or oubain), $\text{Na}^+\!$ , and $\text{K}^+\!$ in varying combinations inside and outside of the cell as indicated in the chart. The transport of $\text{Na}^+\!$ and $\text{K}^+\!$ was measured to determine activity of the $\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!$ pump. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the data?
A:
Ouabain can disrupt ATP binding to the <span data-math="\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!">\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!</span> pump.
B:
ATP is required for transport of <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> and not for transport of <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span>.
C:
The ATP binding site of the <span data-math="\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!">\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!</span> pump is located on the intracellular domain of the pump.
D:
The ATP binding site of the <span data-math="\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!">\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!</span> pump is located on the extracellular domain of the pump.

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ID: 351@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.194Z

Question:
The graph shows rate of contraction in contractions per minute on the y axis, and osmolarity of solution in millimolar on the x axis. The graph line is straight forming a downhill slope. As the osmolarity increases, the rate of contractions decreases. Paramecium are unicellular protists that have contractile vacuoles to remove excess intracellular water. In an experimental investigation, Paramecium were placed in salt solutions of increasing osmolarity. The rate the contractile vacuole contracted to pump out excess water was determined and plotted against osmolarity of the solutions, as shown in the graph. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the data?
A:
At higher osmolarity, lower rates of contraction are required because more salt diffuses into the Paramecium.
B:
In an isosmotic salt solution, there is no diffusion of water into or out of the Paramecium, so the contraction rate is zero.
C:
The contraction rate increases as the osmolarity decreases because the amount of water entering the Paramecia by osmosis increases.
D:
The contractile vacuole is less efficient in solutions of high osmolarity because of the reduced amount of ATP produced from cellular respiration.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc dok4 ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-aplo-2-11 apbio-ch05-ex019

ID: 352@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.211Z

Question:
What is most likely to happen if Paramecia are moved from a hypertonic solution to solutions of decreasing osmolarity?
A:
The rate of contraction would increase with decreasing osmolarity because more water diffuses into the Paramecium.
B:
The rate of contraction would decrease with decreasing osmolarity because more water diffuses into the Paramecium.
C:
The rate of contraction would increase with decreasing osmolarity because more salt diffuses into the Paramecium.
D:
The rate of contraction would decrease with decreasing osmolarity because more salt diffuses into the Paramecium.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short dok4 ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-aplo-2-12 apbio-ch05-ex020

ID: 353@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.223Z

Question:
This table shows the results of 7 experiments. In experiment 1, ATP was present inside the cells and outside the cells. Ouabain (or oubain) was not present inside cells nor outside the cells. Both sodium ions and potassium ions were transported. In experiment 2, ATP was present inside the cells and but not outside the cells. Ouabain was not present inside nor outside the cells. Both sodium ions and potassium ions were transported. In experiment 3, ATP was not present inside the cells but was present outside the cells. Ouabain was not present inside the cells nor outside the cells. Neither sodium ions nor potassium ions were transported. In experiment 4, ATP was not present inside nor outside the cells. Ouabain was not present inside nor outside the cells. Neither sodium ions nor potassium ions were transported. In experiment 5, ATP was present inside the cells but was not present outside the cells. Ouabain was present both inside and outside the cells. Sodium ions were transported but potassium ions were not. In experiment 6, ATP was present inside the cells but not outside the cells. Ouabain was present inside the cells but not outside the cells. Both sodium ions and potassium ions were transported. In experiment 7, ATP was present inside the cells but not outside the cells. Ouabain was not present inside the cells but was present outside the cells. Sodium ions were transported but potassium ions were not transported. Describe the $\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!$ pump, labeling the binding sites for $\text{Na}^+\!$ , $\text{K}^+\!$ , and ATP. Explain how the data indicates the location of the binding sites for $\text{Na}^+\!$ and $\text{K}^+\!$ on the pump. Based on the data, choose the correct statement describing the location of the binding sites for $\text{Na}^+\!$ and $\text{K}^+\!$ on the pump.
A:
The binding of <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> occurs on the outer surface of the cell, as its transportation remains unaffected by the presence of ouabain. The binding of <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span> occurs on the inner surface of the cell, as its transportation is blocked when ouabain is present inside the cell
B:
The binding of <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span> occurs on the outer surface of the cell, as its transportation is blocked when ouabain is present outside the cell. The binding of <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> occurs on the inner surface of the cell as its transportation remains unaffected by the presence of ouabain.
C:
The binding of <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span> occurs on the outer surface of the cell and the binding of <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> occurs on the inner surface of the cell, as they are not transported when ATP is absent.
D:
The binding of <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> occurs on the outer surface of the cell and the binding of <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span> occurs on the inner surface of the cell, as they are not transported when ATP is absent.

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ID: 354@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.228Z

Question:
An illustration of a beaker filled with distilled water that has a dialysis-tubing bag, tied shut at both ends, fully submerged in the water. The dialysis-tubing bag contains 5 percent lactose and 5 percent fructose. An experiment was set up to determine the movement of molecules through a dialysis-tubing bag into water. A dialysis-tubing bag containing $5\%$ lactose and $5\%$ fructose was placed in a beaker of distilled water, as illustrated. After four hours, fructose is detected in the distilled water outside of the dialysis-tubing bag, but lactose is not. What conclusions can be made about the movement of molecules in this experiment?
A:
Fructose, being a monosaccharide, diffused through the dialysis bag into the distilled water. However, lactose, being a disaccharide, could not diffuse through the dialysis bag.
B:
Fructose was homogenized by lactose, allowing the fructose to diffuse through the dialysis bag and into the distilled water. Lactose is not homogenized, so it could not pass through the dialysis bag.
C:
Fructose and lactose are oppositely charged and separated out due to the force of repulsion.
D:
Fructose diffused because of the pore specificity of the semipermeable membrane, not because of its concentration gradient.

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ID: 355@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.240Z

Question:
What will happen to the opening of the sodium-potassium pump if no ATP is present in a cell?
A:
It will remain facing the extracellular space, with sodium ions bound.
B:
It will remain facing the extracellular space, with potassium ions bound.
C:
It will remain facing the cytoplasm, but no sodium ions would bind.
D:
It will remain facing the cytoplasm, with sodium ions bound.

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ID: 356@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.252Z

Question:
If the pH outside the cell decreases, would you expect the amount of amino acids transported into the cell to increase or decrease?
A:
Transport of amino acids into the cell increases
B:
Transport of amino acids into the cell stops.
C:
Transport of amino acids into the cell is not affected by pH.
D:
Transport of amino acid into the cell decreases.

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ID: 357@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.263Z

Question:
Injection of a potassium solution into a person’s blood is lethal. Potassium is used in capital punishment and euthanasia. Why do you think a potassium solution injection is lethal?
A:
Excess potassium disrupts the membrane components
B:
Excess potassium increases action potential generation, leading to uncoordinated organ activity.
C:
Potassium dissipates the electrochemical gradient in cardiac muscle cells, preventing them from contracting.
D:
Potassium creates a new concentration gradient across the cell membrane, preventing sodium from leaving the cell.

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ID: 358@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.274Z

Question:
Sodium and potassium are necessary electrolytes. As a result, the human body uses a great deal of energy keeping these electrolytes in balance. Explain why the body needs to use energy for this process.
A:
ATP is required to release sodium ions outside the cell.
B:
ATP is required to allow entry of potassium ions inside the cell.
C:
ATP is required to allow entry of sodium ions inside the cell.
D:
ATP is required to release potassium ions outside the cell.

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ID: 359@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.291Z

Question:
Why must active transport function continuously?
A:
Diffusion cannot occur in certain cells.
B:
Diffusion is constantly moving solutes in opposite directions.
C:
Facilitated diffusion works in the same direction as active transport.
D:
Not all membranes are amphiphilic.

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ID: 360@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.307Z

Question:
How does the sodium-potassium pump make the interior of the cell negatively charged?
A:
by expelling anions
B:
by pulling in anions
C:
by expelling more cations than it takes in
D:
By taking in and expelling an equal number of cations.

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ID: 361@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.323Z

Question:
How does the sodium-potassium pump contribute to the net negative charge of the interior of the cell?
A:
The sodium-potassium pump forces out three (positive) <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> ions for every two (positive) <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span> ions it pumps in, thus the cell loses a net positive charge of one at every cycle of the pump.
B:
The sodium-potassium pump expels three ions <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span> for every two <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> inside the cells, creating a net positive charge outside the cell and a net negative charge inside the cell.
C:
The sodium-potassium pump helps the development of negative charge inside the cell by making the membrane more permeable to negatively charged proteins.
D:
The sodium-potassium pump helps in the development of negative charge inside the cell by making the membrane impermeable to positively charged ions.

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ID: 362@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.329Z

Question:
Salmonella is one of the most common food borne illnesses. When salmonella bacteria are engulfed by a white blood cell during phagocytosis, it secretes a protein that prevents the fusion of the encased bacteria with the lysosome of the cell. What effect would this have?
A:
The bacteria will be destroyed and will not cause any illness.
B:
The bacteria will survive and will definitely result in illness.
C:
The bacteria will be destroyed, but will still cause illness.
D:
The bacteria will survive and possibly will cause illness.

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ID: 363@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.340Z

Question:
What happens to the membrane of a vesicle after exocytosis?
A:
It leaves the cell.
B:
It is disassembled by the cell.
C:
It fuses with and becomes part of the plasma membrane.
D:
It is used again in another exocytosis event.

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ID: 364@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.361Z

Question:
In what important way does receptor-mediated endocytosis differ from phagocytosis?
A:
It transports only small amounts of fluid.
B:
It does not involve the pinching off of membrane.
C:
It brings in only a specifically targeted substance.
D:
It brings substances into the cell, while phagocytosis removes substances.

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ID: 365@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.367Z

Question:
Choose the statement that describes processes of receptor-mediated endocytosis, exocytosis, and the changes in the membrane organization.
A:
Endocytosis involves the opsonization of a receptor and its ligand in clathrin-coated vesicles, along with the inward budding of the plasma membrane. In exocytosis, waste material is enveloped in a membrane that fuses with the interior of the plasma membrane via attachment proteins.
B:
In endocytosis, waste material is enveloped in a membrane that fuses with the interior of the plasma membrane via attachment proteins. Exocytosis involves the opsonization of the receptor and its ligand in a clathrin-coated vesicles.
C:
In endocytosis, waste material is enveloped in a membrane that fuses with the interior of the plasma membrane via attachment proteins. Exocytosis involves the opsonization of the receptor and its ligand in caveolae-coated vesicles.
D:
Endocytosis involves the opsonization of the receptor and its ligand in clathrin-coated vesicles. In exocytosis, waste material is enveloped in a membrane that fuses with the exterior of the plasma membrane via attachment proteins.

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ID: 366@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.378Z

Question:
Based on the information provided, which cell types are most likely to contain clathrin?
A:
monocytes and mast cells
B:
neutrophils, monocytes, and mast cells
C:
neutrophils and mast cells
D:
neutrophils and monocytes

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ID: 367@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.390Z

Question:
Which of the following statements appropriately describe the role of opsonin and clathrin proteins in neutrophils based on your understanding of phagocytosis?
A:
A clathrin coating enhances phagocytosis, whereas opsonin reverses the process of phagocytosis.
B:
Opsonins are proteins that enhance phagocytosis, whereas clathrin opposes phagocytosis.
C:
Opsonin stabilizes the inward facing surface of the plasma membrane, which engulfs the antigen, whereas clathrin marks the antigen for phagocytosis by neutrophils.
D:
Opsonin marks the antigen for phagocytosis by neutrophils, whereas clathrin stabilizes the inward facing surface of the plasma membrane, which engulfs the antigen.

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ID: 368@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.401Z

Question:
Which of the following is true for carbohydrates?
A:
Carbohydrates are in contact with the aqueous fluid both inside and outside the cell.
B:
Carbohydrates are present only on the interior surface of a membrane.
C:
Carbohydrates are present only on the exterior surface of a membrane.
D:
Carbohydates span only the interior of a membrane.

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ID: 369@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.412Z

Question:
Isolated biological membranes can be frozen, then fractured to study the membrane components. When membranes are fractured they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. What is the best explanation for this observation?
A:
The hydrophobic forces along the middle of the bilayer are the weakest at this point.
B:
The hydrophilic forces between phospholipid tails in the middle of the bilayer are easily disrupted.
C:
The attractive forces between the polar heads of the phospholipids are easily disrupted.
D:
Water is present in the middle of the bilayer that freezes and causes the fracture.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s01 apbio-ch05-s01-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot002

ID: 370@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.427Z

Question:
What do double bonds in phospholipid fatty acid tails contribute to?
A:
the fluidity of membranes
B:
the hydrophobic nature of membranes
C:
the hydrophilic nature of membranes
D:
preventing high temperatures from increasing fluidity of membranes

Tags:

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ID: 371@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.438Z

Question:
The table shows characteristics of the four IPS isoforms, PC1, PC2, PC3, and PC4. PC1 has 44 carbons in its fatty acid tails and 0 carbon-carbon double bonds. PC2 has 36 carbons in its fatty acid tails and 1 carbon-carbon double bond. PC3 has 36 carbons in its fatty acid tails and 0 carbon-carbon double bonds. PC4 has 44 carbons in its fatty acid tails and 1 carbon-carbon double bond. Phospholipids contain two fatty acid tails and a glycerol-phosphate head. Phosphatidylcholine is a phospholipid with four different forms: PC1, PC2, PC3, and PC4 as shown in the chart. The phosphatidyl choline isoforms can be ranked in terms of estimated relative melting temperatures. Rank the isoforms from the lowest to highest estimated melting temperatures.
A:
1, 3, 2, 4
B:
2, 3, 1, 4
C:
2, 4, 3, 1
D:
4, 3, 2, 1

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s01 apbio-ch05-s01-lo02 apbio-ch05-ot004

ID: 372@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.455Z

Question:
List four components of a plasma membrane and explain their function.
A:
Phospholipids: form the bilayer; Carbohydrates: help in adhesion; Cholesterol: provide flexibility; Integral proteins: form transporters; Peripheral proteins: part of the cell’s recognition sites.
B:
Phospholipids: form the bilayer; Carbohydrates: help in adhesion; Cholesterol: form transporters; Integral proteins: provide flexibility; Peripheral proteins: part of the cell’s recognition sites.
C:
Phospholipids: form the bilayer; Carbohydrates: part of the cell’s recognition sites; Cholesterol: provide flexibility to the membrane; Integral proteins: form transporters; Intermediate filaments: help in adhesion.
D:
Phospholipids: form the bilayer; Carbohydrates: function as adhesion; Cholesterol: provide flexibility to the membrane, Integral proteins: form transporters; Intermediate filaments: part of the cell’s recognition sites.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s01 apbio-ch05-s01-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot005

ID: 373@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.460Z

Question:
Identify and explain two ways in which plasma membranes can remain fluid when the temperature drops.
A:
Decreasing the amount of saturated fatty acids and glycerol allows the plasma membranes to remain fluid.
B:
Decreasing the amount of unsaturated fatty acids and cholesterol helps in maintaining fluidity.
C:
Increasing the amount of unsaturated fatty acids and cholesterol allows the plasma membranes to remain fluid.
D:
Increasing the amount of saturated fatty acids and carbohydrates.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s01 apbio-ch05-s01-lo02 apbio-ch05-ot006

ID: 374@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.475Z

Question:
In individuals with normally functioning CFTR protein, which substances are transported via active transport?
A:
<span data-math="\text{Cl}^-">\text{Cl}^-</span>
B:
mucus
C:
<span data-math="\text{Na}^+">\text{Na}^+</span>
D:
water

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s01 apbio-ch05-s01-aplo-2-10 apbio-ch05-ot007

ID: 375@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.642Z

Question:
Which of the following is not true of diffusion?
A:
As the density of a solvent increases, the rate of diffusion increases.
B:
Heavier molecules diffuse more slowly than lighter molecules
C:
The greater the difference in concentration, the more rapid the diffusion.
D:
The greater the distance a substance must travel, the slower the rate of diffusion.

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apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot008

ID: 376@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.660Z

Question:
Which of the following would likely move across a plasma membrane most rapidly?
A:
<span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>
B:
glucose
C:
<span data-math="\text{K}^+">\text{K}^+</span>
D:
Starch

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apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot009

ID: 377@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.665Z

Question:
What is the difference between osmosis and diffusion?
A:
Diffusion is an active process and osmosis is a passive process.
B:
Diffusion is the movement of solute or solvent molecules from an area of high concentration to low concentration; osmosis is the movement of water from an area of high concentration to low concentration.
C:
Osmosis is an active process and diffusion is a passive process
D:
Osmosis is the movement of water from an area of high concentration to low concentration; diffusion is the movement of water from an area of low concentration to high concentration.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo02 apbio-ch05-ot010

ID: 378@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.677Z

Question:
Saltwater fish live in an environment that is hypertonic to their cells. To adapt to this environment, fish would most likely do what?
A:
secrete salt through their gills and excrete highly concentrated urine
B:
secrete salt through their gills and excrete diluted urine
C:
take in salt through their gills and excrete diluted urine
D:
take in salt through their gills and excrete highly concentrated urine

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo02 apbio-ch05-ot011

ID: 379@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.693Z

Question:
Why does water move through a membrane?
A:
Difference in concentration of solvents
B:
Difference in concentration of solute and solvent
C:
Difference in concentration of solutes
D:
No difference in either concentration

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot012

ID: 380@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.699Z

Question:
A doctor injects a patient with what the doctor thinks is an isotonic saline solution. The patient dies, and an autopsy reveals that many red blood cells have been burst. Is it true that the solution the doctor injected was really isotonic? Why or why not?
A:
False, the solution was hypertonic.
B:
False, the solution was either hypotonic or hypertonic.
C:
False, the solution was hypotonic.
D:
True, the solution was isotonic.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-lo02 apbio-ch05-ot013

ID: 381@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.711Z

Question:
What conclusions can be made about the action of ouabain (or oubain)?
A:
Ouabain disrupts the <span data-math="\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!">\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!</span> pump by inhibiting the binding of ATP.
B:
Ouabain disrupts the <span data-math="\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!">\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!</span> pump by inhibiting the binding of <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span>.
C:
Ouabain disrupts the <span data-math="\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!">\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!</span> pump by inhibiting the binding of <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span>.
D:
Ouabain disrupts the <span data-math="\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!">\text{Na}^+/\text{K}^+\!</span> pump by reversing the transport of <span data-math="\text{Na}^+\!">\text{Na}^+\!</span> and <span data-math="\text{K}^+\!">\text{K}^+\!</span>.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s02 apbio-ch05-s02-aplo-2-11 apbio-ch05-ot014

ID: 382@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.729Z

Question:
What is the difference between primary and secondary active transport?
A:
Primary active transport is indirectly dependent on ATP, while secondary active transport is directly dependent on ATP.
B:
Primary active transport is directly dependent on ATP, while secondary active transport is indirectly dependent on ATP.
C:
Primary active transport does not require ATP, while secondary active transport is indirectly dependent on ATP.
D:
Primary active transport is indirectly dependent on ATP, while secondary active transport does not require ATP

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s03 apbio-ch05-s03-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot015

ID: 383@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.740Z

Question:
The sodium-potassium pump is an anti-porter that transports potassium and sodium across the cell membrane. Which of the following statements about the sodium electrochemical gradient is true?
A:
The concentration of sodium is higher outside of the cell because the pump moves sodium ions along their electrochemical gradient.
B:
The concentration of sodium is lower outside of the cell because the pump moves sodium ions against their electrochemical gradient.
C:
The concentration of sodium is higher inside of the cell because the pump moves sodium ions along their electrochemical gradient.
D:
The concentration of sodium is higher outside of the cell because the pump moves sodium ions against their electrochemical gradient.

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apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s03 apbio-ch05-s03-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot016

ID: 384@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.746Z

Question:
Potassium is a necessary nutrient in order to maintain the function of our cells. What would occur to a person that is deficient in potassium?
A:
The excess sodium disrupts the membrane components.
B:
The excess sodium increases action potential generation.
C:
The cell would not be able to get rid of extra sodium.
D:
The cell would not be able to bring sodium into the cell.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s03 apbio-ch05-s03-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot017

ID: 385@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.768Z

Question:
Which transport mechanism can bring whole cells into a cell?
A:
Exocytosis
B:
Pinocytosis
C:
Phagocytosis
D:
Transcytosis

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s04 apbio-ch05-s04-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot018

ID: 386@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.773Z

Question:
Cyanide is highly toxic as it inhibits the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase, disrupting the electron transport chain and preventing the production of ATP. Which types of transport will not be disrupted by cyanide poisoning?
A:
phagocytosis and pinocytosis
B:
receptor-mediated endocytosis and exocytosis
C:
potocytosis and pinocytosis
D:
apoptosis

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch05 apbio-ch05-s04 apbio-ch05-s04-lo01 apbio-ch05-ot019

ID: 387@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.784Z

Question:
Describe the process of potocytosis and explain how it differs from pinocytosis.
A:
Potocytosis is a form of receptor-mediated endocytosis where molecules are transported via caveolae-coated vesicles. Pinocytosis is a form of exocytosis used for excreting excess water.
B:
Potocytosis is a form of exocytosis where molecules are transported via clathrin-coated vesicles. Pinocytosis is a form of receptor-mediated endocytosis used for excreting excess water.
C:
Potocytosis is a form of receptor-mediated endocytosis where molecules are transported via caveolae-coated vesicles. Pinocytosis is a mode of endocytosis used for absorption of extracellular water.
D:
Potocytosis is a form of receptor-mediated endocytosis used for absorption of water. Pinocytosis is a mode of endocytosis used for excretion of extracellular water.

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ID: 388@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.801Z

Question:
Based on the information provided, which cell types produce endosomes?
A:
monocytes and mast cells
B:
neutrophils, monocytes, and mast cells
C:
neutrophils and mast cells
D:
neutrophils and monocytes

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ID: 389@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.807Z

Question:
The early atmosphere lacked oxygen. Why do you think this is the case?
A:
Oxygen is a byproduct of photosynthesis, so there was very little oxygen in the atmosphere until photosynthetic organisms evolved.
B:
Oxygen is a byproduct of anaerobic respiration, so there was very little oxygen in the atmosphere until anaerobic organisms evolved.
C:
Oxygen is a byproduct of fermentation, so there was very little oxygen in the atmosphere until fermentative organisms evolved.

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ID: 390@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.824Z

Question:
Energy is stored in the bonds of what molecule? Which molecule uses that stored energy to perform short-term work?
A:
ATP, glucose
B:
an anabolic molecule, a catabolic molecule
C:
a catabolic molecule, an anabolic molecule
D:
glucose, ATP

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ID: 391@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.835Z

Question:
Which of the following compounds stores the energy produced as a result of cellular respiration?
A:
AMP
B:
ATP
C:
mRNA
D:
phosphate

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ID: 392@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.846Z

Question:
DNA replication involves unwinding two strands of parent DNA, copying each strand to synthesize complementary strands and releasing the resulting two semi-conserved strands of DNA. Which of the following accurately describes this process?
A:
This is an anabolic process.
B:
This is a catabolic process.
C:
This is both an anabolic and a catabolic process.
D:
This is a metabolic process, but is neither anabolic nor catabolic.

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ID: 393@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.861Z

Question:
Which of the following is a catabolic process?
A:
digestion of sucrose
B:
dissolving sugar in water
C:
DNA replication
D:
RNA translation

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ID: 394@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.867Z

Question:
What type of chemical is most involved in transferring energy from the sun to our bodies?
A:
glucose
B:
protein
C:
triglycerides
D:
tRNA

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ID: 395@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.882Z

Question:
Which chemical reaction will result in the most energy transferred?
A:
ADP to ATP
B:
ATP to a chemical pathway
C:
DNA to mRNA
D:
sucrose to glucose and fructose

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ID: 396@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.899Z

Question:
Describe the connection between anabolic and catabolic chemical reactions in a metabolic pathway.
A:
Catabolic reactions give out energy and simpler compounds, whereas in anabolic reactions free energy is utilized by simpler compounds to make complex molecules.
B:
Catabolic reactions give out energy and complex compounds are formed, whereas in anabolic reactions free energy is utilized by complex compounds to make simpler molecules.
C:
Catabolic reactions utilize energy and gives simpler compounds, whereas in anabolic reactions, energy is given out and simpler compounds are used to make complex molecules.
D:
Catabolic reactions give out energy and water molecules, whereas in anabolic reactions this free energy is utilized by simpler compounds to make only proteins and nucleic acids.

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ID: 397@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.905Z

Question:
Does physical exercise involve anabolic processes, catabolic processes, or both? Give evidence for your answer.
A:
Physical exercise is both an anabolic and a catabolic process. Glucose is broken down into simpler compounds during physical activity. The simpler compounds are then used to provide energy to the muscles for contraction by the anabolic pathway.
B:
Physical exercise is just catabolic process. Glucose is broken down into simpler compounds during physical activity and the simpler compounds are then used to provide energy to the muscles for contraction.
C:
Physical exercise is just an anabolic process. Glucose is broken down into simpler compounds during physical activity and the simpler compounds are then used to provide energy to the muscles for contraction by the anabolic pathway.
D:
Physical exercise is both an anabolic and a catabolic process. Cellulose is broken down into simpler compounds during physical activity. The simpler compounds are then used to provide energy to the muscles for contraction by the anabolic pathway.

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ID: 398@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.919Z

Question:
How do chemical reactions play a role in energy transfer?
A:
Energy is released in the form of ATP molecules from the breakdown of glucose. These ATP molecules transfer energy from one reaction to other.
B:
Energy is released in the form of NADP molecules from the breakdown of glucose. These NADP molecules transfer energy from one reaction to other.
C:
Energy is released in the form of glucose from the breakdown of ATP molecules. These ATP molecules transfer energy from one reaction to other.
D:
Energy is released in the form of water from the breakdown of glucose. These molecules transfer energy from one reaction to other.

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ID: 399@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.935Z

Question:
Cell metabolism is a complex process that uses many types of chemicals in a variety of processes. Which of the following statements is true?
A:
A loss of free nucleotides would result in cancer.
B:
A loss of assorted carbohydrates would result in mitosis.
C:
A loss of triglycerides would result in cell death.
D:
A loss of enzymes would result in cell death.

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ID: 400@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.951Z

Question:
Which pair of descriptors of chemical reactions go together?
A:
anabolic and exergonic
B:
exergonic and dehydration synthesis
C:
endergonic and catabolic
D:
hydrolysis and exergonic

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ID: 401@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.958Z

Question:
What is the underlying principle that supports the idea that all living organisms share the same core processes and features?
A:
All organisms must harvest energy from their environment and convert it to ATP to carry out cellular functions.
B:
Plants produce their own energy and pass it on to animals.
C:
Herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores coexist for the survival of all.
D:
Glucose is the primary source of energy for all cellular functions.

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ID: 402@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.974Z

Question:
It has been accepted that life on the Earth started out as single celled, simple organisms, which then evolved into complex organisms which became plants and animals. How did this evolution proceed for a prokaryotic organism and plants, animals, protists, and fungi from a simple ancestor?
A:
Prokaryotes produced the fungi, then the protists which then branches to plants and animals.
B:
Protists evolved first, then the prokaryotes, which branched into the fungi, plants, and animals
C:
Prokaryotes produced the protists, which branched into the fungi, plants, and animals.
D:
Prokaryotes produced the protists, then the fungi, which branched into the plants and animals.

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apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s01 apbio-ch06-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch06-ex014

ID: 403@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.980Z

Question:
Glucose is the sugar most often used in metabolism by the majority of cells on Earth. It is made and used by plants as well as other organisms. Which of the following describes the chemical breakdown of glucose, and what is the name of the chemical process involved in this breakdown?
A:
glycolysis: <span data-math="\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}">\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}</span>
B:
photosynthesis: <span data-math="6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2">6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2</span>
C:
electrolysis: <span data-math="\text{C}_4\text{H}_8\text{O}_4 + 6\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}">\text{C}_4\text{H}_8\text{O}_4 + 6\text{O}_2 \rightarrow 6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}</span>
D:
Krebs cycle: <span data-math="6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{S} + \text{energy} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2">6\text{CO}_2 + 6\text{H}_2\text{S} + \text{energy} \rightarrow \text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + 6\text{O}_2</span>

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ID: 404@1

2015-08-20T13:03:36.992Z

Question:
Plants make glucose through a pathway called photosynthesis. The amount of energy captured from light can be expressed as the number of energy containing molecules used to make one molecule of glucose. Which of the following best states the number of each molecule needed?
A:
54 molecules of ATP, 18 molecules of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH)
B:
18 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of NADPH
C:
24 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules of NADPH
D:
12 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules of NADPH

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ID: 405@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.002Z

Question:
What is an anabolic pathway? Which of these is an example of an anabolic pathway used by cells in their metabolism?
A:
Anabolic pathways involve the breakdown of nutrient molecules into usable forms. An example is the harvesting of amino acids from dietary proteins.
B:
Anabolic pathways involve the breakdown of nutrient molecules into useable forms. An example is the use of glycogen by the liver to maintain blood glucose levels.
C:
Anabolic pathways build new molecules out of the products of catabolic pathways. An example is the separation of fatty acids from triglycerides to satisfy energy needs.
D:
Anabolic pathways build new molecules out of the products of catabolic pathways. An example is the linkage of nucleotides to form a molecule of mRNA.

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ID: 406@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.020Z

Question:
If glucose is broken down through aerobic respiration, a number of ATP can be made from the energy extracted from the ATP. How many ATP are possible?
A:
2 to 4
B:
36 to 38
C:
10 to 12
D:
24 to 30

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ID: 407@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.025Z

Question:
What characteristics are shared by all living organisms?
A:
All living organisms require energy, use metabolism, and have signaling molecules like hormones. Additionally, they can exercise protection, export waste, and have movement.
B:
All living organisms require energy, use metabolism, and have signaling molecules such as hormones. Also, they exercise protection, can export waste, and should be able to speak with each other.
C:
All living organisms require energy, use metabolism, and should be able to make their own food. They can also exercise protection, can export waste, and can have movement.
D:
All living organisms require energy, use metabolism, and have signaling molecules like hormones. They can also exercise protection, can import waste, and can have movement.

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ID: 408@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.036Z

Question:
A photo of a tree labeled photosynthesis. The word water has an arrow pointing toward the roots of the tree. The word carbon dioxide has an arrow pointing to the phrase sugars made on the leaves of the tree. An arrow points from under the word sunlight toward the leaves. Arrows point from the leaves to the sky and the word oxygen. The diagram shows how plants take in and convert different substances from their environment. Describe the strategy that plants use and choose the best explanation of how it works.
A:
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants absorb energy from sunlight, carbon dioxide from the air, and water from the ground. Plants use chloroplasts and various processes to turn this energy into oxygen.
B:
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants take in energy from the surrounding environment, including water, carbon dioxide, and sunlight. Plants use chloroplasts to produce sugar. They also release oxygen into the environment.
C:
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants take in sunlight, oxygen, and water to turn into sugar. The plant will use the sugar to fuel cell processes.
D:
Photosynthesis releases carbon dioxide into the environment and produces sugar for the plant by taking in energy from sunlight, the air, and water and using various chemical processes to convert this energy.

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ID: 409@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.050Z

Question:
Describe the evolution of metabolic pathways as they developed on Earth.
A:
The earliest pathways that developed on earth were anaerobic because the primitive atmosphere didn’t have oxygen. These pathways were used by primitive prokaryotic microorganisms. Over time, photosynthesis developed, which led to increase of oxygen in atmosphere. This allowed aerobic cellular respiration.
B:
The earliest pathways that developed on earth were aerobic because the primitive atmosphere did not have oxygen. These pathways were used by primitive prokaryotic microorganisms. Over time, photosynthesis developed which led to increase of oxygen in atmosphere. This allowed anaerobic cellular respiration.
C:
The earliest pathways that developed on earth were anaerobic because the primitive atmosphere had oxygen. These pathways were used by primitive prokaryotic microorganisms. Over time, photosynthesis developed which led to decrease of oxygen in atmosphere. This allowed aerobic cellular respiration.
D:
The earliest pathways that developed on earth were anaerobic because the primitive atmosphere didn’t have oxygen. These pathways were used by primitive prokaryotic microorganisms. Over time, photosynthesis developed which led to increase of carbon dioxide in atmosphere. This allowed cellular respiration.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s01 apbio-ch06-s01-aplo-1-16 apbio-ch06-ex021

ID: 410@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.062Z

Question:
All organisms use basically the same metabolic pathways to perform the processes of a living cell. How do they build up substances from precursors and how do they break down compounds to provide the materials needed for new cell constituents?
A:
Cell use anabolic reactions to build up complex molecules from simpler molecules with the utilization of energy. For example, production of cellular protein requires amino acids. When cells need components for new molecules, they use catabolic reactions to break down existing molecules with release of energy. For example, breakdown of dietary proteins to supply amino acids for the production of cellular protein.
B:
Cells use catabolic reactions to build up complex molecules from simpler molecules with the utilization of energy, For example, the production of cellular protein from amino acids uses energy. When cells need components for new molecules, they use anabolic reactions to break down existing molecules with release of energy. For example, breakdown of dietary proteins to supply amino acids releases energy.
C:
Cell use anabolic reactions to build up complex molecules from simpler molecules with the release of energy. For example, the production of cellular protein from amino acids releases energy. When cells need components for new molecules, they use catabolic reactions to break down existing molecules with utilization of energy. For example, the breakdown of dietary proteins to supply amino acids uses energy.
D:
Cell use hydrolysis to build up complex molecules from simpler molecules with the utilization of energy. For example, production of cellular protein from amino acids uses energy. When cells need components for new molecules, they use dehydration synthesis to break down existing molecules with release of energy. For example, the breakdown of dietary proteins to supply amino acids releases energy.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s01 apbio-ch06-s01-aplo-2-1 apbio-ch06-ex022

ID: 411@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.082Z

Question:
Explain how the potential and kinetic energy shown in the pendulum model relates to a child swinging on a swing set.
A:
Kinetic energy increases when the child swings downward, potential energy increases when the child swings upward.
B:
Kinetic energy decreases when the child swings downward, potential energy decreases when the child swings upward.
C:
Kinetic energy increases when the child swings upward, potential energy increases when the child swings downward.
D:
Kinetic energy increases when child swings downward, potential energy increases when the child swings downward.

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ID: 412@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.088Z

Question:
Four images are shown. The first, a, is a compost pile. The second, b, is of a newly hatched chick amongst other eggs. The third, c, shows the destruction of a sand art design. The fourth, d, shows a ball rolling down a hill. Look at each of the processes shown, and decide if it is endergonic or exergonic. In each case, does enthalpy increase or decrease, and does entropy increase or decrease?
A:
Compost pile decomposition is endergonic, enthalpy increases and entropy increases. A baby developing from egg is an endergonic process, enthalpy decreases and entropy decreases. Sand art being destroyed is exergonic, no change in enthalpy and entropy increases. A ball rolling downhill is exergonic process, enthalpy decreases and no change in entropy.
B:
Compost pile decomposition is exergonic, enthalpy increases and entropy increases. A baby developing from egg is an endergonic process, enthalpy decreases and entropy decreases. Sand art being destroyed is exergonic, no change in enthalpy and entropy decreases. A ball rolling downhill is exergonic process, enthalpy decreases and no change in entropy.
C:
Compost pile decomposition is exergonic, enthalpy increases and entropy increases. A baby developing from egg is an endergonic process, enthalpy decreases and entropy decreases. Sand art being destroyed is exergonic, no change in enthalpy and entropy increases. A ball rolling downhill is exergonic process, enthalpy decreases and entropy increases.
D:
A ball rolling down the hill doesn’t affect the order of system; therefore, the entropy would remain unchanged.

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ID: 413@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.105Z

Question:
Explain why transitional states are unstable.
A:
Molecules have relaxed molecular structure with low energy.
B:
Molecules have strained molecular structure with high energy.
C:
Molecules have relaxed molecular structure with high energy.
D:
Molecules have strained molecular structure with low energy.

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ID: 414@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.116Z

Question:
How does the change in Gibbs free energy ( $\Delta G$ ) differ between the catalyzed versus uncatalyzed reaction?
A:
<span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span> is greater for the forward direction than for the reverse direction.
B:
<span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span> is greater for the uncatalyzed than the catalyzed reaction.
C:
<span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span> is greater for the catalyzed than the uncatalyzed reaction.
D:
<span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span> is the same for the catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions.

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apbio visual-connection inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo03 apbio-ch06-ex026

ID: 415@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.121Z

Question:

Consider a pendulum swinging. Which type(s) of energy is/are associated with the pendulum in the following instances:

  1. the moment at which it completes one cycle, just before it begins to fall back towards the other end
  2. the moment that it is in the middle between the two ends
  3. just before it reaches the end of one cycle (before step 1)
A:
<ol> <li>potential and kinetic</li> <li>potential and kinetic</li> <li>kinetic</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>potential</li> <li>potential and kinetic</li> <li>potential and kinetic</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>potential</li> <li>kinetic</li> <li>potential and kinetic</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>potential and kinetic</li> <li>kinetic</li> <li>kinetic</li> </ol>

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo02 apbio-ch06-ex027

ID: 416@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.138Z

Question:
Which of the following best describes energy?
A:
the transfer of genetic information
B:
the ability to assemble a large number of functional catalysts
C:
the ability to store solar output
D:
the ability to do work

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ID: 417@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.143Z

Question:
What is the ultimate source of energy on this planet?
A:
glucose
B:
plants
C:
metabolic pathways
D:
the sun

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo01 apbio-ch06-ex029

ID: 418@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.155Z

Question:
Which of the following molecules is likely to have the most potential energy?
A:
ATP
B:
ADP
C:
glucose
D:
sucrose

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo02 apbio-ch06-ex030

ID: 419@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.172Z

Question:
Which of the following is the best way to judge the relative activation energies between two given chemical reactions?
A:
Compare the <span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span> values between the two reactions.
B:
Compare their reaction rates.
C:
Compare their ideal environmental conditions.
D:
Compare the spontaneity between the two reactions.

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ID: 420@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.183Z

Question:
Which of the terms in the Gibbs free energy equation denotes enthalpy?
A:
<span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span>
B:
<span data-math="\Delta H">\Delta H</span>
C:
<span data-math="\Delta S">\Delta S</span>
D:
<span data-math="\Delta T">\Delta T</span>

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ID: 421@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.194Z

Question:
Which chemical reaction is more likely to occur?
A:
dehydration synthesis
B:
endergonic
C:
endothermic
D:
exergonic

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ID: 422@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.205Z

Question:
Which of the following comparisons or contrasts between endergonic and exergonic reactions is false?
A:
Both endergonic and exergonic reactions require a small amount of energy to overcome an activation barrier.
B:
Endergonic reactions have a positive <span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span> and exergonic reactions have a negative <span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span>.
C:
Endergonic reactions consume energy and exergonic reactions release energy.
D:
Endergonic reactions take place slowly and exergonic reactions take place quickly.

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ID: 423@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.211Z

Question:
Name two different cellular functions that require energy which parallel human energy-requiring functions.
A:
Phagocytosis helps amoebae take up nutrients and pseudopodia help the amoebae move.
B:
Phagocytosis allows amoebae move and pseudopodia help in the uptake of nutrients.
C:
Phagocytosis helps amoebae to take up nutrients and cilia help amoebae move.
D:
Phagocytosis helps amoebae in cell division and pseudopodia help amoebae move.

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ID: 424@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.222Z

Question:
Explain the conversion of energy that takes place when the sluice of a dam is opened.
A:
Potential energy stored in the water held by the dam will convert to kinetic energy when it falls through the opening of the sluice.
B:
Kinetic energy stored in the water held by the dam will convert to potential energy when it falls through the opening of the sluice.
C:
Potential energy stored in the water held by the dam will convert to electrical energy, when it falls through the opening of the sluice.
D:
Hydrothermal energy stored in the water held by the dam will convert to kinetic energy, when it falls through the opening of the sluice.

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ID: 425@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.238Z

Question:
Explain in your own words the difference between a spontaneous reaction and one that occurs instantaneously.
A:
A spontaneous reaction is one which releases free energy and moves to a more stable state. Instantaneous reactions occur rapidly with sudden release of energy.
B:
A spontaneous reaction is one which utilizes free energy and moves to a more stable state. Instantaneous reactions occur rapidly with sudden release of energy.
C:
A spontaneous reaction is one which releases free energy and moves to a more stable state. Instantaneous reactions occur rapidly within a system by uptake of energy.
D:
A spontaneous reaction is one in which the reaction occurs rapidly with sudden release of energy. Instantaneous reaction releases free energy and moves to a more stable state.

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ID: 426@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.249Z

Question:
Describe the position of the transition state on a vertical energy scale, from low to high, relative to the position of the reactants and products, for both endergonic and exergonic reactions.
A:
The transition state of the reaction exists at a lower energy level than the reactants. Activation energy is always positive regardless of whether the reaction is exergonic or endergonic.
B:
The transition state of the reaction exists at a higher energy level than the reactants. Activation energy is always positive regardless of whether the reaction is exergonic or endergonic.
C:
The transition state of the reaction exists at a lower energy level than the reactants. Activation energy is always negative regardless of whether the reaction is exergonic or endergonic.
D:
The transition state of the reaction exists at an intermediate energy level than that of the reactants. Activation energy is always positive regardless of whether the reaction is exergonic or endergonic.

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ID: 427@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.255Z

Question:
Plants must have adequate resources to complete their functions. If they do not have what they need, there are changes in the organism’s metabolism. What happens to the metabolism of a plant that does not have adequate sunlight?
A:
Photosynthesis slows and less glucose is produced for energy use.
B:
The plant switches to anaerobic metabolism.
C:
The plant goes into a dormant state until the sunlight returns.
D:
The plant flowers quickly to reproduce while it can.

Tags:

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ID: 428@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.272Z

Question:
Water deficiency is arguably the easiest deficiency to detect in plants. This is because plants that are lacking water will wilt, as water within the plant’s cells helps to supports the plant’s weight. Plant cells become water deficient because their cells use the water for metabolic processes. What happens to the metabolism of a plant that does not have adequate water?
A:
Photosynthesis is inhibited, less glucose is produced, and water used by the cells is not replaced.
B:
The plant increases its breakdown of glucose to create more water at the end of the process.
C:
The plant will stop photosynthesizing for long periods of time until it has enough water to do so.
D:
The cell will bring in more <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>, to compensate for the lack of water, allowing glucose synthesis to continue.

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ID: 429@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.277Z

Question:
Free energy is required for living systems to maintain organization, grow, or reproduce; but multiple strategies exist in different living systems. How were early organisms such as primitive prokaryotic microorganisms able to obtain and use free energy compared to the bacteria on human skin?
A:
The primitive prokaryotic microorganisms used anaerobic metabolism to harvest energy from nutrients, while bacteria on human skin use aerobic respiration to obtain energy.
B:
The primitive prokaryotic microorganisms used aerobic metabolism to harvest energy from nutrients, while bacteria on human skin use anaerobic respiration to obtain energy.
C:
The primitive prokaryotic microorganisms utilized the energy obtained from redox reactions to harvest energy from nutrients, while bacteria on human skin use aerobic respiration to obtain energy.
D:
The primitive prokaryotic microorganisms used anaerobic metabolism to harvest energy from nutrients, while bacteria on human skin utilize the sunlight to obtain energy.

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ID: 430@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.288Z

Question:

Label each of the following systems as high or low entropy:

  1. perfume the instant after it is sprayed into the air
  2. an unmaintained 1950’s car compared with a brand new car
  3. a living cell compared with a dead cell
A:
<ol> <li>low</li> <li>high</li> <li>low</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>low</li> <li>high</li> <li>high</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>high</li> <li>low</li> <li>high</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>high</li> <li>low</li> <li>low</li> </ol>

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ID: 431@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.305Z

Question:
What counteracts entropy?
A:
energy release
B:
endergonic reactions
C:
input of energy
D:
time

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ID: 432@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.310Z

Question:
Which of the following is the best example of the first law of thermodynamics?
A:
a body getting warmer after exercise
B:
a piece of fruit spoiling in the fridge
C:
a power plant burning coal and producing electricity
D:
an exothermic chemical reaction

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ID: 433@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.327Z

Question:
What is the difference between the first and second laws of thermodynamics?
A:
The first law involves creating energy while the second law involves expending it.
B:
The first law involves expending energy while the second involves creating it.
C:
The first law involves conserving energy while the second law involves the inability to recapture energy.
D:
The first law discusses creating energy while the second law discusses the energy requirement for reactions.

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ID: 434@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.338Z

Question:
Imagine an elaborate ant farm with tunnels and passageways through the sand where ants live in a large community. Now imagine that an earthquake shook the ground and demolished the ant farm. In which of these two scenarios, before or after the earthquake, was the ant farm system in a state of higher or lower entropy? Why?
A:
The ant farm is in the state of high entropy after the earthquake and energy must be spent to bring the system to low entropy.
B:
The ant farm is in the state of lower entropy after the earthquake and energy must be spent to bring the system to high entropy.
C:
The ant farm is in the state of higher entropy before the earthquake and energy is given out of the system after the earthquake.
D:
The ant farm is in the state of lower entropy before the earthquake and energy is given out of the system after the earthquake.

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ID: 435@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.349Z

Question:
Energy transfers take place constantly in every day activities. Think of two scenarios: cooking on a stove and driving. Explain how the second law of thermodynamics applies to these scenarios.
A:
Heat is lost into the room while cooking and into the metal of the engine during gasoline combustion.
B:
Heat gained while cooking helps to make the food and heat released due to gasoline combustion helps the car accelerate.
C:
The energy given to the system remains constant during cooking and more energy is added to the car engine when the gasoline combusts.
D:
The energy given to the system for cooking helps to make food and energy in the car engine remains conserved when gasoline combustion takes place.

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ID: 436@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.355Z

Question:
The hydrolysis of one ATP molecule releases $7.3\,\text{kcal/mol}$ of energy $(\Delta G = {-7.3}\,\text{kcal/mol}$ of energy $)$ . If it takes $2.1\,\text{kcal/mol}$ of energy to move one ${\text{Na}}^{+}{\!}$ across the membrane $(\Delta G = {+2.1}\,\text{kcal/mol}$ of energy $)$ , what is the maximum number of sodium ions that could be moved by the hydrolysis of one ATP molecule?
A:
five
B:
four
C:
three
D:
two

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ID: 437@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.366Z

Question:
Explain why the lock-and-key model does not adequately represent the relationship between hexokinase and glucose.
A:
Hexokinase changes conformation in presence of glucose
B:
Hexokinase induces change in the glucose structure
C:
Hexokinase requires an effector molecule to bind at allosteric site
D:
Hexokinase binds glucose without any conformational change

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ID: 438@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.377Z

Question:
Why is ATP considered the energy currency of the cell?
A:
It accepts energy from chemical reactions.
B:
It holds energy at the site of release from substrates.
C:
It is a protein.
D:
It can transport energy to locations within the cell.

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ID: 439@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.388Z

Question:
What is ATP made from?
A:
adenosine + high energy electrons
B:
ADP + pyrophosphate
C:
AMP + ADP
D:
the conversion of guanine to adenosine

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo01 apbio-ch06-ex051

ID: 440@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.399Z

Question:
What is true about the energy released by the hydrolosis of ATP?
A:
It is equal to <span data-math="{-57}\,\text{kJ/mol}">{-57}\,\text{kJ/mol}</span>.
B:
The cell harnesses it as heat energy in order to perform work.
C:
It is primarily stored between the alpha and beta phosphates.
D:
It provides energy to coupled reactions.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo02 apbio-ch06-ex052

ID: 441@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.410Z

Question:
Where is most of the energy held in an ATP molecule that is used in chemical reactions?
A:
in the adenosine molecule
B:
in the second phosphate
C:
In the first phosphate
D:
In the third phosphate

Tags:

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ID: 442@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.421Z

Question:
How does ATP supply energy to chemical reactions?
A:
ATP dissociates and the energy released by breaking of a phosphate bond within ATP is used for phosphorylation of another molecule. ATP hydrolysis also provides energy to power coupling reactions.
B:
ATP utilizes energy to power exergonic reactions by hydrolysis of ATP molecule. The free energy released as a result of ATP breakdown is used to carry out metabolism of products.
C:
ATP utilizes energy to power endergonic reactions by dehydration of ATP molecule. The free energy released as a result of ATP breakdown is used to carry out metabolism of products.
D:
ATP utilizes the energy released from the coupling reactions and that energy is used to power the endergonic and exergonic reactions.

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ID: 443@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.438Z

Question:
Is the $E_\text{A}$ for ATP hydrolysis relatively low or high? Explain your reasoning.
A:
<span data-math="E_\text{A}">E_\text{A}</span> for ATP hydrolysis is high because of high energy level of ATP.
B:
<span data-math="E_\text{A}">E_\text{A}</span> for ATP hydrolysis is low because of high energy level of ATP.
C:
<span data-math="E_\text{A}">E_\text{A}</span> for ATP hydrolysis is intermediate because of high energy level of ATP.
D:
<span data-math="E_\text{A}">E_\text{A}</span> for ATP hydrolysis is high because of low energy level of ATP.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo02 apbio-ch06-ex055

ID: 444@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.443Z

Question:
Phosphofructokinase deficiency occurs when a person lacks an enzyme needed to perform glycolysis in skeletal muscles. What affect could this have on the body?
A:
Production of energy by glycolysis will occur, skeletal muscles will function properly
B:
Production of energy by glycolysis will not occur, skeletal muscles will function properly
C:
Production of energy by glycolysis will occur, skeletal muscles will not function properly
D:
Production of energy will not occur, skeletal muscles will not function properly

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ID: 445@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.460Z

Question:
Statins reduce the level of cholesterol in the blood. Based on the everyday connection, which of the following might also reduce cholesterol levels in the blood?
A:
a drug that increases HMG-CoA reductase levels
B:
a drug that reduces cyclooxygenase levels
C:
a drug that reduces lipid levels in the body
D:
a drug that blocks the action of acetaminophen

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ID: 446@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.470Z

Question:
An allosteric inhibitor does which of the following?
A:
binds to an enzyme away from the active site and changes the conformation of the active site, increasing its affinity for substrate binding
B:
binds to an active site and blocks it from binding substrate
C:
binds to an enzyme away from the active site and changes the conformation of the active site, decreasing its affinity for the substrate
D:
binds directly to the active site and mimics the substrate

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ID: 447@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.482Z

Question:
What happens if an enzyme is not functioning in a chemical reaction in a living organism that needs it?
A:
The reaction stops.
B:
The reaction proceeds, but much more slowly.
C:
The reaction proceeds faster without the interference.
D:
There is no change in the reaction rate.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo01 apbio-ch06-ex059

ID: 448@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.497Z

Question:
Which of the following is not true about enzymes?
A:
They increase the <span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span> of reactions.
B:
They are usually made of amino acids.
C:
They lower the activation energy of chemical reactions.
D:
Each one is specific to the particular substrate, or substrates, to which it binds.

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ID: 449@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.509Z

Question:
Which of the following analogies best describe the induced-fit model of enzyme-substrate binding?
A:
a hug between two people
B:
a key fitting into a lock
C:
A square peg fitting through the square hole and a round peg fitting through the round hole of a children’s toy
D:
the fitting together of two jigsaw puzzle pieces

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ID: 450@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.529Z

Question:
If a chemical reaction could occur without an enzyme, why is it important to have one?
A:
Enzymes are important because they give the desired products only from the reaction.
B:
Enzymes are important because the products are obtained consistently with time.
C:
Enzymes are important because it does not disturb the concentration of the products.
D:
Enzymes are important because energy remains conserved and no loss of energy occurs.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo01 apbio-ch06-ex062

ID: 451@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.539Z

Question:
How does enzyme feedback inhibition benefit a cell?
A:
Feedback inhibition benefits the cell by blocking the production of the products by changing the configuration of enzymes. This will prevent the cells from becoming toxic.
B:
Feedback inhibition benefits the cell by blocking the production of the reactants by changing the configuration of enzymes. This will prevent the cells from becoming toxic.
C:
Feedback inhibition benefits the cell by blocking the production of the products by changing the configuration of reactants. This will prevent the cells from becoming toxic.
D:
Feedback inhibition benefits the cell by blocking the production of the products by reducing the reactants. This will prevent the cells from becoming toxic.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo02 apbio-ch06-ex063

ID: 452@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.550Z

Question:
Enzymes facilitate chemical reactions that result in changes to a substrate. How does the induced fit model of enzymes and substrates explain their function?
A:
Both enzyme and substrate undergo dynamic changes, inducing the transitions state of the substrate.
B:
The enzyme induces a change in the substrate, but is not changed itself during the reaction.
C:
The substrates attach to the enzyme and the chemical reaction proceeds.
D:
The enzyme changes shape to fit the substrate causing the transition state to occur.

Tags:

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ID: 453@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.563Z

Question:
Enzyme inhibitors play an important part in the control of enzyme functions, allowing them to continue, or inhibiting them for a period of time. Which inhibitor affects the initial rate but do not affect the maximal rate?
A:
allosteric
B:
competitive
C:
non-competitive
D:
uncompetitive

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-aplo-4-17 apbio-ch06-ex065

ID: 454@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.580Z

Question:
An enzyme exists with a shallow bowl next to a triangular shape, making up the active site. A triangle with a half circle represents the Reactant A. The enzyme releases Product B, a half circle, and Product C, a triangle binds to the enzyme active site, the bowl conforming to the rounder shape of the reactant. What kind of enzyme action is depicted in the model below and how does it work?
A:
Enzyme action. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions in cells through various processes. They lower the activation energy required for physiological reactions.
B:
Catalytic conversion. The substrates attach to the enzyme and the chemical reaction proceeds during which the enzyme is converted to fit a substrate to perform its function.
C:
Induced fit model of enzyme action. A substrate binding to an enzyme and changing the enzyme’s shape, allowing the enzyme to perform its catalytic function.
D:
Lock-and-key model of enzyme action. A model for enzyme-substrate interaction that shows an enzyme and substrate having pre-existing complementary shapes. Only the correct size and shape of the substrate will fit into the correct active site.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-aplo-4-17 apbio-ch06-ex066

ID: 455@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.591Z

Question:
What is ATP used for in a cell? What is its usual source?
A:
ATP provides the energy for chemical reactions. It is usually derived from glucose.
B:
ATP is a source of phosphate for nucleic acid synthesis. It is derived from Adenine nucleotides.
C:
ATP assists in cell membrane transport by providing channels for passage. It is derived from cholesterol.
D:
ATP is used for long term energy storage. It is derived from triglycerides.

Tags:

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ID: 456@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.597Z

Question:
What is needed for a cell to recycle ATP?
A:
ADP + AMP + energy
B:
ADP + energy + inorganic phosphate
C:
ATP + phosphate group
D:
AMP + phosphate ions

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ID: 457@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.608Z

Question:
If a process is anabolic and then catabolic, what is it also?
A:
It breaks down organic macromolecules
B:
It builds up organic macromolecules.
C:
It is also endergonic and then exergonic.
D:
It is also exergonic and then endergonic.

Tags:

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ID: 458@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.626Z

Question:
The synthesis of sucrose is an example of what process?
A:
anabolic
B:
catabolic
C:
hydrolysis
D:
transcription

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s01 apbio-ch06-s01-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot004

ID: 459@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.631Z

Question:
What is the chemical that supplies the energy used to fuel chemical reactions?
A:
cellulose
B:
cholesterol
C:
glucose
D:
nucleic acids

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s01 apbio-ch06-s01-lo03 apbio-ch06-ot005

ID: 460@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.648Z

Question:
What is the result of the conversion of ATP to ADP?
A:
The conversion of ATP to a higher energy source.
B:
The addition of a phosphate to the molecule.
C:
The release of a high energy phosphate.
D:
The deletion of an AMP molecule.

Tags:

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ID: 461@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.659Z

Question:
Why are anabolic and catabolic chemical reactions dependent on each other in a metabolic pathway?
A:
Anabolic reaction utilizes the energy released by the catabolic reactions to form complex compounds.
B:
Catabolic reaction utilizes the energy released by the anabolic reactions to form complex compounds.
C:
Anabolic reaction gives energy which is utilized by the catabolic reactions to increase the rate of reaction.
D:
Anabolic reaction utilizes the reactants of the catabolic reactions to form complex compounds.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s01 apbio-ch06-s01-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot007

ID: 462@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.671Z

Question:
How does physical exercise mimic the reactions of a metabolic pathway?
A:
Physical exercise employs both anabolic and catabolic pathways.
B:
Physical exercise employs the anabolic pathway.
C:
Physical exercise employs the catabolic pathway.
D:
Physical exercise does not employ any of the metabolic pathways.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s01 apbio-ch06-s01-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot008

ID: 463@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.676Z

Question:
What is the role of ATP in chemical reactions?
A:
ATP transfers the energy to the enzyme-substrate complex.
B:
ATP breaks down into ADP that provides free energy in the chemical reaction.
C:
ATP synthesis gives out free energy, which is utilized by chemical reactions.
D:
ATP forms complexes with other molecules to release energy for chemical reactions.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s01 apbio-ch06-s01-lo03 apbio-ch06-ot009

ID: 464@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.688Z

Question:
What does the ability to do work best describe?
A:
a catalyst
B:
energy
C:
glucose
D:
nucleic acids

Tags:

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ID: 465@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.702Z

Question:
What role does the Sun play in plant and animal metabolism?
A:
It provides the heat needed to fuel metabolism.
B:
It is the ultimate source of energy captured by plants.
C:
It is converted into triglycerides for energy storage.
D:
It is the energy used by animals.

Tags:

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ID: 466@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.713Z

Question:
What is the working of solar panels an example of?
A:
an energy transformation
B:
an anabolic reaction
C:
the formulation of glucose
D:
the production of kinetic energy

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot012

ID: 467@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.724Z

Question:
What is an example of potential energy? What is an example of kinetic energy?
A:
a rock held at the top of a cliff; a snow ball being thrown
B:
a battery; a pendulum at the top of its swing
C:
a bat being swung at a ball; the wind up to a pitch
D:
water flowing over a dam; gasoline running an engine

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ID: 468@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.747Z

Question:
What can $\Delta G$ values be used to do?
A:
determine the free energy in a chemical reaction
B:
determine the kinetic energy released from a reaction
C:
evaluate the amount of enthalpy in a system
D:
evaluate the potential energy in a system

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo03 apbio-ch06-ot014

ID: 469@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.758Z

Question:
What does $\Delta H$ denote in the Gibbs equation?
A:
kinetic energy released in a reaction
B:
potential energy inherent in a chemical
C:
the energy needed to run an anabolic reaction
D:
the enthalpy lost in a chemical reaction

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo03 apbio-ch06-ot015

ID: 470@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.764Z

Question:
A positive $\Delta G$ is found in what type of chemical reaction?
A:
exergonic
B:
endergonic
C:
energy transformation
D:
hydrolysis

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo04 apbio-ch06-ot016

ID: 471@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.775Z

Question:
Are endergonic reactions more, less, or about equally likely to occur than exergonic ones?
A:
more likely
B:
less likely
C:
about equally likely

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo04 apbio-ch06-ot017

ID: 472@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.792Z

Question:
How does energy get to a cell, whether it is a single-celled or multicellular organism?
A:
Catabolism of glucose molecules results in the release of energy. That energy is then utilized by cells of single-celled as well as multicellular organisms for cellular activities.
B:
Anabolism of glucose molecules results in the release of energy. The energy is then utilized by cells of single-celled as well as multicellular organisms for cellular activities.
C:
Catabolism of glucose molecules results in the uptake of energy. The energy is then utilized by cells of single-celled as well as multicellular organisms for cellular activities.
D:
Catabolism of starch molecules results in the release of energy. That energy is then utilized by cells of single-celled as well as multicellular organisms for cellular activities.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot018

ID: 473@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.798Z

Question:
What happens when potential energy is turned into kinetic energy?
A:
Potential energy will be expressed in the form of heat, movement or work.
B:
Potential energy will be expressed in the form of chemical reaction.
C:
Potential energy will be converted into hydrothermal energy.
D:
Potential energy will be converted into mechanical energy.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot019

ID: 474@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.809Z

Question:
What is the connection between entropy and a spontaneous reaction?
A:
A spontaneous reaction increases the entropy of a system, making it stable.
B:
A spontaneous reaction increases the entropy of a system, making it unstable.
C:
A spontaneous reaction decreases the entropy of a system, making it stable.
D:
A spontaneous reaction does not affect the entropy of a system.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo03 apbio-ch06-ot020

ID: 475@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.821Z

Question:
Why is the activation energy, $E_\text{A}$ , always positive regardless of whether the reaction is an exergonic or endergonic reaction?
A:
Activation energy is independent of the type of reaction.
B:
Activation energy is supplied in the intermediate stage of the reaction.
C:
It is because the transition state exists at a higher energy state than the reactants.
D:
It is because the transition state exists at a lower energy state than the reactants.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s02 apbio-ch06-s02-lo04 apbio-ch06-ot021

ID: 476@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.838Z

Question:
What is an example of low entropy?
A:
ATP <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> ADP + energy
B:
exhaust from a car
C:
rust on a metal can
D:
substrates in a chemical reaction

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s03 apbio-ch06-s03-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot022

ID: 477@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.853Z

Question:
Which best describes the effect of inputting energy into a living system?
A:
It decreases entropy.
B:
It fuels catabolic reactions.
C:
It causes enthalpy.
D:
The energy is used to produce carbohydrates.

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ID: 478@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.859Z

Question:
What is an example of the second law of thermodynamics?
A:
ATP fueling a chemical reaction.
B:
a catabolic reaction
C:
the capture of solar energy by plants
D:
the melting of snow

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s03 apbio-ch06-s03-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot024

ID: 479@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.876Z

Question:
What does the first law of thermodynamics state?
A:
Energy must be inserted into a system to maintain it.
B:
The amount of energy in the universe can be increased through conservation.
C:
The energy of the Sun is inherently chemical energy.
D:
The amount of energy in the universe is constant.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s03 apbio-ch06-s03-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot025

ID: 480@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.882Z

Question:
What does it mean for a system to be in a higher level of entropy? How can it be reduced?
A:
Higher level of entropy refers to higher state of disorder in the system and it can be reduced by input of energy to lower the entropy.
B:
Higher level of entropy refers to higher state of symmetry in the system and it can be reduced by release of energy to lower the entropy.
C:
Higher level of entropy refers to low disorder in the system and it can be reduced by input of energy to increase the entropy.
D:
Higher level of entropy refers to higher state of disorder in the system and it can be reduced by providing a catalyst to lower the entropy.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s03 apbio-ch06-s03-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot026

ID: 481@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.897Z

Question:
When the air temperature drops and rain turns into snow is an example of which law of thermodynamics.
A:
first law of thermodynamics
B:
second law of thermodynamics
C:
third law of thermodynamics
D:
zeroth law of thermodynamics

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s03 apbio-ch06-s03-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot027

ID: 482@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.912Z

Question:
What compound can transport energy to locations within the cell?
A:
ATP
B:
glucose
C:
high energy phosphates
D:
high energy proteins

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot028

ID: 483@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.930Z

Question:
What is combined with ADP to form ATP?
A:
a single pyrophosphate
B:
AMP
C:
a covalently bonded phosphate
D:
phosphate ions

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot029

ID: 484@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.941Z

Question:
Where does the energy to run coupled reactions come from?
A:
an endergonic reaction with an energy source.
B:
the dehydration synthesis of the ADP and AMP.
C:
the hydrolysis of ATP
D:
the reduction of ATP

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot030

ID: 485@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.952Z

Question:
What is the significance of the third phosphate on ATP?
A:
It is where the highest level of energy is held in an ATP molecule.
B:
It is the phosphate received from AMP.
C:
It is really the first phosphate attached to the molecule.
D:
It is the recipient of energy from chemical reactions.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot031

ID: 486@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.964Z

Question:
What is phosphorylation as it occurs in chemical reactions?
A:
Phosphorylation refers to the attachment of a high energy phosphate to another molecule to facilitate a chemical reaction.
B:
Phosphorylation is the uptake of a phosphorous molecule by an ATP molecule to power chemical reactions.
C:
Phosphorylation is the release of a third phosphorous molecule of ATP during hydrolysis.
D:
Phosphorylation is the breakdown of a pyrophosphate molecule which gives phosphate ions.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot032

ID: 487@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.975Z

Question:
How is the high energy level of ATP, and the ultimate energy release, expressed using a mathematical symbol?
A:
<span data-math="E_\text{A}">E_\text{A}</span> does not show any correlation with ATP hydrolysis.
B:
It is expressed by an elevated <span data-math="E_\text{A}">E_\text{A}</span> for ATP hydrolysis.
C:
It is expressed by a negative <span data-math="E_\text{A}">E_\text{A}</span> for ATP hydrolysis.
D:
It is expressed by an intermediate <span data-math="E_\text{A}">E_\text{A}</span> for ATP hydrolysis,

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s04 apbio-ch06-s04-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot033

ID: 488@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.989Z

Question:
Which type of enzyme inhibitor binds to an enzyme away from the active site and changes the conformation of the active site, decreasing its affinity for the substrate?
A:
allosteric
B:
competitive
C:
non-competitive
D:
primary binding site inhibitor

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot034

ID: 489@1

2015-08-20T13:03:37.995Z

Question:
A chemical reaction is proceeding, but much more slowly than normal. What could be the cause?
A:
The product is being removed from the reaction too quickly.
B:
The enzyme is not functioning normally.
C:
The substrate is in excess.
D:
The enzyme cofactor is active.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot035

ID: 490@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.013Z

Question:
What is the function of enzymes?
A:
to increase the <span data-math="\Delta G">\Delta G</span> of reactions
B:
to increase the <span data-math="\Delta H">\Delta H</span> of reactions
C:
to lower the entropy of the chemicals in the reaction
D:
to lower the activation energy of a reaction

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot036

ID: 491@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.018Z

Question:
Why does the lock and key analogy fit the linkage between an enzyme and its substrate?
A:
The enzyme is the lock which is structured to the key, which is the substrate.
B:
The structures cannot be altered, so they always work together.
C:
The key only fits one configuration of the lock, as the enzyme does with the substrate.
D:
The reaction cannot proceed without both.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot037

ID: 492@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.030Z

Question:
What type of reaction allows chemicals to be available for an organism’s growth and maintenance in a timely manner?
A:
enzymatically facilitated reactions
B:
redox reactions
C:
catabolic reactions
D:
hydrolysis of ATP

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo01 apbio-ch06-ot038

ID: 493@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.041Z

Question:
If a cell’s metabolism continues to produce a product, eventually that product may reach toxic levels in the cell. How is this prevented and how does it work?
A:
The product of the reaction binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme, thus changing the configuration of the enzyme. The reaction will stop and when the product concentration drops, then the reaction will start again.
B:
The reactant of the reaction binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme, thus changing the configuration of the enzyme. The reaction will stop and when the reactant concentration drops, then the reaction starts again.
C:
The product of the reaction binds to the primary binding site of the enzyme, thus changing the configuration of the enzyme. The reaction will stop and when the product concentration drops, then the reaction will start again.
D:
The product of the reaction binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme, thus oxidizing the enzyme. The reaction will stop and when the product concentration drops, then the reaction will start again.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch06 apbio-ch06-s05 apbio-ch06-s05-lo02 apbio-ch06-ot039

ID: 494@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.053Z

Question:
What is the energy currency used by cells?
A:
ATP
B:
ADP
C:
AMP
D:
adenosine

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s01 apbio-ch07-s01-lo02 apbio-ch07-ex001

ID: 495@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.069Z

Question:
What does a reducing chemical reaction do?
A:
reduces the compound to a simpler form
B:
adds an electron to the substrate
C:
adds a hydrogen atom to the substrate
D:
acts as a catabolic reaction

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s01 apbio-ch07-s01-lo01 apbio-ch07-ex002

ID: 496@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.075Z

Question:
Which of the following molecules are oxidizing agents?
A:
<span data-math="\text{FAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{FAD}^{+} {\!}</span> and <span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+}">\text{NAD}^{+}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{FADH}">\text{FADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{FAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{FAD}^{+} {\!}</span> and <span data-math="\text{FADH}">\text{FADH}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span> and <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s01 apbio-ch07-s01-lo01 apbio-ch07-ex003

ID: 497@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.092Z

Question:
Which of the following reactions releases energy?
A:
<span data-math="\text{AMP} + \text{phosphate} \rightarrow \text{ADP} + \text{H}_2\text{O}">\text{AMP} + \text{phosphate} \rightarrow \text{ADP} + \text{H}_2\text{O}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{ADP} + \text{phosphate} \rightarrow \text{ATP} + \text{H}_2\text{O}">\text{ADP} + \text{phosphate} \rightarrow \text{ATP} + \text{H}_2\text{O}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{ATP} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{ADP} + \text{Phosphate}">\text{ATP} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{ADP} + \text{Phosphate}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{AMP} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{ATP} + \text{Phosphate}">\text{AMP} + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{ATP} + \text{Phosphate}</span>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s01 apbio-ch07-s01-lo02 apbio-ch07-ex004

ID: 498@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.103Z

Question:
Why is it beneficial for cells to use ATP rather than directly use the energy stored in the bonds of carbohydrates to power cellular reactions? What are the greatest drawbacks to harnessing energy from the bonds of several different compounds?
A:
ATP is readily available in the form of a single unit. The cell would need to tailor each reaction to each energy source if it harvested energy from different compounds.
B:
ATP energy cannot activate the ROS dependent stress response whereas food molecules are responsible for activating ROS.
C:
ATP is low in energy, but food molecules possess higher levels of energy that cells can use.
D:
ATP is readily available to cells, unlike compounds that have to first be phosphorylated in order to release their energy.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s01 apbio-ch07-s01-lo02 apbio-ch07-ex005

ID: 499@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.114Z

Question:
What role does $\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}$ play in redox reactions?
A:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span>, an oxidizing agent, can accept electrons and protons from organic molecules and get reduced to <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>.
B:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span>, a reducing agent, can donate its electrons and protons to organic molecules.
C:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span>, an oxidizing agent, can accept electrons and protons from inorganic molecules and get reduced to NADH.
D:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span>, a reducing agent, can donate its electrons and protons to inorganic molecules.

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ID: 500@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.120Z

Question:
This table has three headers: Organism, Temperature in degrees Celsius and Average respiration in ML O2 per gram per minute. At a temperature of 10 degrees, the first mouse has an average respiration of 0.0518. At a temperature of 25 degrees, the second mouse has an average respiration of 0.0321. At a temperature of 10 degrees, the first cricket has an average respiration of 0.0013. At a temperature of 25 degrees, the second cricket has an average respiration of 0.0038. During aerobic cellular respiration, oxygen gas is consumed at the same rate as carbon dioxide gas is being produced. In order to provide accurate volumetric measurements of oxygen gas consumption, the experimental setup should include which of the following?
A:
a substance that removes carbon dioxide gas
B:
a plant that will add oxygen to allow an animal to breathe
C:
a glucose reserve
D:
a substance that adds carbon dioxide gas

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s01 apbio-ch07-s01-aplo-2-5 apbio-ch07-ex007

ID: 501@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.136Z

Question:
This table has three headers: Organism, Temperature in degrees Celsius and Average respiration in ML O2 per gram per minute. At a temperature of 10 degrees, the first mouse has an average respiration of 0.0518. At a temperature of 25 degrees, the second mouse has an average respiration of 0.0321. At a temperature of 10 degrees, the first cricket has an average respiration of 0.0013. At a temperature of 25 degrees, the second cricket has an average respiration of 0.0038. According to the data, the crickets at $25^\circ\text{C}$ have greater oxygen consumption per gram of tissue than do the crickets at $10^\circ\text{C}$ . This trend in oxygen consumption is the opposite of that in mice. The difference in trends in oxygen consumption among crickets and mice is due to what?
A:
their difference in size
B:
their mode of nutrition
C:
their difference in metabolic heat production
D:
their mode of ATP production

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ID: 502@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.149Z

Question:
What is the general formula for cellular respiration and what roles do oxygen and carbon dioxide play in this process?
A:
<span data-math="\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}">\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}</span>, where glucose is oxidized to release carbon dioxide along with energy and oxygen is the final acceptor of electrons.
B:
<span data-math="\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{O}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}">\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{O}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}</span>, where glucose is reduced to release oxygen and water. This oxygen in turn accepts electrons from the electron transport chain to form water.
C:
<span data-math="\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{O}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 +">\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{O}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 +</span> energy, where glucose is reduced to release carbon dioxide with energy. Oxygen works as a reducing agent by donating electrons.
D:
<span data-math="\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{(CH}_2\text{O) n} + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{O}_2">\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{(CH}_2\text{O) n} + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{O}_2</span> where glucose is oxidized to release pyruvate and water. The oxygen formed acts as the final acceptor of electrons.

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ID: 503@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.166Z

Question:
ATP energy is needed for glycolysis. Explain how this ATP debt is paid off during the reaction.
A:
by phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate
B:
by oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
C:
by the formation of 3-phosphoglycerate
D:
by the formation of phosphoenolpyruvate

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ID: 504@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.187Z

Question:
During the second half of glycolysis, what occurs?
A:
ATP is used up.
B:
Fructose is split in two.
C:
ATP is produced.
D:
Glucose becomes fructose.

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ID: 505@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.204Z

Question:
GLUTs are integral membrane proteins that assist in the facilitated diffusion of glucose into and out of cells. What reaction in glycolysis prevents glucose from being transported back out of the cell?
A:
Hexokinase dephosphorylates glucose using ATP, creating a glucose molecules that can’t cross the hydrophilic portion of the plasma membrane.
B:
Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose using ADP, creating a glucose molecules that can’t cross the hydrophobic interior of the plasma membrane.
C:
Hexokinase dephosphorylates glucose using ADP, creating a glucose molecule that can’t cross the hydrophilic portion of the plasma membrane.
D:
Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose using ATP, creating a glucose molecule that can’t cross the hydrophobic interior of the plasma membrane.

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ID: 506@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.209Z

Question:
Nearly all organisms on earth carry out some form of glycolysis. How does this fact support or not support the assertion that glycolysis is one of the oldest metabolic pathways?
A:
Glycolysis is found in very primitive organisms and likely evolved early in the course of evolution.
B:
Glycolysis is present in nearly all organisms because it is an advanced and recently-evolved pathway.
C:
Glycolysis is absent in a few higher organisms. This contradicts the fact that it is one of the oldest metabolic pathways.
D:
Glycolysis is present in some organisms and absent in others. The mentioned fact may or may not support this assertion.

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ID: 507@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.230Z

Question:
Where in a cell will glycolysis take place in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A:
the cytosol
B:
the mitochondria
C:
the plasma membrane
D:
the nucleus

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ID: 508@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.246Z

Question:
A new species of obligate anaerobe, a bacterium, has been found that lives in hot, acidic conditions. While other pathways may also be present, which metabolic pathway is the most likely to be present in this species?
A:
aerobic respiration
B:
the citric acid cycle
C:
oxidative phosphorylation
D:
glycolysis

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ID: 509@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.251Z

Question:
Explain why mitochondria are considered the powerhouse of the cell.
A:
Glycolysis takes place in mitochondria which extract energy by glucose breakdown for cellular metabolism.
B:
Most of the ATP is produced in mitochondria by oxidative phosphorylation.
C:
All the pathways involved in ATP production take place in the mitochondria.
D:
The outer membrane of mitochondria is loaded with proteins involved in electron transfer and ATP synthesis.

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ID: 510@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.268Z

Question:
What is removed from pyruvate during its conversion into an acetyl group?
A:
oxygen
B:
ATP
C:
B vitamin
D:
carbon dioxide

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ID: 511@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.280Z

Question:
What do the electrons added to $\text{NAD}^+\!$ do?
A:
They become part of a fermentation pathway.
B:
They go to another pathway for ATP production.
C:
They energize the acetyl group in the citric acid cycle.
D:
They are converted to NADP.

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ID: 512@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.304Z

Question:
GTP or ATP is produced during the conversion of what?
A:
isocitrate into <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>-ketoglutarate
B:
succinyl-CoA into succinate
C:
fumarate into malate
D:
malate into oxaloacetate

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ID: 513@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.316Z

Question:
How many NADH molecules are produced on each turn of the citric acid cycle?
A:
one
B:
two
C:
three
D:
four

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ID: 514@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.329Z

Question:
What is the primary difference between a circular pathway and a linear pathway?
A:
The reactant and the product are the same in a circular pathway but different in a linear pathway.
B:
The circular pathway components get exhausted whereas those of the linear pathway do not and are continually regenerated.
C:
Circular pathways are not suited for amphibolic pathways whereas linear pathways are.
D:
Circular pathways contain a single chemical reaction that is repeated while linear pathways have multiple events.

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ID: 515@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.337Z

Question:
Cellular respiration breaks down glucose and releases carbon dioxide and water. Which steps in the oxidation of pyruvate produces carbon dioxide?
A:
Removal of a carboxyl group from pyruvate releases carbon dioxide. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex comes into play.
B:
Removal of an acetyl group from pyruvate releases carbon dioxide. The pyruvate decarboxylase complex comes into play.
C:
Removal of a carbonyl group from pyruvate releases carbon dioxide. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex comes into play.
D:
Removal of an acetyl group from pyruvate releases carbon dioxide. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex comes into play.

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ID: 516@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.348Z

Question:
Dinitrophenol (DNP) is an uncoupler that makes the inner mitochondrial membrane leak protons ( $\,\text{H}^+\!$ ). It was used until 1938 as a weight-loss drug. Why do you think this might be an effective weight-loss drug?
A:
DNP dissipates the proton gradient in the matrix, preventing the production of ATP. The body then increases its metabolic rate, leading to weight loss.
B:
DNP decreases the proton gradient in the inner mitochondrial space, leading to rapid consumption of acetyl-CoA, which causes weight loss.
C:
DNP blocks the movement of protons through the ATP synthase, halting ATP production. The stored energy dissipates as heat, causing weight loss.
D:
DNP uncouples the production of ATP by increasing the proton gradient in the matrix. The stored energy dissipates as heat, causing weight loss.

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ID: 517@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.364Z

Question:
Cyanide inhibits cytochrome c oxidase, a component of the electron transport chain. If cyanide poisoning occurs, would you expect the pH of the intermembrane space to increase or decrease? What effect would cyanide have on ATP synthesis?
A:
The proton concentration of the intermembrane space would decrease, stopping the production of ATP.
B:
The proton concentration of the intermembrane space would increase, leading to ATP formation.
C:
The hydrogen ion concentration of the intermembrane space would decrease, causing a high production of ATP.
D:
The proton concentration of the intermembrane space would increase, causing production of ATP in large amounts.

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ID: 518@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.386Z

Question:
What compound receives electrons from NADH?
A:
FMN
B:
ubiquinone
C:
cytochrome c1
D:
oxygen

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ID: 519@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.391Z

Question:
Chemiosmosis involves the movement of what? Where does it occur?
A:
electrons across the cell membrane
B:
hydrogen atoms across a mitochondrial membrane
C:
hydrogen ions across a mitochondrial membrane
D:
glucose through the cell membrane

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ID: 520@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.406Z

Question:
What is the function of an electron in the electron transport chain?
A:
to dephosphorylate ATP, producing ADP
B:
to power active transport pumps
C:
to reduce heme in complex III
D:
to oxidize oxygen

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ID: 521@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.417Z

Question:
What would be the outcome if hydrogen ions were able to diffuse through the mitochondrial membrane into the mitochondria without the need for integral membrane proteins?
A:
ATP would not be produced.
B:
Pyruvate would not be produced.
C:
Citric acid would not be produced.
D:
Carbon dioxide would not be produced.

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ID: 522@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.429Z

Question:
How do the roles of ubiquinone and cytochrome c differ from the other components of the electron transport chain?
A:
CoQ and cytochrome c are mobile electron carriers while NADH dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase are bound to the inner mitochondrial membrane.
B:
CoQ and cytochrome covalently bind electrons while NADH dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase are bound to the inner mitochondrial membrane.
C:
CoQ and cytochrome c are bound to the inner mitochondrial membrane while NADH dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase are mobile electron carriers.
D:
CoQ and cytochrome c covalently bind electrons while NADH dehydrogenase and succinate dehydrogenase are mobile electron carriers.

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ID: 523@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.440Z

Question:
What accounts for the different number of ATP molecules that are formed through cellular respiration?
A:
Transport of NADH from cytosol to mitochondria is an active process that decreases the number of ATP produced.
B:
The ATPs produced are utilized in the anaplerotic reactions that are used for the replenishment of the intermediates.
C:
Most of the ATP’s produced are rapidly used for the phosphorylation of certain compounds found in plants.
D:
A large number of ATP molecules are used in the detoxification of xenobiotic compounds produced during cellular respiration.

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ID: 524@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.459Z

Question:
This illustration shows the electron transport chain embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. The electron transport chain consists of four electron complexes. Complex 1 oxidizes NADH to NAD+ and simultaneously pumps a proton across the membrane to the inter membrane space. The two electrons released from NADH are shuttled to coenzyme Q, then to complex 3, to cytochrome c, to complex 4, then to molecular oxygen. In the process, two more protons are pumped across the membrane to the intermembrane space, and molecular oxygen is reduced to form water. Complex 2 removes two electrons from FADH2, thereby forming FAD. The electrons are shuttled to coenzyme Q, then to complex 3, cytochrome c, complex 1, and molecular oxygen as in the case of NADH oxidation. In the figure the inner mitochondrial membrane is labelled Structure X and cytochrome C is labelled Structure Z. What is Structure X in the graphic?
A:
the inner mitochondrial membrane
B:
the mitochondrial matrix
C:
a eukaryotic plasma membrane
D:
the cytosol

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short ap-test-prep apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s04 apbio-ch07-s04-aplo-2-4 apbio-ch07-ex033

ID: 525@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.472Z

Question:
This illustration shows the electron transport chain embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. The electron transport chain consists of four electron complexes. Complex 1 oxidizes NADH to NAD+ and simultaneously pumps a proton across the membrane to the inter membrane space. The two electrons released from NADH are shuttled to coenzyme Q, then to complex 3, to cytochrome c, to complex 4, then to molecular oxygen. In the process, two more protons are pumped across the membrane to the intermembrane space, and molecular oxygen is reduced to form water. Complex 2 removes two electrons from FADH2, thereby forming FAD. The electrons are shuttled to coenzyme Q, then to complex 3, cytochrome c, complex 1, and molecular oxygen as in the case of NADH oxidation. In the figure the inner mitochondrial membrane is labelled Structure X and cytochrome C is labelled Structure Z. What would be the most direct result of blocking structure Z in the graphic?
A:
Cytochrome c would not pass electrons from complex III to complex IV.
B:
Ubiquinone would not pass electrons from complex III to complex IV.
C:
<span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> would not be converted to <span data-math="\text{NAD}_+">\text{NAD}_+</span> and the electron transport chain will stop.
D:
No protons would be pumped across the membrane.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s04 apbio-ch07-s04-aplo-2-4 apbio-ch07-ex034

ID: 526@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.483Z

Question:
Explain how the formation of $\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}$ differs between aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
A:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span> is formed in aerobic respiration by a fermentation process and formed in anaerobic respiration by oxidation of <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>.
B:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span> is formed by a fermentation process in anaerobic respiration by the conversion of pyruvate into lactate and by simple oxidation of <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> in aerobic respiration.
C:
Under aerobic conditions the electron acceptor is a molecule other than oxygen for <span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span> production whereas under anaerobic conditions the electron acceptor is oxygen.
D:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span> is formed by the breakdown of pyruvate to form oxaloacetate in anaerobic respiration whereas in aerobic respiration it is formed by the breakdown of pyruvate into lactic acid or alcohol.

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ID: 527@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.490Z

Question:
Tremetol, a metabolic poison found in the white snake root plant, prevents the metabolism of lactate. When cows eat this plant, it is concentrated in the milk they produce. Humans who consume the milk become ill. Symptoms of this disease, which include vomiting, abdominal pain, and tremors, become worse after exercise. Why do you think this is the case?
A:
Tremetol inhibits enzymes that convert lactate into less harmful compounds. Exercise worsens this by producing more lactate.
B:
Tremetol increases the production of lactate dehydrogenase, causing lactic acid to accumulate in the body.
C:
Tremetol inhibits the production of <span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span> after exercise. The lack of oxygen causes lactic acid to accumulate in the body.
D:
Tremetol binds to lactic acid, inhibiting its breakdown into other compounds and causing it to accumulate after exercising.

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ID: 528@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.510Z

Question:
Which of the following fermentation methods can occur in animal skeletal muscles?
A:
lactic acid fermentation
B:
alcohol fermentation
C:
mixed acid fermentation
D:
propionic fermentation

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apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s05 apbio-ch07-s05-lo01 apbio-ch07-ex037

ID: 529@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.516Z

Question:
Which molecules are produced in glycolysis and used in fermentation?
A:
acetyl-CoA and NADH
B:
lactate, ATP, and <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>
C:
glucose, <span data-math="\text{ATP}">\text{ATP}</span>, and <span data-math="\text{NAD}^+">\text{NAD}^+</span>
D:
pyruvate and <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>

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ID: 530@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.528Z

Question:
What is the primary difference between fermentation and anaerobic respiration?
A:
Fermentation uses only glycolysis and its final electron acceptor is an organic molecule, whereas anaerobic respiration uses glycolysis, TCA and the ETC but finally give electrons to an inorganic molecule.
B:
Fermentation uses glycolysis, TCA and ETC but finally gives electrons to an inorganic molecule, whereas anaerobic respiration uses only glycolysis and its final electron acceptor is an organic molecule.
C:
Fermentation uses glycolysis and its final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule, whereas anaerobic respiration uses glycolysis, TCA and ETC but finally give electrons to an organic molecule.
D:
Fermentation uses glycolysis, TCA and ETC but finally gives electrons to an organic molecule, whereas anaerobic respiration uses only glycolysis and its final electron acceptor is an inorganic molecule.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s05 apbio-ch07-s05-lo01 apbio-ch07-ex039

ID: 531@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.549Z

Question:
According to the Evolution Connection passage, in what order did the metabolic pathways evolve?
A:
<ol> <li>anoxygenic photosynthesis</li> <li>glycolysis</li> <li>oxygenic photosynthesis</li> <li>citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>glycolysis</li> <li>citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation</li> <li>anoxygenic photosynthesis</li> <li>oxygenic photosynthesis</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>anoxygenic photosynthesis</li> <li>oxygenic photosynthesis</li> <li>glycolysis</li> <li>citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>glycolysis</li> <li>anoxygenic photosynthesis</li> <li>oxygenic photosynthesis</li> <li>citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation</li> </ol>

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ID: 532@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.560Z

Question:
In the first step of glycolysis, what is glucose transformed into?
A:
glucose-6-phosphate
B:
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
C:
dihydroxyacetone phosphate
D:
phosphoenolpyruvate

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ID: 533@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.566Z

Question:
What is beta-oxidation?
A:
the breakdown of glucose
B:
the assembly of glucose
C:
the breakdown of fatty acids
D:
the removal of amino groups from amino acids

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ID: 534@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.583Z

Question:
Would you describe metabolic pathways as inherently wasteful or inherently economical, and why?
A:
Metabolic pathways are economical due to feedback inhibition. Also, intermediates from one pathway can be utilized by other pathways.
B:
Metabolic pathways are wasteful as they perform uncoordinated catabolic and anabolic reactions that wastes some of the energy that is stored.
C:
Metabolic pathways are economical due to the presence of anaplerotic reactions that replenish the intermediates.
D:
Metabolic pathways are wasteful as most of the energy produced is utilized in maintaining the reduced environment of the cytosol.

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ID: 535@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.588Z

Question:
Glucose catabolism pathways are sequential and lead to the production of energy. What is the correct order of the pathways for the breakdown of a molecule of glucose as shown in the formula: $\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6 + \text{O}_2 \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{energy}$
A:
oxidative phosphorylation <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> citric acid cycle <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> oxidation of pyruvate <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> glycolysis
B:
oxidation of pyruvate <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> citric acid cycle <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> glycolysis <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> oxidative phosphorylation
C:
glycolysis <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> oxidation of pyruvate <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> citric acid cycle <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> oxidative phosphorylation
D:
citric acid cycle <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> glycolysis <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> oxidative phosphorylation <span data-math="\rightarrow">\rightarrow</span> oxidation of pyruvate

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ID: 536@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.599Z

Question:
Which of the following statements most directly supports the claim that different species of organisms use different metabolic strategies to meet their energy requirements for growth, reproduction, and homeostasis?
A:
During cold periods, pond-dwelling animals can increase the number of unsaturated fatty acids in their cell membranes while some plants make antifreeze proteins to prevent ice crystal formation in their tissues.
B:
Bacteria lack introns while many eukaryotic genes contain many of these intervening sequences.
C:
Carnivores have more teeth that are specialized for ripping food while herbivores have more teeth specialized for grinding food.
D:
Plants generally use starch molecules for storage while animals use glycogen and fats for storage.

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ID: 537@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.616Z

Question:
Describe the formation and the importance of the hydrogen ion gradient during the electron transport chain.
A:
Hydrogen ion gradient across the membrane establishes concentration gradient and not electrical gradient, thus assisting during the electron transport chain.
B:
Hydrogen ion gradient is established by pumping two hydrogen ions across the membrane from the matrix in the intermembrane space. Its uneven distribution across the membrane establishes both concentration and electrical gradients.
C:
A hydrogen ion gradient is established by pumping four hydrogen ions across the membrane from the matrix into the intermembrane space and its uneven distribution across the membrane establishes concentration and electrical gradients.
D:
Hydrogen ions are present in the intermembrane space from the beginning and results in the formation of gradients necessary for the function of ATP synthase.

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ID: 538@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.634Z

Question:
What impact, if any, do high levels of ADP have on glycolysis?
A:
They increase the activity of enzymes involved with glycolysis.
B:
The high levels decrease the activity of enzymes involved with glycolysis.
C:
They have no effect on the activity of any enzymes involved with glycolysis.
D:
The high levels slow down all pathways involved with glycolysis.

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ID: 539@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.645Z

Question:
The control of which enzyme exerts the greatest control of glycolysis?
A:
hexokinase
B:
phosphofructokinase
C:
glucose-6-phosphatase
D:
aldolase

Tags:

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ID: 540@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.656Z

Question:
How does citrate from the citric acid cycle affect glycolysis?
A:
Citrate and ATP are negative regulators of phosphofructokinase-1.
B:
Citrate and ATP are negative regulators of hexokinase.
C:
Citrate and ATP are positive regulators of phosphofructokinase-1.
D:
Citrate and ATP are positive regulators of hexokinase.

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ID: 541@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.662Z

Question:
In the following general reaction, explain how electrons are transferred and the role of each species. $\text{RH} + \text{NAD}^{+} {\!} \rightarrow \text{NADH} + \text{R}$
A:
<span data-math="\text{RH}">\text{RH}</span> acts as a reducing agent and donates its electrons to the oxidizing agent <span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span>, forming <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{R}">\text{R}</span>.
B:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span>, the oxidizing agent, donates its electrons to the reducing agent <span data-math="\text{RH}">\text{RH}</span>, forming <span data-math="\text{R}">\text{R}</span> and <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>.
C:
<span data-math="\text{RH}">\text{RH}</span> acts as an oxidizing agent and donates electrons to the reducing agent <span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span>, producing <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{R}">\text{R}</span>.
D:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}">\text{NAD}^{+} {\!}</span>, the reducing agent, accepts electrons from the oxidizing agent <span data-math="\text{RH}">\text{RH}</span>, producing <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{R}">\text{R}</span>.

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ID: 542@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.678Z

Question:
Explain what process is taking place in the following general reaction: $% $
A:
Phosphorylation of substrate <span data-math="A">A</span> harvests energy to produce substrate <span data-math="B">B</span>, ADP, and inorganic phosphate.
B:
Phosphorylation of substrate <span data-math="B">B</span> using ATP and an enzyme produces the phosphate-containing substrate <span data-math="B">B</span>, ADP, and inorganic phosphate.
C:
Dephosphorylation of substrate <span data-math="A">A</span> using an enzyme and ATP produces substrate <span data-math="B">B</span>, ADP, and a phosphate ion.
D:
Dephosphorylation of substrate <span data-math="B">B</span> using phosphatase enzymes produces dephosphorylated substrate <span data-math="B">B</span>, ADP, and a phosphate ion.

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ID: 543@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.689Z

Question:
Which of the following molecules shuttle electrons from one substance to another during cellular respiration?
A:
FAD and ATP
B:
NAD and ATP
C:
NAD and FAD
D:
ATP and ADP

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ID: 544@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.699Z

Question:
What is the oxidizing agent in the following general reaction? $\text{RH} + \text{NAD}^{+} {\!} \rightarrow \text{NADH} + \text{R}$
A:
<span data-math="\text{RH}">\text{RH}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^+">\text{NAD}^+</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{R}">\text{R}</span>

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ID: 545@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.710Z

Question:
What biochemical process generates the most ATP during the breakdown of glucose?
A:
oxidative phosphorylation
B:
substrate-level phosphorylation
C:
dephosphorylation of ATP
D:
hydrolysis of ATP

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ID: 546@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.726Z

Question:
A molecular diagram shows an ATP molecule composed of adenosine and 3 phosphates. H 2 O is added, which results in an adenosine diphosphate, adenosine attached to 2 phosphates, and a detached inorganic phosphate. What reaction is illustrated in the graphic?
A:
AMP hydrolysis
B:
ADP hydrolysis
C:
ATP hydrolysis
D:
ATP phosphorylation

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ID: 547@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.746Z

Question:
What evidence provides the strongest support that glycolysis is an older and more conserved pathway than the citric acid cycle?
A:
Glycolysis is the primitive pathway as it is found in all three domains. It also occurs in anaerobic conditions and in the cytosol.
B:
This pathway occurs in the cytosol, is found in all animals and plants, and does not require oxygen.
C:
Glycolysis takes place in anaerobic conditions, can metabolize cholesterol and fatty acids, and occurs even in methanogens.
D:
This pathway only occurs in the mitochondria. It is highly flexible because it is found in almost all organisms.

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ID: 548@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.757Z

Question:
Red blood cells (RBCs) do not perform aerobic respiration, but they do perform glycolysis. Why do all cells need an energy source and what would happen if glycolysis were blocked in a red blood cell?
A:
Cells require energy to perform certain basic functions. Blocking glycolysis in RBCs causes imbalance in the membrane potential, leading to cell death.
B:
Cells need energy to perform cell division. Blocking glycolysis in RBCs interrupts the process of mitosis leading to nondisjunction.
C:
Cells maintain the influx and efflux of organic substances using energy. Blocking glycolysis stops the binding of <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> to the RBCs, causing cell death.
D:
Cells require energy to recognize attacking pathogens. Blocked glycolysis inhibits the process of recognition, causing invasion of the RBCs by a pathogen.

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ID: 549@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.768Z

Question:
How many ATP molecules are used and produced per molecule of glucose during glycolysis?
A:
The first half of glycolysis uses 2 ATPs, and the second half of glycolysis produces 4 ATPs.
B:
The first half of glycolysis produces 2 ATPs, and the second half of glycolysis uses 4 ATPs.
C:
The first half of glycolysis uses 4 ATPs, and the second half of glycolysis produces 2 ATPs.
D:
The first half of glycolysis produces 4 ATPS, and the second half of glycolysis uses 2 ATPs.

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ID: 550@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.774Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about glycolysis is true?
A:
The preparatory stage of glycolysis extracts energy and stores it in the form of ATP and NADH.
B:
Glycolysis ends with the production of three molecules of pyruvate.
C:
Glycolysis takes place only in eukaryotes.
D:
Glycolysis is anaerobic.

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ID: 551@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.785Z

Question:
What three steps are included in the breakdown of pyruvate?
A:
Pyruvate dehydrogenase removes a carboxyl group from pyruvate producing carbon dioxide. Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase oxidizes a hydroxyethyl group to an acetyl group, producing NADH. Lastly, an enzyme-bound acetyl group is transferred to CoA, producing a molecule of acetyl-CoA.
B:
Pyruvate dehydrogenase oxidizes hydroxyethyl group to an acetyl group, producing NADH. It further removes a carboxyl group from pyruvate producing carbon dioxide. Lastly, dihydrolipoyl transacetylase transfers enzyme-bound acetyl group to CoA forming an acetyl-CoA molecule.
C:
Pyruvate dehydrogenase transfers enzyme-bound acetyl group to CoA forming an acetyl CoA molecule. It then oxidizes a hydroxyethyl group to an acetyl group, producing NADH. Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase removes a carboxyl group from pyruvate producing carbon dioxide.
D:
Pyruvate dehydrogenase removes carboxyl group from pyruvate producing carbon dioxide. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase transfers enzyme-bound acetyl groups to CoA forming an acetyl-CoA molecule. Lastly, a hydroxyethyl group is oxidized to an acetyl group, producing NADH.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s03 apbio-ch07-s03-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot011

ID: 552@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.796Z

Question:
Is the citric acid cycle considered an aerobic or an anaerobic pathway? Why?
A:
It is aerobic, as it uses oxygen as the final acceptor of electrons passing through the electron transport chain.
B:
It is anaerobic, as it does not use oxygen directly. Even if oxygen is absent, the citric acid cycle would still work.
C:
It is aerobic, as it uses the water produced in the process of respiration. This water is produced when oxygen accepts electrons.
D:
It is anaerobic, as it is a part of the fermentation process which does not require oxygen as a final electron acceptor.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s03 apbio-ch07-s03-lo02 apbio-ch07-ot012

ID: 553@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.817Z

Question:
In eukaryotic cells, pyruvate molecules produced at the end of glycolysis are transported into what?
A:
extracellular space
B:
plasma membrane
C:
mitochondria
D:
cytoplasm

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ID: 554@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.824Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about the breakdown of pyruvate is false?
A:
A carboxyl group is removed from pyruvate in the first step.
B:
A carboxyl group is transferred to coenzyme <span data-math="A">A</span> in the third step.
C:
Electrons are picked up by <span data-math="\text{NAD}^+\!">\text{NAD}^+\!</span>, forming <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> in the third step.
D:
In the presence of oxygen, oxaloacetate combines with an acetyl group to form citrate.

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ID: 555@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.835Z

Question:
In Eukaryotes, where does the citric acid cycle take place?
A:
extracellular space
B:
cytoplasm
C:
plasma membrane
D:
mitochondria

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ID: 556@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.942Z

Question:
What are the products of one cycle of the citric acid cycle?
A:
two <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>, one <span data-math="\text{GTP/ATP}">\text{GTP/ATP}</span>, <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>, and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span>
B:
two <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>, two <span data-math="\text{ATP]">\text{ATP]</span>, pyruvate, and <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>
C:
acetyl-CoA, one <span data-math="\text{GTP/ATP}">\text{GTP/ATP}</span>, <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>, and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span>
D:
pyruvate, two <span data-math="\text{ATP}">\text{ATP}</span>, and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span>

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ID: 557@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.958Z

Question:
This illustration shows the electron transport chain embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. The electron transport chain consists of four electron complexes. Complex 1 oxidizes NADH to NAD+ and simultaneously pumps a proton across the membrane to the inter membrane space. The two electrons released from NADH are shuttled to coenzyme Q, then to complex 3, to cytochrome c, to complex 4, then to molecular oxygen. In the process, two more protons are pumped across the membrane to the intermembrane space, and molecular oxygen is reduced to form water. Complex 2 removes two electrons from FADH2, thereby forming FAD. The electrons are shuttled to coenzyme Q, then to complex 3, cytochrome c, complex 1, and molecular oxygen as in the case of NADH oxidation. In the figure the inner mitochondrial membrane is labelled Structure X and cytochrome C is labelled Structure Z. Where do the electrons moving along the membrane in the figure come from, and where do the electrons end up?
A:
The electrons are released by <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span> and finally accepted by oxygen to form water.
B:
The electrons are given off by water and finally accepted by <span data-math="\text{NAD}^+\!">\text{NAD}^+\!</span> and <span data-math="\text{FAD}^+\!">\text{FAD}^+\!</span> to produce the energy currencies <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span>.
C:
The electrons are emitted by ubiquinone that are, in turn, transferred from complex I to complex II. Water finally accepts the electrons.
D:
The electrons are given out by <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span> and are, in turn, finally accepted by <span data-math="\text{H}_2\text{O}">\text{H}_2\text{O}</span>.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s04 apbio-ch07-s04-aplo-2-4 apbio-ch07-ot017

ID: 558@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.969Z

Question:
Which of the following best describes complex IV in the electron transport chain?
A:
Complex IV consists of an oxygen molecule held between the cytochrome and copper ions. The electrons flowing finally reach the oxygen, producing water.
B:
Complex IV contains a molecule of flavin mononucleotide and iron-sulfur clusters. The electrons from NADH are transported here to coenzyme Q.
C:
Complex IV contains cytochrome b, c and Fe-S. Here, the proton motive Q cycle takes place.
D:
Complex IV contains a membrane-bound enzyme that accepts electrons from <span data-math="\text{FADH}">\text{FADH}</span> to make <span data-math="\text{FAD}^+">\text{FAD}^+</span>. This electron is then transferred to ubiquinone.

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ID: 559@1

2015-08-20T13:03:38.992Z

Question:
Dinitrophenol is a compound that can directly shuttle protons across biological membranes. What effect would this drug have on energy generation?
A:
It dissipiates the electrochemical proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane, hindering ATP production.
B:
It binds to ATP synthase and accelerates ATP production.
C:
It restricts the movement of protons across the membrane, thereby allowing more ATP to be produced.
D:
It binds to integral membrane proteins, blocking ATP production and dissipating the energy built up from the electron transport chain as heat.

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apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s04 apbio-ch07-s04-lo02 apbio-ch07-ot019

ID: 560@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.003Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?
A:
<span data-math="\text{H}^+\!">\text{H}^+\!</span> is pumped into the mitochondrial matrix.
B:
<span data-math="\text{FAD}^+\!">\text{FAD}^+\!</span> is reduced to <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span>.
C:
<span data-math="\text{NAD}^+\!">\text{NAD}^+\!</span> is reduced to NADH.
D:
Oxygen is reduced to form water.

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ID: 561@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.018Z

Question:
What would be the outcome if ubiquinone in the electron transport chain was blocked and could not function?
A:
Complex I would not receive electrons.
B:
Complex II would not receive electrons.
C:
Complex III would not receive electrons.
D:
Protons would not be pumped into the mitochondrial intermembrane space.

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ID: 562@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.024Z

Question:
Which of the following best describes the $\text{H}^+\!$ gradient that exists across the mitochondrial membrane?
A:
concentration gradient
B:
electrical gradient
C:
electrochemical gradient
D:
no difference in concentration across the membrane

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ID: 563@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.046Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about chemiosmosis is false?
A:
Free energy from redox reactions is used to pump protons across a membrane.
B:
The integral membrane protein cytochrome synthase produces ATP.
C:
Chemiosmosis generates 90% of the ATP made during aerobic glucose catabolism.
D:
Chemiosmosis depends upon a concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

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apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s04 apbio-ch07-s04-lo02 apbio-ch07-ot023

ID: 564@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.052Z

Question:
What type of cellular respiration is represented in the following equation, and why? $\text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2 + \text{NADH} \rightarrow \text{CH}_4 + \text{H}_2\text{O} + \text{NAD}^+$
A:
Anaerobic respiration, because the final electron acceptor is inorganic.
B:
Aerobic respiration, because oxygen is the final electron acceptor.
C:
Anaerobic respiration, because NADH donates its electrons to a methane molecule.
D:
Aerobic respiration, because water is being produced as a product.

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apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s05 apbio-ch07-s05-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot024

ID: 565@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.068Z

Question:
What are the products of alcohol fermentation?
A:
methane and <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>
B:
lactic acid and <span data-math="\text{FAD}^+">\text{FAD}^+</span>
C:
ethanol and <span data-math="\text{NAD}^+">\text{NAD}^+</span>
D:
pyruvic acid and <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span>

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s05 apbio-ch07-s05-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot025

ID: 566@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.083Z

Question:
What is compound $\text{X}$ in the following reaction? $\text{X} + \text{NADH} \rightarrow \text{lactic acid} + \text{NAD}^+$
A:
lactate dehydrogenase
B:
pyruvic acid
C:
acetaldehyde
D:
ethanol

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ID: 567@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.088Z

Question:
Which of the following best describes how the citric acid cycle relates to glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, and chemiosmosis?
A:
Glycolysis produces pyruvate, which is converted to acetyl-CoA and enters the citric acid cycle. This cycle produces <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span>, which donate electrons to the electron transport chain to pump protons and produce <span data-math="\text{ATP}">\text{ATP}</span> through chemiosmosis. Production of <span data-math="\text{ATP}">\text{ATP}</span> using an electron transport chain and chemiosmosis is called oxidative phosphorylation.
B:
Citric acid produces pyruvate, which converts to glucose to enter glycolysis. This pathway produces <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span>, which enter oxidative phosphorylation to produce <span data-math="\text{ATP}">\text{ATP}</span> through chemiosmosis.
C:
Citric acid produces <span data-math="\text{NADH}">\text{NADH}</span> and <span data-math="\text{FADH}_2">\text{FADH}_2</span>, which undergo oxidative phosphorylation. This produces <span data-math="\text{ATP}">\text{ATP}</span> by pumping protons through chemiosmosis. The <span data-math="\text{ATP}">\text{ATP}</span> produced is utilized in large amount in the process of glycolysis.
D:
Glycolysis produces pyruvate, which directly enters the citric acid cycle. This cycle produces the energy currency that undergoes the electron transport chain to produce water and ATP.

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apbio ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc time-long dok4 ap-test-prep blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s06 apbio-ch07-s06-aplo-2-2 apbio-ch07-ot027

ID: 568@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.104Z

Question:
What lipids are connected to glucose catabolism pathways and how are they connected?
A:
Cholesterol and triglycerides can be converted to glycerol-6-phosphate that continues through glycolysis.
B:
Glucagon and glycogen can be converted to 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde that is an intermediate of glycolysis.
C:
Chylomicrons and fatty acids get converted to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate that continues in glycolysis, forming pyruvate.
D:
Sphingolipids and triglycerides form glucagon that can be fed into glycolysis.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s06 apbio-ch07-s06-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot028

ID: 569@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.124Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about glucose metabolism is true?
A:
Glucose metabolism does not use ATP.
B:
Glucose metabolism uses more ATP than it creates.
C:
Glycogen is broken down into pyruvate when blood sugar levels are low.
D:
Excess glucose can be sent to the liver and converted to glycogen for storage.

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apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s06 apbio-ch07-s06-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot029

ID: 570@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.130Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about catabolic pathways is false?
A:
Carbohydrates can feed into oxidative phosphorylation.
B:
Glycerol can be broken down into glucose and feed into glycolysis.
C:
Amino acids can feed into pyruvate oxidation.
D:
Fatty acids can feed into the citric acid cycle.

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apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s06 apbio-ch07-s06-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot030

ID: 571@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.151Z

Question:
Why might negative feedback mechanisms be more common than positive feedback mechanisms in living cells?
A:
Negative feedback mechanisms maintain homeostasis whereas positive feedback drives the system away from equilibrium.
B:
Positive feedback mechanisms maintain a balanced amount of substances whereas negative feedback restricts them.
C:
Negative feedback turns the system off, making it deficient of certain substances. Positive feedback balances out these deficits.
D:
Positive feedback brings substance amounts back to equilibrium while negative feedback produces excess amounts of the substance.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s07 apbio-ch07-s07-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot031

ID: 572@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.157Z

Question:
Which of the following does not occur as ATP concentration increases relative to ADP?
A:
decreased activity of phosphofructokinase
B:
increased activity of pyruvate kinase
C:
decreased activity of isocitrate dehydrogenase
D:
slowdown of the electron transport chain

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apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s07 apbio-ch07-s07-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot032

ID: 573@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.173Z

Question:
What happens when hexokinase is inhibited?
A:
Pyruvate levels increase.
B:
Glucose diffuses out of the cell.
C:
Glucose-6-phosphate accumulates in the cell.
D:
Phosphofructokinase activity increases.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch07 apbio-ch07-s07 apbio-ch07-s07-lo01 apbio-ch07-ot033

ID: 574@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.195Z

Question:
On a hot, dry day, plants close their stomata to conserve water. What impact will this have on photosynthesis?
A:
Rate of photosynthesis will be inhibited as the level of carbon dioxide decreases.
B:
Rate of photosynthesis will be inhibited as the level of oxygen decreases.
C:
The rate of photosynthesis will increase as the level of carbon dioxide increases.
D:
Rate of photosynthesis will increase as the level of oxygen increases.

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ID: 575@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.202Z

Question:
Explain how the light and the dark stages of photosynthesis are interdependent on each other.
A:
The light stage produces NADPH and ATP which are utilized in the dark stage.
B:
The light stage produces <span data-math="\text{NADP}^+">\text{NADP}^+</span> and ADP which are utilized in the dark stage.
C:
The light stage utilizes NADPH and ATP which is produced by the dark stage.
D:
The light stage utilizes only NADPH which is produced by the dark stage.

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ID: 576@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.223Z

Question:
Where would photosynthetic organisms likely be placed on a food web within most ecosystems?
A:
at the base
B:
near the top
C:
in the middle, but generally closer to the top
D:
in the middle, but generally closer to the base

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 ap-everyday apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo01 apbio-ch08-ex003

ID: 577@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.232Z

Question:
Which of the following components is not used by both plants and cyanobacteria to carry out photosynthesis?
A:
carbon dioxide
B:
chlorophyll
C:
chloroplasts
D:
water

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ID: 578@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.244Z

Question:
Why are chemoautotrophs not considered the same as photoautotrophs if they both extract energy and make sugars?
A:
Chemoautotrophs use wavelengths of light not available to photoautotrophs.
B:
Chemoautotrophs extract energy from inorganic chemical compounds.
C:
Photoautotrophs prefer the blue side of the visible light spectrum.
D:
Photoautotrophs make glucose, while chemoautotrophs make galactose.

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ID: 579@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.260Z

Question:
In which compartment of the plant cell do the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis take place?
A:
mesophyll
B:
outer membrane
C:
stroma
D:
thylakoid

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ID: 580@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.281Z

Question:
What is a part of grana?
A:
the Calvin cycle
B:
the inner membrane
C:
stroma
D:
thylakoids

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo02 apbio-ch08-ex007

ID: 581@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.292Z

Question:
What two main products result from photosynthesis?
A:
chlorophyll and oxygen
B:
oxygen and carbon dioxide
C:
sugars/carbohydrates and oxygen
D:
sugars/carbohydrates and carbon dioxide

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo03 apbio-ch08-ex008

ID: 582@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.308Z

Question:
What is the primary energy source for cells?
A:
glucose
B:
starch
C:
sucrose
D:
triglycerides

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo03 apbio-ch08-ex009

ID: 583@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.314Z

Question:
What are the roles of ATP and NADPH in photosynthesis?
A:
ATP and NADPH are forms of chemical energy produced from the light dependent reactions to be used in the light independent reactions that produce sugars.
B:
ATP and NADPH are forms of chemical energy produced from the light independent reactions, to be used in the light dependent reactions that produce sugars.
C:
ATP and NADPH are forms of chemical energy produced from the light dependent reactions to be used in the light independent reactions that produce proteins.
D:
ATP and NADPH are forms of chemical energy produced from the light dependent reactions to be used in the light independent reactions that use sugars as reactants.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo01 apbio-ch08-ex010

ID: 584@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.331Z

Question:
What is the overall outcome of the light reactions in photosynthesis?
A:
NADPH and ATP molecules are produced during the light reactions and are used to power the light independent reactions.
B:
NADPH and ATP molecules are produced during the light reactions, which are used to power the light dependent reactions.
C:
Sugar and ATP are produced during the light reactions, which are used to power the light independent reactions.
D:
Carbon dioxide and NADPH are produced during the light reactions, which are used to power the light dependent reactions.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo02 apbio-ch08-ex011

ID: 585@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.336Z

Question:
The photosynthesis equation is shown. According to this equation, six carbon dioxide and six water molecules produce one sugar molecule and six oxygen molecules. The sugar molecule is made of six carbons, twelve hydrogens, and six oxygens. Sunlight is used as an energy source. How does the equation relate to both photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
A:
Photosynthesis utilizes energy to build carbohydrates while cellular respiration metabolizes carbohydrates.
B:
Photosynthesis utilizes energy to metabolize carbohydrates while cellular respiration builds carbohydrates.
C:
Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both utilize carbon dioxide and water to produce carbohydrates.
D:
Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both metabolize carbohydrates to produce carbon dioxide and water.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo03 apbio-ch08-ex012

ID: 586@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.357Z

Question:
Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are found throughout the eukaryotic world. They are complementary to each other because they each use products of the other process. What do the two pathways share?
A:
chloroplasts and mitochondria
B:
Photosystems I and II
C:
the cytochrome complex
D:
thylakoids

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch08-ex013

ID: 587@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.362Z

Question:
What evidence exists that evolution of photosynthesis and cellular respiration support the concept that there is a common ancestry for all organisms?
A:
All organisms perform cellular respiration, using oxygen and glucose, which are produced by photosynthesis.
B:
All organisms perform cellular respiration using carbon dioxide and glucose, which are produced by photosynthesis.
C:
All organisms perform cellular respiration using oxygen and lipids, which are produced by photosynthesis.
D:
All organisms perform cellular respiration using carbon dioxide and lipids, which are produced by photosynthesis.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch08-ex014

ID: 588@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.383Z

Question:
A chloroplast is shown. Letter A points to the outermost surface of the chloroplast. Letter E points to the inner covering directly underneath the outermost surface. Letter C points to a stack of green, flattened disks. Letter B points to the space surrounding the green stacks of flattened disks. Letter D points to a single disk within one of the stacks of flattened disks. Correctly label the indicated parts of a chloroplast.
A:
A. stroma, B. outer membrane, C. granum, D. thylakoid, E. inner membrane
B:
A. outer membrane, B. stroma,C. granum, D. thylakoid, E. inner membrane
C:
A. outer membrane, B. stroma, C. granum, D. inner membrane, E. thylakoid
D:
A. stroma, B. outer membrane, C. inner membrane, D. granum, E. thylakoid

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-aplo-2-4 apbio-ch08-ex015

ID: 589@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.398Z

Question:
What cellular features and processes are similar in both photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
A:
Both processes are contained in organelles with single membranes, both use a version of the cytochrome complex, and both use or produce water.
B:
Both processes are contained in organelles with double membranes, both use a version of the cytochrome complex and both produce water.
C:
Both processes are contained in organelles with double membranes, use a version of the cytochrome complex, and both use or produce water.
D:
Both processes are contained in organelles with double membranes, use a version of the cytochrome complex, and both use water.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo02 apbio-ch08-s01-aplo-2-4 apbio-ch08-ex016

ID: 590@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.410Z

Question:
What is the source of electrons for the chloroplast electron transport chain?
A:
carbon dioxide
B:
NADPH
C:
oxygen
D:
water

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-aplo-4-6 apbio-ch08-ex017

ID: 591@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.416Z

Question:
What role do electrons play in the formation of NADPH?
A:
Electrons from PS I cause the reduction of NADPH to <span data-math="\text{NADP}^+\!">\text{NADP}^+\!</span>.
B:
Electrons from PSII cause the reduction of <span data-math="\text{NADP}^+">\text{NADP}^+</span> to NADPH.
C:
Electrons from PS I cause the reduction of <span data-math="\text{NADP}^+\!">\text{NADP}^+\!</span> to NADPH.
D:
Electrons are gained which causes the oxidation of <span data-math="\text{NADP}^+\!">\text{NADP}^+\!</span>.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo02 apbio-ch08-ex018

ID: 592@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.438Z

Question:
This figure shows a cross section of a leaf. Label 1 points to the thin, topmost layer of the leaf. Label 2 points to the solid, single row of brick-shaped cells directly under the topmost layer. Label 3 points to the next layer from the top, which is a set of loosely-packed, brick-shaped cells. Label 4 points to the third layer from the bottom of the leaf, which contains loosely-packed oval shaped cells. Label 5 points to the second layer from the bottom, which is a single row of brick-shaped cells. Label 6 points to an opening between the brick shaped cells that opens to the external environment. Label 7 points to the two cells that surround the opening. If the stomata were sealed, what would happen to oxygen ( $\text{O}_2$ ) and carbon dioxide ( $\text{CO}_2$ ) levels in a photosynthesizing leaf?
A:
<span data-math="\text{O}_2">\text{O}_2</span> levels would increase and <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> levels would decrease.
B:
<span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> levels would increase and <span data-math="\text{O}_2">\text{O}_2</span> levels would decrease.
C:
<span data-math="\text{O}_2">\text{O}_2</span> and <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> levels would both decrease.
D:
<span data-math="\text{O}_2">\text{O}_2</span> and <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> levels would both increase.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 ap-everyday apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo02 apbio-ch08-ex019

ID: 593@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.444Z

Question:
Which portion of the electro-magnetic radiation originating from the sun is harmful to living tissues?
A:
blue
B:
green
C:
infrared
D:
ultraviolet

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo01 apbio-ch08-ex020

ID: 594@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.466Z

Question:
The amount of energy in a wave can be measured using what trait?
A:
color intensity
B:
distance from trough to crest
C:
the amount of sugar produced
D:
wavelength

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo01 apbio-ch08-ex021

ID: 595@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.478Z

Question:
What portion of the electro-magnetic radiation emitted by the sun has the least energy?
A:
gamma
B:
infrared
C:
radio
D:
X-rays

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo02 apbio-ch08-ex022

ID: 596@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.489Z

Question:
What is the function of carotenoids in photosynthesis?
A:
They supplement chlorophyll absorption.
B:
They are visible in the fall during leaf color changes.
C:
They absorb excess energy and dissipate it as heat.
D:
They limit chlorophyll absorption.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo02 apbio-ch08-ex023

ID: 597@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.495Z

Question:
Which of the following structures is not a component of a photosystem?
A:
antenna molecule
B:
ATP synthase
C:
primary electron acceptor
D:
reaction center

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo03 apbio-ch08-ex024

ID: 598@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.510Z

Question:
Which complex is not involved in producing the electromotive force of ATP synthesis?
A:
ATP synthase
B:
cytochrome complex
C:
Photosystem I
D:
Photosystem II

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo03 apbio-ch08-ex025

ID: 599@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.530Z

Question:
Explain why X-rays and ultraviolet light wavelengths are dangerous to living tissues.
A:
UV and X-rays are high energy waves that penetrate the tissues and damage cells.
B:
UV and X-rays are low energy waves that penetrate the tissues and damage cells.
C:
UV and X-rays cannot penetrate tissues and thus damage the cells.
D:
UV and X-rays can penetrate tissues and thus do not damage the cells.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo01 apbio-ch08-ex026

ID: 600@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.541Z

Question:
If a plant were to be exposed to only red light, would photosynthesis be possible?
A:
Photosynthesis does not take place.
B:
The rate of photosynthesis increases sharply.
C:
The rate of photosynthesis decreases drastically.
D:
The rate of photosynthesis decreases and then increases.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo02 apbio-ch08-ex027

ID: 601@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.547Z

Question:
Describe the electron transfer pathway from photosystem II to photosystem I in the light-dependent reactions.
A:
After splitting water in PSII, high energy electrons are delivered through the chloroplast electron transport chain to PSI.
B:
After splitting water in PSI, high energy electrons are delivered though the chloroplast electron transport chain to PSII.
C:
After the photosynthesis reaction, the released products like glucose help in the transfer of electrons from PSII to PSI.
D:
After the completion of the light dependent reactions, the electrons are transferred from PSII to PSI.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo03 apbio-ch08-ex028

ID: 602@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.564Z

Question:
Why do the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place in the thylakoid?
A:
Photosystem I is anchored to the membrane, but not photosystem II.
B:
The cytochrome complex requires a membrane for chemiosmosis to occur.
C:
The light-dependent reactions depend on the presence of carbon dioxide.
D:
Light energy is absorbed by the thylakoid membrane.

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ID: 603@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.575Z

Question:
Metabolic pathways both produce and use energy to perform their reactions. How does the Calvin cycle help to harness, store, and use energy in its pathway?
A:
The Calvin Cycle harnesses energy in the form of 6 ATP and 6 NADPH that are used to produce Fructose-3- phosphate (F3P) molecules. These store the energy captured from photosynthesis. The cycle uses this energy to regenerate RuBP.
B:
The Calvin Cycle harnesses energy in the form of 6 ATP and 6 NADPH that are used to produce Glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate (GA3P) molecules. These store the energy captured from photosynthesis. The cycle uses this energy to regenerate RuBP.
C:
The Calvin Cycle harnesses energy in the form of 3 ATP and 3 NADPH that are used to produce Glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate (GA3P) molecules. These store the energy captured from photosynthesis. The cycle uses this energy to regenerate the RuBP.
D:
The Calvin Cycle harnesses energy in the form of 6 ATP and 3 NADPH that are used to produce Glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate (GA3P) molecules. These store energy captured from photosynthesis. The cycle uses this energy to regenerate RuBP.

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ID: 604@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.586Z

Question:
This image shows the light-dependent reactions occurring within a plant cell, including photosystem I, photosystem II and ATP synthase. On the right side, it shows a diagram of the carbon cycle Based on the diagram, which would most likely cause a plant to run out of NADP?
A:
missing the ATP synthase enzyme
B:
exposure to light
C:
A lack of water would prevent <span data-math="\text{H}^+">\text{H}^+</span> and <span data-math="\text{NADP}^+">\text{NADP}^+</span> from forming NADPH.
D:
not enough <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>

Tags:

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ID: 605@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.592Z

Question:
As temperatures increase, gases such as $\text{CO}_2$ diffuse faster. As a result, plant leaves will lose $\text{CO}_2$ at a faster rate than normal. If the amount of light impacting on the leaf and the amount of water available is adequate, predict how this loss of gas will affect photosynthesis in the leaf.
A:
Loss of gases, mainly <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>, will not affect photosynthesis in the leaf, as adequate amounts of water and light are still present which will let the Calvin cycle run smoothly.
B:
Loss of gases, mainly <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>, will affect photosynthesis in the leaf, as the Calvin cycle will become faster to compensate for the loss.
C:
Loss of gases, mainly <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>, will not affect photosynthesis in the leaf, as stored reservoirs of <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> in the leaf can be utilized in such times.
D:
Loss of gases, mainly <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>, will affect photosynthesis in the leaf, as the Calvin cycle will slow down and possibly stop because of inadequate carbon to fix in the system.

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ID: 606@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.604Z

Question:
How do the cytochrome complex components involved in photosynthesis contribute to the electron transport chain?
A:
Photosystem I excites the electron as it moves down the electron transport chain into Photosystem II.
B:
Plastoquinone and plastocyanine perform redox reactions that allow the electron to move down the electron transport chain into Photosystem I.
C:
ATP synthase “de-excites” the electron as it moves down the electron transport chain into Photosystem I.
D:
RuBisCO excites the electron as it moves down the electron transport chain into Photosystem II.

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ID: 607@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.620Z

Question:
Discuss how membranes in chloroplasts contribute to the organelles’ essential functions.
A:
The inner membrane contains the chemicals needed for the Calvin Cycle and also components of the light dependent reactions. The thylakoid membrane contains photosystems I and II, as well as the enzyme <span data-math="\text{NAD}^+">\text{NAD}^+</span> reductase.
B:
The inner membrane contains only the chemicals needed for the Calvin Cycle. The thylakoid membrane contains components of the light dependent reactions, photosystems I and II, and the enzyme <span data-math="\text{NAD}^+">\text{NAD}^+</span> reductase.
C:
The inner membrane contains components of the light dependent reactions as well as photosystems I and II. The thylakoid membrane contains the chemicals needed for the Calvin Cycle and also the enzyme <span data-math="\text{NAD}^+">\text{NAD}^+</span> reductase.
D:
The inner membrane contains the chemicals needed for the Calvin Cycle, components of the light dependent reactions and photosystems I and II. The thylakoid membrane contains the enzyme <span data-math="\text{NAD}^+">\text{NAD}^+</span> reductase.

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ID: 608@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.626Z

Question:
If the absorption spectrum of photosynthetic pigments were restricted to the green portion of the spectrum, which pigment or pigments would be affected the least?
A:
carotenoids
B:
chlorophyll a
C:
chlorophyll b
D:
chlorophyll c

Tags:

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ID: 609@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.637Z

Question:
Describe the passage of energy from light until it is captured in the primary electron acceptor.
A:
Chlorophyll molecules in the photosystems are excited and pass the energy to the primary electron acceptor where the energy is used to excite electrons from the splitting of water.
B:
Chlorophyll a molecules in the photosystems are excited and pass the energy to the primary electron acceptor where the energy is used to excite electrons from the splitting of water.
C:
Chlorophyll b molecules in the photosystems are excited and pass the energy to the primary electron acceptor where the energy is used to excite electrons from the splitting of water.
D:
Chlorophyll molecules in the photosystems absorb light and get excited in the primary electron acceptor from where the energy is used to excite electrons from the splitting of water.

Tags:

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ID: 610@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.655Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is true?
A:
In photosynthesis, oxygen, carbon dioxide, ATP and NADPH are reactants. GA3P and water are products.
B:
In photosynthesis, chlorophyll, water and carbon dioxide are reactants. GA3P and oxygen are products.
C:
In photosynthesis, water, carbon dioxide, ATP and NADPH are reactants. RuBP and oxygen are products.
D:
In photosynthesis, water and carbon dioxide are reactants. GA3P and oxygen are products.

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ID: 611@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.661Z

Question:
Explain why the process of producing glucose in plants is a cycle.
A:
Three RuBP molecules get converted to three G3P, and two G3P molecules with the help of three ATPs are converted back to three molecules of RuBP.
B:
Three RuBP molecules get converted to six G3P, and five G3P molecules with the help of three ATPs are converted back to three molecules of RuBP.
C:
Three RuBP molecules get converted to five G3P, and three G3P molecules with the help of three ATPs are converted back to three molecules of RuBP.
D:
Three RuBP molecules get converted to six G3P, and five G3P molecules with the help of five ATPs are converted back to three molecules of RuBP.

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ID: 612@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.682Z

Question:
Which of the following events is associated with the development of oxygenic photosynthesis?
A:
Photosynthetic organisms began to use NADPH and ATP as an energy source.
B:
Photosynthetic organisms evolved from single-celled bacteria into multicellular plants.
C:
Photosynthetic organisms began to use two photosystems instead of one.
D:
Photosynthetic organisms began to use light reactions as well as dark reactions.

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ID: 613@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.687Z

Question:
Which molecule must enter the Calvin cycle continually for the light-independent reactions to take place?
A:
<span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>
B:
RuBisCO
C:
RuBP
D:
3-PGA

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ID: 614@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.698Z

Question:
Which order of molecular conversions is correct for the Calvin cycle?
A:
<span data-math="\text{RuBP} + \text{G3P} \rightarrow \text{3-PGA} \rightarrow \text{sugar}">\text{RuBP} + \text{G3P} \rightarrow \text{3-PGA} \rightarrow \text{sugar}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{RuBisCO} \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{RuBP} \rightarrow \text{G3P}">\text{RuBisCO} \rightarrow \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{RuBP} \rightarrow \text{G3P}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{RuBP} + \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{[RuBisCO]}3-PGA} \rightarrow \text{G3P}">\text{RuBP} + \text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{[RuBisCO]}3-PGA} \rightarrow \text{G3P}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{3-PGA} \rightarrow \text{RuBP} \rightarrow \text{G3P}">\text{CO}_2 \rightarrow \text{3-PGA} \rightarrow \text{RuBP} \rightarrow \text{G3P}</span>

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ID: 615@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.710Z

Question:
Which statement correctly describes carbon fixation?
A:
the conversion of <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> into an organic compound
B:
the use of RuBisCO to form 3-PGA
C:
the production of carbohydrate molecules from G3P
D:
the use of ATP and NADPH to reduce <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span>

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ID: 616@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.725Z

Question:
Which substance catalyzes carbon fixation?
A:
3-PGA
B:
NADPH
C:
RuBisCO
D:
RuBP

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ID: 617@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.746Z

Question:
Which pathway is used by both plants and animals?
A:
carbon fixation
B:
cellular respiration
C:
photosystem II
D:
photosynthesis

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ID: 618@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.752Z

Question:
Which of the following organisms is a heterotroph?
A:
Cyanobacterium
B:
intestinal bacteria
C:
kelp
D:
pond algae

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ID: 619@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.769Z

Question:
Carbon, in the form of $\text{CO}_2\!$ , must be taken from the atmosphere and attached to an existing organic molecule in the Calvin cycle. Therefore, the carbon is bound to the molecule. The products of the cycle only occur because of the added carbon. What are the products of the Calvin cycle and what is regenerated?
A:
The product of the Calvin cycle is glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate and RuBP is regenerated.
B:
The product of the Calvin cycle is glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate and RuBisCO is regenerated.
C:
The product of the Calvin cycle is a 3-PGA molecule and glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate is regenerated.
D:
The product of the Calvin cycle is glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate and oxygen is regenerated.

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ID: 620@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.774Z

Question:
How do desert plants prevent water loss from the heat, which would compromise photosynthesis?
A:
by using CAM photosynthesis and by closing stomatal pores during the night
B:
by using CAM photosynthesis and by opening of stomatal pores during the night
C:
by using CAM photosynthesis and by keeping stomatal pores closed at all times
D:
by bypassing CAM photosynthesis and by keeping stomatal pores closed at night

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ID: 621@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.789Z

Question:
Why are carnivores, such as lions, dependent on photosynthesis to survive?
A:
because the prey of lions are generally herbivores which depend on heterotrophs
B:
because the prey of lions are generally smaller carnivorous animals which depend on non-photosynthetic organisms
C:
because the prey of lions are generally herbivores which depend on autotrophs
D:
Because the prey of lions are generally omnivores which depend only on autotrophs.

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ID: 622@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.805Z

Question:
The Earth did not contain oxygen in its atmosphere throughout much of its history, even after life on Earth had already began. It did, however, contain carbon dioxide. What does this suggest about when photosynthetic organisms evolved, relative to non-photosynthetic organisms, and why?
A:
Photosynthetic organisms evolved before non-photosynthetic organisms because no oxygen was present in the atmosphere when life began.
B:
Photosynthetic organisms evolved after non-photosynthetic organisms because no oxygen was present in the atmosphere when life began.
C:
Non-photosynthetic organisms evolved before photosynthetic organisms because no oxygen was present in the atmosphere when life began.
D:
Photosynthetic organisms evolved before non-photosynthetic organisms because no oxygen was present in the atmosphere when life began.

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ID: 623@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.822Z

Question:
Where are chloroplasts found?
A:
Aspergillus
B:
plants
C:
Penicillium
D:
Rhizopus

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ID: 624@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.834Z

Question:
What is the source of energy for chemoautotrophic organisms?
A:
inorganic molecules
B:
organic molecules from captured microorganisms.
C:
the ultraviolet wavelengths of light
D:
the visible wavelengths of light

Tags:

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ID: 625@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.846Z

Question:
What part or parts of photosynthesis occur in the stroma?
A:
Photosystem I
B:
Photosystem II
C:
the Calvin cycle
D:
the light dependent reactions

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ID: 626@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.851Z

Question:
Within a chloroplast, where are thylakoids found?
A:
the chloroplast inner membrane
B:
grana
C:
stomata
D:
the Calvin cycle

Tags:

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ID: 627@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.869Z

Question:
Which portion of photosynthesis produces oxygen as a byproduct?
A:
Calvin cycle
B:
light independent reactions
C:
Photosystem I
D:
Photosystem II

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ID: 628@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.880Z

Question:
What is the role of glucose in the body’s metabolism?
A:
a source of electrons for Photosystem I
B:
the primary energy source for cells
C:
a source of oxygen for the chemical pathway
D:
long term energy storage in animals

Tags:

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ID: 629@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.886Z

Question:
How is the energy from the sun transported within chloroplasts?
A:
When photons strike photosystem (PS) II, pigments pass the light energy to chlorophyll a molecules that excite an electron, which is then passed to the electron transport chain. The cytochrome complex transfers protons across the thylakoid membrane and transfers electrons from PS-II to PS-I. The products of the light dependent reaction are used to power the Calvin cycle to produce glucose.
B:
When photons strike photosystem (PS) I, pigments pass the light energy to chlorophyll, molecules that excite electrons, which is then passed to the electron transport chain. The cytochrome complex then transfers protons across the thylakoid membrane and transfers electrons from PS-II to PS-I. The products of the light dependent reaction are used to power the Calvin cycle to produce glucose.
C:
When photons strike photosystem (PS) II, pigments pass the light energy to chlorophyll molecules that in turn excite electrons, which are then passed to the electron transport chain. The cytochrome complex transfers protons across the thylakoid membrane and transfers electrons from PS-I to PS-II. The products of the light dependent reaction are used to power the Calvin cycle to produce glucose.
D:
When photons strike photosystem (PS) II, pigments pass the light energy to chlorophyll molecules that excite electrons, which is then passed to the electron transport chain. The cytochrome complex transfers protons across the thylakoid membrane and transfers electrons from PS II to PS I. The products of the light independent reaction are used to power the Calvin cycle to produce glucose.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo01 apbio-ch08-ot007

ID: 630@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.901Z

Question:
Metabolic pathways both produce and use energy to perform their reactions. How does the Calvin cycle help to harness, store, and use energy in its pathway?
A:
The Calvin cycle harnesses energy when 6 ATP and 6 NADPH produce GA3P molecules. Energy is stored in the GA3P molecule and the cycle uses energy to regenerate RuBP.
B:
The Calvin cycle harnesses energy when 6 ADP and 6 NADP produce GA3P molecules. Energy is stored in the GA3P molecule and the cycle uses energy to regenerate RuBP.
C:
The Calvin cycle harnesses energy when 6 ATP and 6 NADPH produce 3PGA molecules. Energy is stored in the 3PGA molecule and the cycle uses energy to regenerate RuBP.
D:
The Calvin cycle harnesses energy when ATP and NADPH produce GA3P molecules. Energy is stored in the GA3P molecule and the cycle uses energy to reuse RuBisCO.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-lo03 apbio-ch08-ot009

ID: 631@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.912Z

Question:
Based on photosynthesis and cellular respiration, which type of organism came first and why do you think this is so?
A:
anaerobic prokaryotes, because these processes are less complex in prokaryotes than eukaryotes, which indicates earlier evolutionary origin, and anaerobes were better adapted to earlier atmospheric conditions
B:
Aerobic eukaryotes, because these processes are more complex in eukaryotes than prokaryotes, which indicates earlier evolutionary origin, and aerobes were better adapted to earlier atmospheric conditions.
C:
Aerobic prokaryotes, because these processes are less complex in prokaryotes than eukaryotes, which indicates earlier evolutionary origin, and aerobes were better adapted to earlier atmospheric conditions.
D:
Anaerobic eukaryotes, because these processes are more complex in eukaryotes than prokaryotes, which indicates earlier evolutionary origin, and anaerobes were better adapted to earlier atmospheric conditions.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch08-ot010

ID: 632@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.923Z

Question:
Which structure contains the thylakoid membrane in a chloroplast?
A:
granum
B:
stroma
C:
cristae
D:
There is no such membrane in a chloroplast.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s01 apbio-ch08-s01-aplo-2-4 apbio-ch08-ot011

ID: 633@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.940Z

Question:
What is meant by photosynthetically active radiation?
A:
light in the ultraviolet range
B:
light in the infrared range
C:
light in the 700 nm to 400 nm range
D:
light in the 600 nm to 325 nm range

Tags:

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ID: 634@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.951Z

Question:
What can be calculated from a wavelength measurement of light?
A:
a specific portion of the visible spectrum
B:
color intensity
C:
the amount of energy of a wave of light
D:
the distance from trough to crest of the wave

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo01 apbio-ch08-ot013

ID: 635@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.966Z

Question:
What portion of the electro-magnetic radiation emitted by the sun has the most energy?
A:
gamma
B:
infrared
C:
radio waves
D:
X-rays

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo02 apbio-ch08-ot014

ID: 636@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.982Z

Question:
What component of photosynthesis absorbs excess energy and dissipates it as heat?
A:
carotenoids
B:
chlorophyll a
C:
chlorophyll b
D:
stroma

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo02 apbio-ch08-ot015

ID: 637@1

2015-08-20T13:03:39.993Z

Question:
What is the function of the antenna proteins in photosynthesis?
A:
They bind chlorophyll molecules and surround the reaction center.
B:
They guide visible light to the chlorophyll molecules.
C:
They are the primary electron acceptors.
D:
They contain the enzymes which split water.

Tags:

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ID: 638@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.002Z

Question:
What is the function of the cytochrome complex in photosynthesis?
A:
It contains chlorophyll and <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span> carotenes.
B:
It is responsible for the production of ATP.
C:
The complex releases oxygen from water.
D:
The cytochrome complex is found in mitochondria, but not in chloroplasts.

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ID: 639@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.014Z

Question:
What will happen to a plant leaf that loses $\text{CO}_2$ too quickly?
A:
no effect on the rate of photosynthesis
B:
Photosynthesis will slow down or stop possibly.
C:
Photosynthesis will increase exponentially.
D:
Photosynthesis will decrease and then increase.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo01 apbio-ch08-ot018

ID: 640@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.029Z

Question:
Discuss how membranes in chloroplasts contribute to the organelles’ essential functions.
A:
The inner membrane of chloroplasts consists of components of the Calvin cycle and the light dependent reactions, which produce ATP and NADPH.
B:
The inner membrane of chloroplasts consists of components of the light dependent reactions, which produce ATP and NADPH.
C:
The intermediate membrane of chloroplasts consists of components of the Calvin cycle and the light dependent reactions, which produce ATP and NADPH.
D:
The outer membrane of chloroplasts consists of components of the Calvin cycle and the light dependent reactions, which produce ATP and NADPH.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s02 apbio-ch08-s02-lo02 apbio-ch08-ot019

ID: 641@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.041Z

Question:
Describe the passage of energy from light until it is captured in the primary electron acceptor.
A:
Photosystem II consists of a light harvesting complex and a reaction center. Pigments in the light harvesting complex pass the light energy to chlorophyll a molecules in the reaction center. The light excites an electron from chlorophyll a molecules, which is then passed to the primary electron acceptor.
B:
Photosystem II consists of a light harvesting complex and a reaction center. Pigments in the light harvesting complex pass the light energy to chlorophyll b molecules in the reaction center. The light excites an electron from chlorophyll b molecules, which is then passed to the primary electron acceptor.
C:
Photosystem I consists of a light harvesting complex and a reaction center. Pigments in the light harvesting complex pass the light energy to chlorophyll a molecules in the reaction center. The light excites an electron from chlorophyll a molecules, which is then passed to the primary electron acceptor.
D:
Photosystem II consists of a light harvesting complex and a reaction center. Pigments in the reaction center pass the light energy to chlorophyll a molecules in the light harvesting complex. The light excites an electron from chlorophyll a molecules, which is then passed to the primary electron acceptor.

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ID: 642@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.052Z

Question:
How do products of the Calvin cycle help fuel the light-dependent reactions?
A:
ATP and NADH are converted to ADP and <span data-math="\text{NADP}^+">\text{NADP}^+</span>.
B:
ATP and NADPH are used to reduce 3-PGA into G3P.
C:
<span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> becomes an organic molecule and helps reduce NADPH.
D:
Water is used during light-dependent reactions.

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ID: 643@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.069Z

Question:
In the autumn, leaves on deciduous trees lose their green coloration and turn yellow, orange, or red. What components of the leaves are you seeing when leaves change color in the autumn?
A:
carotenoid pigments
B:
chlorophyll breakdown products
C:
a lack of photosynthetic pigments
D:
outer chloroplast membrane pigments

Tags:

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ID: 644@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.080Z

Question:
When water molecules are split in photosystem II, an $\text{O}_2\!$ molecule and two protons in the form of hydrogen ions, $\text{H}^+\!$ , are produced. What happens to the protons?
A:
The protons diffuse into the stroma.
B:
The protons move through the cytochrome complex.
C:
The protons are reabsorbed by a photosystem.
D:
The protons attach to oxygen and form water.

Tags:

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ID: 645@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.092Z

Question:
Which best describes how ATP synthase makes ATP in the thylakoid membrane?
A:
ATP synthase passes electrons to the ADP molecule. This creates an ADP molecule that allows for the attachment of a Pi molecule, which creates ATP.
B:
ATP synthase facilitates energy in the form of ATP to be passed along from Photosystem II. This passage of energy produces the <span data-math="\text{H}^+">\text{H}^+</span> gradient as the protons move through the ATP synthase.
C:
ATP synthase provides passage for hydrogen protons (<span data-math="\text{H}^+">\text{H}^+</span>). As the <span data-math="\text{H}^+">\text{H}^+</span> ions travel through the enzyme, ADP and Pi are combined to make ATP.
D:
ATP synthase helps catalyze the transfer of electrons from plastoquinol to plastocyanin.

Tags:

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ID: 646@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.104Z

Question:
What is the role of ribulosebisphosphatecarboxylase, abreviated RuBisCO, in photosynthesis?
A:
It catalyzes the reaction between <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> and ribulose bisphosphate(RuBP).
B:
It catalyzes the reaction that produces glyceraldehyde3-phosphate(G3P).
C:
It catalyzes the reaction that regenerates RuBP.
D:
It catalyzes the reaction utilizing ATP and NADPH.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s03 apbio-ch08-s03-lo01 apbio-ch08-ot025

ID: 647@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.116Z

Question:
What is the product of the Calvin cycle?
A:
Glucose
B:
Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
C:
Phosphoglycerate (PGA)
D:
sucrose

Tags:

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ID: 648@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.127Z

Question:
Why is the conversion of $\text{CO}_2$ into an organic compound important in photosynthesis?
A:
It allows organic compounds to be created from inorganic molecules.
B:
The capture of <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> allows oxygen to be released.
C:
The organic compound that is produced functions as an enzyme in the cytochrome complex.
D:
The removal of <span data-math="\text{CO}_2">\text{CO}_2</span> as a separate compound helps control the acidity of the chloroplasts.

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ID: 649@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.139Z

Question:
What is the role of NADPH in photosynthesis?
A:
It carries high energy electrons for a reduction reaction.
B:
It supplies ADP with the energy and phosphate needed to produce ATP.
C:
It fuels the reaction that reconstitutes RuBP.
D:
It takes part in photosystem II.

Tags:

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ID: 650@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.150Z

Question:
What is the cytochrome complex used in?
A:
anaerobic glycolysis
B:
Calvin cycle and carbon fixation
C:
photosystem I
D:
photosystem II and cellular respiration

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s03 apbio-ch08-s03-lo03 apbio-ch08-ot029

ID: 651@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.160Z

Question:
What is the source of the $\text(CO}_2$ used in photosynthesis?
A:
Calvin cycle
B:
cellular respiration
C:
photosystem I
D:
photosystem II

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s03 apbio-ch08-s03-lo03 apbio-ch08-ot030

ID: 652@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.182Z

Question:
Why does it take three turns of the Calvin cycle to produce G3P, the initial product of photosynthesis?
A:
To fix enough carbon to export one G3P molecule.
B:
To fix enough oxygen to export one G3P molecule.
C:
To produce RuBisCO as an end product.
D:
To produce ATP and NADPH for fixation of G3P.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s03 apbio-ch08-s03-lo01 apbio-ch08-ot031

ID: 653@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.188Z

Question:
Why does the term carbon fixation describe the products of the Calvin cycle?
A:
The Calvin cycle requires fixation of carbon which is taken in the form of <span data-math="\text{CO}_{2}">\text{CO}_{2}</span> and attached to an organic molecule.
B:
The Calvin cycle requires fixation of carbon which is taken in the form of CO and attached to an organic molecule.
C:
The Calvin cycle requires fixation of carbon which is taken in the form of CO2 and attached to an inorganic molecule.
D:
The Calvin cycle requires fixation of carbon which is taken in the form of ions and attached to an organic molecule.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s03 apbio-ch08-s03-lo02 apbio-ch08-ot032

ID: 654@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.204Z

Question:
What is the carbon cycle?
A:
The fixing of carbon from inorganic to organic form for utilization in energy pathways and converting it back to inorganic form after the completion of these pathways.
B:
The fixing of carbon from organic form to inorganic form for utilization in energy pathways and converting it back to organic form after the completion of these pathways.
C:
The fixing of carbon from inorganic to organic form for utilization in energy pathways and returning it back in organic form after the completion of these pathways.
D:
The fixing of carbon from organic to inorganic form for utilization in energy pathways and returning it back in inorganic form after the completion of these pathways.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch08 apbio-ch08-s03 apbio-ch08-s03-lo03 apbio-ch08-ot033

ID: 655@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.216Z

Question:
What requirements must be met for a new virus to emerge and spread?
A:
The virus must infect at least two different animals before infecting humans.
B:
The virus must come into contact with a new host so mutations will occur which allow the virus to bind to that host.
C:
A mutation must occur in the host allowing the virus to bind to the host.
D:
A mutation must occur in the virus allowing the virus to infect a new host, and the virus must come into contact with this host.

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ID: 656@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.231Z

Question:
HER2 is a receptor tyrosine kinase. In 20 percent of human breast cancer cases, HER2 is permanently activated, resulting in unregulated cell division. Lapatinib, a drug used to treat breast cancer, inhibits HER2 receptor tyrosine kinase autophosphorylation, the process by which the receptor adds phosphates onto itself. This reduces tumor growth by 50 percent. Besides autophosphorylation, which of the following steps would be inhibited by Lapatinib?
A:
dimerization and the downstream cellular response
B:
phosphatase activity, dimerization, and the downstream cellular response
C:
signaling molecule binding, dimerization, and the downstream cellular response
D:
the downstream cellular response

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apbio visual-connection inbook-yes time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-3 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo02 apbio-ch09-s01-aplo-2-34 apbio-ch09-ex002

ID: 657@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.243Z

Question:
What property prevents the ligands of cell-surface receptors from entering the cell?
A:
The molecules bind to the extracellular domain.
B:
The molecules are hydrophilic and cannot penetrate the hydrophobic interior of the plasma membrane.
C:
The molecules are attached to transport proteins that deliver them through the bloodstream to target cells.
D:
The ligands are able to penetrate the membrane, directly influencing gene expression upon receptor binding.

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ID: 658@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.264Z

Question:
What is the secretion of hormones by the pituitary gland is an example of?
A:
autocrine signaling
B:
direct signaling across gap junctions
C:
endocrine signaling
D:
paracrine signaling

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex004

ID: 659@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.269Z

Question:
Why are ion channels necessary to transport ions into or out of a cell?
A:
Ions are too large to diffuse through the membrane.
B:
Ions are charged particles and cannot diffuse through the hydrophobic interior of the membrane.
C:
Ions bind to hydrophobic molecules within the ion channels.
D:
Ions bind to carrier proteins in the bloodstream, which must be removed before transport into the cell.

Tags:

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ID: 660@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.280Z

Question:
Why are endocrine signals transmitted more slowly than paracrine signals?
A:
The ligands are transported through the bloodstream and travel greater distances.
B:
The target and signaling cells are close together.
C:
The ligands are degraded rapidly.
D:
The ligands do not bind to carrier proteins during transport.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex006

ID: 661@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.302Z

Question:
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone that regulates reabsorption of sodium ions in the kidney tubular cells. What is the probable mechanism of action of aldosterone?
A:
It binds gated ion channels and causes a flow of ions in the cell.
B:
It binds cell surface receptors and activates synthesis of cAMP.
C:
It binds to cell surface receptors and activates a phosphorylation cascade.
D:
It binds to an intracellular receptor and activates gene transcription.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo03 apbio-ch09-ex007

ID: 662@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.319Z

Question:
The gas nitric oxide has been identified as a signaling molecule. Which of the following mechanisms of action would you expect from a gaseous molecule?
A:
It binds to a G-protein-linked receptor.
B:
It binds to a receptor tyrosine kinase.
C:
It binds to a gated ion channel.
D:
It binds to an intracellular receptor.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo03 apbio-ch09-ex008

ID: 663@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.332Z

Question:
What is the difference between intracellular signaling and intercellular signaling?
A:
Intracellular signaling occurs between cells of two different species. Intercellular signaling occurs between two cells of the same species.
B:
Intracellular signaling occurs between two cells of same species. Intercellular signaling occurs between cells of two different species.
C:
Intracellular signaling occurs within a cell. Intercellular signaling occurs between cells.
D:
Intracellular signaling occurs between cells. Intercellular signaling occurs within cell.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex009

ID: 664@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.344Z

Question:
What are the differences between internal receptors and cell-surface receptors?
A:
Internal receptors bind to ligands that are hydrophobic and the ligand-receptor complex directly enters the nucleus initiating transcription and translation. Cell surface receptors bind to hydrophilic ligands and initiate a signaling cascade that indirectly influences the making of a functional protein.
B:
Internal receptors bind to ligands that are hydrophilic and ligand-receptor complex directly enters the nucleus initiating transcription and translation. Cell-surface receptors bind to hydrophobic ligands and initiate a signaling cascade that indirectly influences the making of a functional protein.
C:
Internal receptors bind to ligands that are hydrophobic and initiate the signaling cascade that indirectly influences the making of a functional protein. Cell-surface receptors bind to hydrophilic ligands and a ligand-receptor complex directly enters the nucleus, initiating transcription and translation.
D:
Internal receptors are integral membrane proteins that bind to hydrophobic ligands, initiating a signaling cascade, which indirectly influences the making of a functional protein. Cell-surface receptors bind to hydrophilic ligands and the ligand-receptor complex directly enters the nucleus, initiating transcription and translation.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex010

ID: 665@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.360Z

Question:
Cells grown in the laboratory are mixed with a dye molecule that is unable to pass through the plasma membrane. If a ligand is added to the cells, the dye is observed entering the cells. What type of receptor did the ligand bind to on the cell surface?
A:
G-protein-linked R receptor
B:
ligand-gated ion channel
C:
voltage-gated ion channel
D:
receptor tyrosine kinase

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo03 apbio-ch09-ex011

ID: 666@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.372Z

Question:
Upon ingestion of bacteria, white blood cells release a chemical messenger into the blood stream which causes the synthesis of inflammation response proteins by liver cells. What is this is an example of?
A:
autocrine signaling
B:
endocrine signaling
C:
paracrine signaling
D:
synaptic signaling

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-aplo-3-34 apbio-ch09-ex012

ID: 667@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.378Z

Question:
Molecules do not flow between the endothelial cells in the brain capillaries. The membranes of the cells must be joined by what?
A:
gap junctions
B:
ligand-gated channels
C:
synapses
D:
tight junctions

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-aplo-3-35 apbio-ch09-ex013

ID: 668@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.390Z

Question:
Analyze the possible benefits of having autocrine signaling.
A:
Autocrine signaling helps to communicate with distantly located cells.
B:
Autocrine signaling connects nearby located cells.
C:
Autocrine signaling helps to amplify the signal by inducing more signaling production from the cell itself.
D:
Autocrine signaling is specific only for the cell that produced it.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long dok4 ap-test-prep apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-aplo-3-34 apbio-ch09-ex015

ID: 669@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.407Z

Question:
Support the reasons for the response to the same signal varying according to the cell type.
A:
Variation in response to the same signal is a result of differences in protein receptors and intracellular signaling in different cell types.
B:
Variation in response to the same ligand depends on modification of the ligand upon binding the receptor.
C:
Variation in response to the same signal is due to different rates of binding to the receptor.
D:
Variation in response to the same signal is due to differences in availability of nutrients.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long dok4 ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-aplo-3-35 apbio-ch09-ex016

ID: 670@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.425Z

Question:
In certain cancers, the GTPase activity of the RAS G-protein is inhibited. This means that the RAS protein can no longer hydrolyze GTP into GDP. What effect would this have on downstream cellular events?
A:
Cells will not proliferate.
B:
ERK is permanently inactivated.
C:
Regulated cell division.
D:
Uncontrolled cell proliferation.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo02 apbio-ch09-s02-aplo-3-36 apbio-ch09-ex017

ID: 671@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.436Z

Question:
Hemophilia is a rare condition in which the blood lacks sufficient clotting factors. These factors are required for the platelets to bind together and form clots. How does this interfere with the cell signals during wound healing?
A:
delay and prevention of the cell signal required for wound healing
B:
activate the cell signal required for wound healing
C:
activate and enhance the cell signals for wound healing
D:
cell signal will remain unaffected

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex018

ID: 672@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.442Z

Question:
Where do DAG and IP3 originate?
A:
They are formed by phosphorylation of cAMP.
B:
They are ligands expressed by signaling cells.
C:
They are hormones that diffuse through the plasma membrane to stimulate protein production.
D:
They are the cleavage products of the inositol phospholipid, PIP2.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex019

ID: 673@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.453Z

Question:
What property enables the residues of the amino acids serine, threonine, and tyrosine to be phosphorylated?
A:
They are polar.
B:
They are nonpolar.
C:
They contain a hydroxyl group.
D:
They occur more frequently in the amino acid sequence of signaling proteins.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex020

ID: 674@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.465Z

Question:
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter in the brain that causes long-term responses in neurons and binds to a G-protein-linked receptor. Which of the following chemicals would you expect to increase in concentration after dopamine binds its receptor?
A:
ATP
B:
cAMP
C:
calcium ions
D:
sodium ions

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex021

ID: 675@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.481Z

Question:
The hormone insulin binds to a receptor tyrosine kinase on the surface of target cells. Which of the following steps takes place before phosphorylation of tyrosine residues?
A:
A tyrosine kinase enzyme must be activated.
B:
GDP is exchanged for GTP.
C:
The receptor forms a dimer.
D:
The insulin molecule is internalized in the cytoplasm.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex022

ID: 676@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.486Z

Question:
The same second messengers are used in many different cells, but the response to second messengers is different in each cell. How is this possible?
A:
Different cells produce the same receptor, which bind to the same ligands, but have a different response in each cell type.
B:
Cells produce variants of a particular receptor for a particular ligand through alternative splicing, resulting in different response in each cell
C:
Cells contain different genes, which produce different receptors that bind to same ligand, activating different responses in each cell.
D:
Cells produce different receptors that bind to the same ligand or the same receptor that binds to the same ligand with different signaling components, activating different responses in each cell.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex023

ID: 677@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.498Z

Question:
What would happen if the intracellular domain of a cell-surface receptor was switched with the domain from another receptor?
A:
It would activate the pathway normally triggered by the receptor that contributed the intracellular domain.
B:
It would activate the same pathway even after the intracellular domain is changed with the domain from another receptor.
C:
The receptor will be mutated and become non-functional, not activating any pathway.
D:
The receptor will become mutated and lead to continuous cell signaling, even in the absence of a ligand.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex024

ID: 678@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.515Z

Question:
What is the function of a phosphatase?
A:
A phosphatase removes phosphorylated amino acids from proteins.
B:
A phosphatase removes the phosphate group from phosphorylated amino acid residues in a protein.
C:
A phosphatase phosphorylates serine, threonine, and tyrosine residues.
D:
A phosphatase degrades second messengers in the cell.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex025

ID: 679@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.527Z

Question:
How does NF- $\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}$ B induce gene expression?
A:
A small, hydrophobic ligand binds to NF-<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>B, activating it.
B:
NF-<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>B is phosphorylated and is then free to enter the nucleus to bind DNA.
C:
NF-<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>B is a kinase that phosphorylates a transcription factor that binds DNA and promotes protein production.
D:
Phosphorylation of the inhibitor I<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>B dissociates the complex between it and NF-<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>B, allowing NF-<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>B to enter the nucleus and stimulate transcription.

Tags:

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ID: 680@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.537Z

Question:
Apoptosis can occur in a cell under what conditions?
A:
cancerous
B:
damaged
C:
no longer needed
D:
no longer needed, damaged or infected by a virus

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex027

ID: 681@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.559Z

Question:
Cancer cells that continue to divide when defective often show changes in what cellular function?
A:
apoptosis
B:
cell metabolism
C:
protein biosynthesis
D:
replication of DNA

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex028

ID: 682@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.571Z

Question:
How does the extracellular matrix control the growth of cells?
A:
Contact of receptors with the extracellular matrix maintains equilibrium of the cell and provides optimal pH for the growth of the cells.
B:
Contact of the receptor with the extracellular matrix helps maintain concentration gradients across membrane, resulting in the flow of ions.
C:
The extracellular matrix provides nutrients for the cell.
D:
The extracellular matrix connects the cell to the external environment and ensures correct positioning of the cell to prevent metastasis.

Tags:

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ID: 683@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.583Z

Question:
Give an example for each one of the following effects of a cell signal: on protein expression, cellular metabolism, and cell division.
A:
protein expression: binding of epinephrine (adrenaline) to a G-protein-linked receptor; cellular metabolism: the MAP-kinase cascade; cell division: promoted by the binding of the EGF to its receptor tyrosine kinase
B:
protein expression: the MAP-kinase cascade; cellular metabolism- binding of epinephrine (adrenaline) to a G-protein-linked receptor; cell division promoted by the binding of the EGF to its receptor tyrosine kinase
C:
protein expression: binding of the EGF to its receptor tyrosine kinase; cellular metabolism: the MAP-kinase cascade; cell division: FAS-RAS signaling.
D:
protein expression: RAS signaling; cellular metabolism: binding of the EGF to its receptor tyrosine kinase promotes an increase; cell division: binding of epinephrine (adrenaline) to a G-protein-linked receptor.

Tags:

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ID: 684@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.588Z

Question:
If a chemical is an inhibitor of the enzyme adenylyl cyclase, which of the following steps in the G-protein signaling pathway would be blocked?
A:
activation of gene transcription
B:
exchange of GTP for GDP
C:
ligand bound receptor activation of G-protein
D:
synthesis of cAMP

Tags:

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ID: 685@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.605Z

Question:
Thyroid hormone is a lipid-soluble signal molecule that crosses the membrane of all cells. Why would a cell fail to respond to the thyroid hormone?
A:
The MAPK cascade leading to cell activation is defective in the target cells.
B:
The DNA sequence it binds to underwent a mutation.
C:
There is no intracellular receptor for thyroid hormone in the cell.
D:
The second messenger does not recognize the signal from the receptor.

Tags:

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ID: 686@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.610Z

Question:
The poison form the krait snake’s bungarotoxin binds irreversibly to acetylcholine receptors interfering with acetylcholine binding at the synapse. What is the effect of bungarotoxin binding on the post synaptic cell?
A:
cAMP production is inhibited.
B:
Bungarotoxin G-proteins are not activated.
C:
Ion movement in the cell is inhibited.
D:
Phosphorylation cascade is inhibited.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-aplo-3-39 apbio-ch09-ex033

ID: 687@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.622Z

Question:
In autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS), lymphocytes which multiplied during an infection persist in the body and damage tissue. The syndrome is caused by a mutation in the FAS gene which encodes a cell surface receptor. Which signaling pathway does the receptor initiate?
A:
activated metabolism
B:
apoptosis
C:
cell division
D:
cell differentiation

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-aplo-2-34 apbio-ch09-ex034

ID: 688@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.639Z

Question:

Place the following events in their sequential order:

  1. protein kinase A is activated
  2. glycogen breakdown
  3. epinephrine binds to G-protein-linked receptor
  4. G-protein activates adenylyl cyclase
  5. GTP is exchanged for GDP on the G-protein
  6. ATP is converted to cAMP
A:
1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2
B:
3, 5, 4, 1, 6, 2
C:
3, 4, 5, 1, 6, 2
D:
3, 5, 4, 6, 1, 2

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-aplo-3-36 apbio-ch09-ex035

ID: 689@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.651Z

Question:
The RAS protein is a G-protein connected with the response to RTKs that initiates the MAPK kinase cascade when GDP is released and GTP uploaded. Mutations in the RAS protein which interfere with its GTPase activity are common in cancer. Evaluate the connection between the inability of RAS to hydrolyze GTP and uncontrolled cell proliferation.
A:
RAS, when bound to GTP, becomes permanently inactive even in the presence of the ligand, and no longer regulates cell division.
B:
RAS, when bound to GTP, becomes permanently active even in the absence of the ligand, and no longer regulates cell division.
C:
RAS, when bound to GTP, forms a dimer after binding to the ligand, and causes uncontrolled division, but it remains inactive when the ligand is absent.
D:
RAS, when bound to GTP, does not form a dimer after binding to the ligand but stimulates downstream signaling to occur and causes uncontrolled cell division.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-aplo-3-37 apbio-ch09-ex036

ID: 690@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.656Z

Question:
Common medications called $\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}$ -blockers bind to G-protein-linked receptors in heart muscles, blocking adrenaline. They are prescribed to patients with high blood pressure. Can you formulate a hypothesis on their mechanism of action?
A:
Adrenaline has a stimulatory effect on heart rate and blood pressure. <span data-math="\unicode[Ariel]{x03B2}">\unicode[Ariel]{x03B2}</span>-blockers are antagonistic to adrenaline and produces inhibitory effect.
B:
Adrenaline has both a stimulatory and an inhibitory effect on heart rate and blood pressure. <span data-math="\unicode[Ariel]{x03B2}">\unicode[Ariel]{x03B2}</span>-blockers bind to G-protein and stimulate the inhibitory effect of adrenaline.
C:
Adrenaline has an inhibitory effect on heart rate and blood pressure. <span data-math="\unicode[Ariel]{x03B2}">\unicode[Ariel]{x03B2}</span>-blockers have a synergistic effect along with adrenaline producing an inhibitory effect.
D:
Adrenaline has both a stimulatory and an inhibitory effect on heart rate and blood pressure. <span data-math="\unicode[Ariel]{x03B2}">\unicode[Ariel]{x03B2}</span>-blockers bind to G-protein and intervene with the inhibitory effect of adrenaline.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long dok4 ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-aplo-3-39 apbio-ch09-ex037

ID: 691@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.667Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about quorum sensing is false?
A:
Autoinducers must bind to receptors to turn on transcription of genes responsible for the production of more autoinducers.
B:
Autoinducers can only act on a different cell. It cannot act on the cell in which it is made.
C:
Autoinducers turn on genes that enable the bacteria to form a biofilm.
D:
The receptor stays in the bacterial cell, but the autoinducers diffuse out.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo02 apbio-ch09-s04-aplo-3-37 apbio-ch09-ex042

ID: 692@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.678Z

Question:
Free-living V. fischeri do not luminesce. Why?
A:
The squid provides certain nutrients that allow the bacteria to luminesce.
B:
The squid produces the luminescent luciferase enzyme, so bacteria living outside the squid do not luminesce.
C:
The ability to luminesce does not benefit free-living bacteria, so free-living bacteria do not produce luciferase.
D:
Luciferase is toxic to free-living bacteria, so free-living bacteria do not produce this enzyme.

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ID: 693@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.696Z

Question:
What does bioluminescence show about communication in bacteria?
A:
Bacteria interact by physical signals among a colony.
B:
Bacterium interact by chemical signals when it is alone.
C:
Bacterium interact by physical signals when it is alone.
D:
Bacteria interact by chemical signals among a colony.

Tags:

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ID: 694@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.701Z

Question:
Based on the Evolution Connection, which of the following best describes the evolution of kinases?
A:
The tyrosine kinases evolved before yeast diverged from other eukaryotes, but the other fifty-five subfamilies of kinases evolved after yeast diverged.
B:
Fifty-five subfamilies of kinases evolved before yeast diverged from other eukaryotes, but the tyrosine kinases evolved after yeast diverged.
C:
All kinases evolved in yeast, but yeast later lost the tyrosine kinases because they do not need them.
D:
The evolution of tyrosine kinases involved in cellular communication occurred about 2.5 billion years ago.

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc evolution apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex045

ID: 695@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.719Z

Question:
Recurrent urinary tract infections occur when the urinary tract becomes reinfected by the same bacteria. Why are recurrent urinary infections difficult to treat?
A:
Bacteria produce biofilms which are antibiotic resistant.
B:
Bacteria produce biofilms which are not antibiotic resistant.
C:
Bacteria produce biofilms which behave like a unicellular organism.
D:
Bacteria do not produce biofilm but are resistant themselves.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 interactive apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo02 apbio-ch09-s04-aplo-3-37 apbio-ch09-ex046

ID: 696@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.734Z

Question:
Which type of molecule acts as a signaling molecule in yeasts?
A:
autoinducer
B:
mating factor
C:
second messenger
D:
steroid

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex047

ID: 697@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.740Z

Question:
When is quorum sensing triggered to begin?
A:
a sufficient number of bacteria are present
B:
bacteria release growth hormones
C:
bacterial protein expression is switched on
D:
treatment with antibiotics occurs

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex048

ID: 698@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.755Z

Question:
Yeast releasing mating factor can be classified as which type of signal?
A:
autocrine
B:
endocrine
C:
paracrine
D:
gap junction

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex049

ID: 699@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.766Z

Question:
The bioluminescent bacteria Vibrio fischeri produces luminescence only if the population reaches a certain density. What is the advantage of an autoinducer?
A:
An autoinducer allows the producer to act independently of the presence of other cells.
B:
An autoinducer does not diffuse away from the cell.
C:
An autoinducer allows a positive feedback loop, which increases the response in proportion to the population size.
D:
An autoinducer presents no advantage for the cell.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex050

ID: 700@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.783Z

Question:
What characteristics make yeast a good model for learning about signaling in humans?
A:
Yeasts are prokaryotes. They have a short life cycle, easy to grow, and share similarities with humans in certain regulating mechanisms.
B:
Yeasts are eukaryotes. They have a short life cycle, easy to grow, and share similarities with humans in certain regulating mechanisms.
C:
Yeasts are multicellular organisms. They have a short life cycle, easy to grow, and share similarities with humans in certain regulating mechanisms.
D:
Yeasts are single celled organisms. They have a complex life cycle like that of humans and share similarities in regulating mechanisms.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo01 apbio-ch09-ex051

ID: 701@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.788Z

Question:
Why is signaling in multicellular organisms more complicated than signaling in single-celled organisms?
A:
Multicellular organisms coordinate between distantly located cells; single-celled organisms communicate only with nearby cells.
B:
Multicellular organisms involve receptors for signaling; single-celled organisms communicate by fusion of plasma membrane with the nearby cells.
C:
Multicellular organisms require more time for signal transduction than single-celled organisms, as they show compartmentalization.
D:
Multicellular organisms require more time for signal transduction than single-celled organisms, as they lack compartmentalization.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo02 apbio-ch09-ex052

ID: 702@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.800Z

Question:
Hormones are chemical compounds carried by blood throughout the body. They are an example of what type of signaling?
A:
autocrine signaling
B:
endocrine signaling
C:
paracrine signaling
D:
synaptic signaling

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot001

ID: 703@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.818Z

Question:
A cell is infected by a virus, producing a signaling molecule, which diffuses to neighboring cells and triggers programmed cell death when the cells, in turn, are infected by the virus. How you would classify this type of signaling?
A:
autocrine signaling
B:
endocrine signaling
C:
paracrine signaling
D:
synaptic signaling

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot002

ID: 704@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.823Z

Question:
Estrogen is a steroid hormone that is lipophilic and crosses the membrane. Which of the following describes a possible receptor for estrogen?
A:
transporter protein
B:
transmembrane protein
C:
intracellular protein
D:
ligand-gated channel

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot003

ID: 705@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.835Z

Question:
G-protein-linked receptors share a general structure: an extracellular domain, seven transmembrane domains, and a G-protein-binding site. Which domain would you expect to be the most variable among G-protein-linked receptors?
A:
G-protein-binding site
B:
the transmembrane domains
C:
the extracellular domain
D:
All domains show the same variability.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot004

ID: 706@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.846Z

Question:
You are monitoring the first step that follows the binding of a ligand to a tyrosine kinase receptor. What will you record?
A:
an increase in cAMP
B:
ATP hydrolysis
C:
dimerization of the subunits
D:
opening of a ligand-gated channel

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo03 apbio-ch09-ot005

ID: 707@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.857Z

Question:
A ligand binds to its receptor. As a result, ions flow rapidly inside the cell. Which type of receptor would most likely be involved?
A:
G-protein-linked receptor
B:
intracellular receptor
C:
ligand-gated ion channel
D:
receptor tyrosine kinase

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo03 apbio-ch09-ot006

ID: 708@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.870Z

Question:
Formulate a few advantages of having autocrine signals in the body and justify your answers with examples.
A:
Autocrine signaling helps to amplify the signal.
B:
Autocrine signaling helps to connect distantly located cells
C:
Autocrine signaling coordinates the response of nearby different cells.
D:
Autocrine signaling influences the differentiation of nearby cells into different types of cells.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot007

ID: 709@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.893Z

Question:
Explain why steroid hormones bind to intracellular receptors.
A:
Steroids are hydrophilic molecules.
B:
Steroids are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic.
C:
Steroids are lipophilic molecules.
D:
Steroids are amphipathic molecules.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot008

ID: 710@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.899Z

Question:
Water soluble ligands bind to transmembrane receptors. Compare the G-protein-linked receptor and the RTK in terms of structure and changes after binding the ligand.
A:
G-protein-linked receptors bind to hydrophilic molecules and activate G-proteins. RTKs bind to hydrophobic molecules and do not bind directly to G-proteins.
B:
G-protein-linked receptors bind to hydrophobic molecules and activate G-proteins. RTKs bind to hydrophilic molecules and are enzymes that auto-phosphorylate at tryptophan residues.
C:
RTKs are single transmembrane proteins and are enzymes that auto-phosphorylate at tyrosine residues. G-protein-linked receptors are single transmembrane proteins that directly activate G-proteins.
D:
RTKs are single transmembrane proteins and are enzymes that auto-phosphorylate at tyrosine residues; G-protein-linked receptors are seven transmembrane proteins that directly activate G-proteins.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-lo03 apbio-ch09-ot009

ID: 711@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.910Z

Question:
In the lymph nodes, cells of the immune system secrete chemical messengers which affect the development of neighboring cells. What is this is an example of?
A:
autocrine signaling
B:
endocrine signaling
C:
paracrine signaling
D:
synaptic signaling

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-aplo-3-34 apbio-ch09-ot010

ID: 712@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.927Z

Question:
If a compound is an antagonist of acetylcholine and blocks its receptor on the muscle membrane, which of the following signaling pathway would be blocked?
A:
cell proliferation
B:
flow of ions through a ligand-gated channel
C:
phosphorylation cascade
D:
protein biosynthesis

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s01 apbio-ch09-s01-aplo-3-35 apbio-ch09-ot011

ID: 713@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.941Z

Question:
A protein kinase cascade has what advantage for the cell?
A:
amplification of the signal
B:
rapid response from the cell
C:
short term effect
D:
uses up excess phosphate ions

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot012

ID: 714@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.953Z

Question:
An inhibitor that blocks adenylyl cyclase will interfere with the production of what?
A:
ATP
B:
cAMP
C:
GTP
D:
phosphorylated proteins

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot013

ID: 715@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.959Z

Question:
Following activation of a G-protein, an enzyme catalyzes the production of a product, which activates another enzyme. What is the first enzyme, what is its product, and what is the second enzyme?
A:
<ol> <li>adenylyl cyclase</li> <li>cyclic AMP</li> <li>A kinase</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>adenylyl cyclase</li> <li>ATP</li> <li>phospholipase C</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>protein kinase C</li> <li>DAG</li> <li>A kinase</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>phospholipase C</li> <li>cyclic AMP</li> <li>adenylyl cyclase</li> </ol>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot014

ID: 716@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.977Z

Question:
If a compound binds irreversibly to IP3 (inositol trisphosphate) and blocks its activity, which one of these events will not be observed?
A:
the opening of <span data-math="\text{Ca}^{2+}\!">\text{Ca}^{2+}\!</span> channels
B:
PIP2 synthesis
C:
synthesis of cAMP
D:
transcription of mRNA

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot015

ID: 717@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.982Z

Question:
Explain how a chemical that blocks the binding of EGF to the EGFR would interfere with the replication of cancerous cells that overexpress EGFR.
A:
It will activate the EGFR pathway.
B:
It will block the EGFR pathway.
C:
It will have no effect and the EGFR pathway will continue normally
D:
It will lead to overexpression of the EGFR pathway

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot016

ID: 718@1

2015-08-20T13:03:40.994Z

Question:
Examine the phosphorylation cascade. What are possible advantages of such a long, multistep process?
A:
The benefit is amplification of the signal.
B:
Benefits include amplification of the signal and multiple check points.
C:
There is no advantage to a complex cascade. It is a vestigial pathway.
D:
Complexity helps regulate the mechanism at multiple steps.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s02 apbio-ch09-s02-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot017

ID: 719@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.015Z

Question:
Epinephrine mediates the fight-or-fight response of the body. One of the effects is to increase the amount of glucose available to muscles. What does the signaling pathway, triggered by epinephrine, in liver cells cause?
A:
activation of metabolism
B:
cell division
C:
inhibition of glucose metabolism by liver cells
D:
synthesis of enzymes

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot018

ID: 720@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.021Z

Question:
What would happen if the RAS protein, a G-protein, could not break down GTP and reverted to its inactive form?
A:
continuous cell division
B:
cells would run out of GTP
C:
no significant effect
D:
phosphorylation cascade would stop

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot019

ID: 721@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.032Z

Question:
Which of the following is not a function of apoptosis?
A:
to eliminate virus infected cells
B:
to eliminate damaged cells
C:
to remove cells which are not needed
D:
to eliminate random cells

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot020

ID: 722@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.050Z

Question:
In which case would a cell receive an outside signal to undergo apoptosis?
A:
Damaged proteins are accumulating.
B:
It detaches from the extracellular matrix.
C:
It sustains a physical or chemical injury such as a burn.
D:
The replication process was defective.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot021

ID: 723@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.060Z

Question:
The mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase cascade triggered by RTKs results in cell division. Create a few possible scenarios of abnormalities in the MAPK pathway leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation.
A:
gain of function mutation in RAS protein, mutation in I<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>-B, loss of function mutation in genes for MAPK kinase pathway, regulated phosphorylation cascade
B:
loss of function mutation in RAS protein and gain of function mutation in RAF protein, I<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>-B permanently bound to NF-<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>B, regulated phosphorylation cascade
C:
RAS protein unable to hydrolyze its bound GTP, loss of function mutation in I<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}">\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}</span>-B, gain of function mutation in genes for MAPK kinase pathway, unregulated phosphorylation cascade
D:
unregulated phosphorylation cascade, loss of function mutation in RAS and RAF protein, mutation in genes for MAPK kinase pathway, regulated phosphorylation cascade

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot022

ID: 724@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.072Z

Question:
Why would a virus-infected cell cause its neighbors to undergo apoptosis before those cells are also infected?
A:
The accumulation of dead cells attracts macrophages to the site.
B:
to avoid the spread of the virus and help in the survival of the organism
C:
helps to save energy for the cell in making proteins for the survival of the virus
D:
The mechanism of apoptosis actively destroys viruses as well.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot023

ID: 725@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.083Z

Question:
Which step of the receptor tyrosine kinase signaling cascade follows the binding of the ligand to the receptor?
A:
Binding of the ligand activates a G-protein close to the receptor tyrosine kinase.
B:
Binding of the signal causes receptors to form a dimer.
C:
Binding of the ligand activates a tyrosine kinase in the cytoplasm.
D:
Binding of the ligand results in the phosphorylation of tyrosines.

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ID: 726@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.095Z

Question:
In cholera, ion channels activated by cAMP constantly transport $\text{Cl}^-\!$ ions out of the cell, causing massive diarrhea. The toxin secreted by the bacterium modifies the G-protein so that it does not cleave GTP back to GDP. How does this event result in the disease?
A:
GDP is always bound to the G-protein.
B:
The G-protein is never activated and ions transporters stop.
C:
The G-protein is continuously activated.
D:
The receptor molecule is locked in the active position.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-aplo-3-37 apbio-ch09-ot025

ID: 727@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.107Z

Question:
If a drug blocks the phosphorylation of I- $\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}$ B and release from NF- $\unicode[Arial]{x3BA}$ B, what is the outcome for the cell?
A:
Auto-phosphorylation of RTK is blocked.
B:
The RAS protein is not activated.
C:
The MAPK kinase cascade is blocked.
D:
Transcription is not activated.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-aplo-3-39 apbio-ch09-ot026

ID: 728@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.133Z

Question:
Which of the following statements does not describe a condition that would trigger apoptosis?
A:
cells between fingers during fetal development
B:
heart cells following a cardiac infarction
C:
T-cells recognize self-molecules
D:
unnecessary phagocytic cells after an infection is over

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s03 apbio-ch09-s03-aplo-2-34 apbio-ch09-ot027

ID: 729@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.144Z

Question:
Why is a defect in the apoptosis pathway often found in cancerous cells?
A:
Apoptosis leads to survival of the abnormal cells.
B:
Apoptosis leads to death of the abnormal cells.
C:
Apoptosis leads to death of the normal cells.
D:
Apoptosis leads to survival of the normal cells.

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ID: 730@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.161Z

Question:
The process of signaling with mating factors in yeast is similar to which signaling pathway in animals?
A:
G-protein-linked receptor signaling
B:
ligand-gated channel signaling
C:
receptor tyrosine kinase signaling
D:
steroid signaling

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot029

ID: 731@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.175Z

Question:
Why does a yeast cell produce alpha factor?
A:
It needs to find new sources of food.
B:
It needs to find another yeast cell for mating.
C:
It needs to signal danger to other yeast cells.
D:
It replicates asexually.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot030

ID: 732@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.181Z

Question:
What do bacteria sense when they use quorum sensing?
A:
the amount of nutrient present
B:
the temperature of the environment
C:
the number of other cells present
D:
the level of oxygen present

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot031

ID: 733@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.199Z

Question:
How does an autoinducer allow quorum sensing?
A:
It is synthesized only if cells reach a certain size.
B:
It is synthesized only if growth conditions are favorable.
C:
It degrades rapidly unless there is a quorum of cells.
D:
It reaches a signal level concentration only if enough cells are present.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot032

ID: 734@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.205Z

Question:
Support the hypothesis that signaling pathways appeared early in evolution and are well conserved through the use of yeast’s mating factor as an example.
A:
Signaling in yeast uses the RTK pathway and is evolutionarily conserved, like insulin signaling in humans.
B:
Signaling in yeast uses G-protein coupled receptors for signaling and is evolutionarily conserved, like insulin signaling in humans.
C:
Signaling in yeast uses an endocrine pathway and is evolutionarily conserved, like insulin signaling in humans.
D:
Mating factor in yeast uses an autocrine signaling pathway and is evolutionarily conserved.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo01 apbio-ch09-ot033

ID: 735@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.218Z

Question:
Many bacteria turn on genes for toxin production when they sense a quorum. What are the advantages for the bacteria to reach critical mass before expressing those genes?
A:
A critical mass is essential for making enough food for the survival of the bacteria under adverse conditions.
B:
A critical mass is essential for obtaining maximum nutrition from their surroundings before the signaling.
C:
A critical mass is needed to activate the toxins after release.
D:
A critical mass is required to survive the immune system response before turning on the expression of genes for toxin.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch09 apbio-ch09-s04 apbio-ch09-s04-lo02 apbio-ch09-ot034

ID: 736@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.399Z

Question:
Why is nucleosome formation required for the packaging of DNA?
A:
Nucleosome formation results in compaction of the DNA to form chromatin.
B:
Nucleosome formation results in DNA synthesis.
C:
Nucleosome formation decreases the number of introns in DNA.
D:
Nucleosome formation increases the number of introns in the DNA.

Tags:

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ID: 737@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.417Z

Question:
A diploid cell has how many times the number of chromosomes as a haploid cell?
A:
four times
B:
half
C:
one-fourth
D:
twice

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex002

ID: 738@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.429Z

Question:
The first level of DNA organization in a eukaryotic cell is maintained by which molecule?
A:
cohesion
B:
condensin
C:
chromatin
D:
histone

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex003

ID: 739@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.440Z

Question:
Compare and contrast a human somatic cell to a human gamete.
A:
Somatic cells have 46 chromosomes and are diploid, whereas gametes have chromosomes half of those present in somatic cells.
B:
Somatic cells have 23 chromosomes and are diploid, whereas gametes have chromosomes half of those present in somatic cells.
C:
Somatic cells have 46 chromosomes and are haploid, whereas gametes have 23 chromosomes and are diploid.
D:
Somatic cells have 46 chromosomes with one sex chromosome. In gametes, 23 chromosomes are present with two sex chromosomes.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex004

ID: 740@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.452Z

Question:
Pictured are 23 chromosome pairs. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the karyotype shown?
A:
The cell contains DNA.
B:
The cell contains 46 chromosomes.
C:
The cell is diploid.
D:
The cell is prokaryotic.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch10-ex005

ID: 741@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.461Z

Question:
Explain how DNA, which in humans measures approximately two meters, can fit inside a human cell that is about $10\,\unicode[Arial]{x3BC}\text{m}$ . Discuss how the organization of the genetic material in eukaryotes differs from prokaryotes.
A:
The DNA is found wrapped around histones to form nucleosomes, which further compact and ultimately form linear chromosomes. The prokaryotic genome is found as a loop and in eukaryotes as a double-stranded linear structure.
B:
The DNA is wrapped around the nucleosomes to show a compact structure. The eukaryotes show a loop structure and prokaryotes show a double-stranded linear genome.
C:
The genetic material shows ringed heterochromatin structure. The prokaryotes show multiple loops, and eukaryotes show a condensed chromatin.
D:
The genetic material is wrapped around histones. The prokaryotes have a condensed structure in nucleoids, but eukaryotes have double-stranded linear structure.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch10-ex006

ID: 742@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.478Z

Question:
Gout is a form of arthritis that causes a painful inflammation of joints. One treatment for gout is colchicine, a medication that inhibits mitosis. Explain why this medication is beneficial for people with gout and why it can cause undesirable side effects, such as low white blood cell counts.
A:
Colchicine increases inflammation by inhibiting mitosis. Inhibition of mitosis results in decreased white blood count.
B:
Colchicine decreases inflammation by inhibiting mitosis. Inhibition of mitosis results in decreased white blood count.
C:
Colchicine increases inflammation by inhibiting mitosis. Inhibition of mitosis results in increased white blood count.
D:
Colchicine decreases inflammation by inhibiting mitosis. Inhibition of mitosis results in increased white blood count.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 interactive apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo02 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-7 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-8 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-9 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-11 apbio-ch10-ex007

ID: 743@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.500Z

Question:
Which of the following is the correct order of events in mitosis?
A:
Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. The nucleus reforms and the cell divide. Cohesin proteins break down and the sister chromatids separate.
B:
The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. Cohesin proteins break down and the sister chromatids separate. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The nucleus reforms and the cell divides.
C:
The kinetochore becomes attached to the cohesin proteins. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. The kinetochore breaks down and the sister chromatids separate. The nucleus reforms and the cell divides.
D:
The kinetochore becomes attached to the mitotic spindle. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate. Cohesin proteins break down and the sister chromatids separate. The nucleus reforms and the cell divide.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo02 apbio-ch10-ex008

ID: 744@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.506Z

Question:
Chromosomes are duplicated during what stage of the cell cycle?
A:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> phase
B:
prophase
C:
pro-metaphase
D:
S-phase

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex009

ID: 745@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.528Z

Question:
Which of the following events does not occur during some stages of interphase?
A:
DNA duplication
B:
increase in cell size
C:
organelle duplication
D:
separation of sister chromatids

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex010

ID: 746@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.551Z

Question:
Attachment of the mitotic spindle fibers to the kinetochores is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?
A:
anaphase
B:
prophase
C:
prometaphase
D:
metaphase

Tags:

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ID: 747@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.565Z

Question:
The fusing of Golgi vesicles at the metaphase plate of dividing plant cells forms what structure?
A:
actin ring
B:
cell plate
C:
cleavage furrow
D:
mitotic spindle

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo02 apbio-ch10-ex012

ID: 748@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.580Z

Question:
Briefly describe the events that occur in each phase of interphase.
A:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> - assessment for DNA damage, S - duplication of genetic material, <span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> - duplicates and dismantles organelles
B:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> - duplication of organelles, S - duplication of DNA, <span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> - assessment of DNA damage
C:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> - synthesis of DNA, S - synthesis of organelle genetic material, <span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> - assessment of DNA damage
D:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> - preparation for DNA synthesis, S - assessment of DNA damage, M - Division of cell

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex013

ID: 749@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.592Z

Question:
Chemotherapy drugs such as vincristine and colchicines disrupt mitosis by binding to tubulin (the subunit of microtubules) and interfering with microtubule assembly and disassembly. Exactly what mitotic structure do these drugs target, and what effect would that have on cell division?
A:
The drugs bind tubulin and inhibit the binding of spindle to the chromosome. This can arrest the cell cycle.
B:
The drugs bind the tubulin, which leads to an error in the chromosome separation. This could lead to apoptosis.
C:
The drugs bind the tubulin, thereby inhibiting their division in S-phase. This inhibits cell division.
D:
The drugs bind the spindle fiber and hinder the separation of chromatins. This promotes the division spontaneously.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo02 apbio-ch10-ex014

ID: 750@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.604Z

Question:
The image shows a karyotype of a human with 22 somatic chromosomes and the sex chromosomes appropriate to being either male or female. The space for Chromosome 21 has three chromosomes. All of the other spaces for chromosomes have two chromosomes Based on the karyotype provided, the nondisjuction of which chromosome causes Down Syndrome?
A:
chromosome 21
B:
chromosome 22
C:
X chromosome
D:
Y chromosome

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-9 apbio-ch10-ex015

ID: 751@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.616Z

Question:
Describe the sequence of mitotic cell cycle for one pair of chromosome that is undergoing normal mitotic division.
A:
anaphase - metaphase - prophase - cytokinesis
B:
anaphase - prophase - metaphase - cytokinesis
C:
prophase - anaphase - metaphase - cytokinesis
D:
prophase - metaphase - anaphase - cytokinesis

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep blooms-6 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-9 apbio-ch10-ex016

ID: 752@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.621Z

Question:
A bar graph is shown. The vertical axis is labeled "Relative DNA content" with a scale from zero to two. The bar for sample A stops at one. The bar for samples B, C, and D stop at two. In a study on cell division, researchers culture synchronously dividing human cells with thymidine. This causes the cells to arrest at the $\text{G}_1$ /S boundary. The cells are then placed in medium lacking thymidine, which releases the block, and the cells begin to divide again. Starting with Sample A and ending with Sample D, the DNA content of the cells is measured at different times after thymidine is removed. Results for four samples (A-D) are shown in the graph. Which sample presents the expected results for cells in S-phase?
A:
sample A
B:
sample B
C:
sample C
D:
sample D

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-11 apbio-ch10-ex017

ID: 753@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.633Z

Question:
A bar graph is shown. The vertical axis is labeled "Relative DNA content" with a scale from zero to two. The bar for sample A stops at 1. The bar for samples B, C, and D stop at two. In a study on cell division, researchers culture synchronously dividing human cells with thymidine. This causes the cells to arrest at the $\text{G}_1$ /S boundary. The cells are then placed in medium lacking thymidine, which releases the block, and the cells begin to divide again. Starting with Sample A and ending with Sample D, the DNA content of the cells is measured at different times after thymidine is removed. Results for four samples (A-D) are shown in the graph. Explain what is happening in terms of the cell cycle and DNA content in sample B.
A:
All the contents of the cell have been doubled.
B:
The DNA content of the cell has doubled.
C:
Two cells have been fused.
D:
The cells are showing the semiconservative mechanism of cell division.

Tags:

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ID: 754@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.644Z

Question:
At which of the cell cycle checkpoints do external forces have the greatest influence?
A:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> checkpoint
B:
<span data-math="G_2">G_2</span> checkpoint
C:
M checkpoint
D:
<span data-math="G_0">G_0</span> checkpoint

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ID: 755@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.663Z

Question:
If the M checkpoint is not cleared, what stage of mitosis will be blocked?
A:
prophase
B:
prometaphase
C:
metaphase
D:
anaphase

Tags:

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ID: 756@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.669Z

Question:
Which protein is a positive regulator that phosphorylates other proteins when activated?
A:
p53
B:
Retinoblastoma protein (Rb)
C:
cyclin
D:
Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s03 apbio-ch10-s03-lo02 apbio-ch10-ex021

ID: 757@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.687Z

Question:
Which negative regulatory molecule can trigger apoptosis if vital cell cycle events do not occur?
A:
p53
B:
p21
C:
Retinoblastoma protein (Rb)
D:
Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)

Tags:

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ID: 758@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.699Z

Question:
Down Syndrome is a genetic, developmental condition caused by nondisjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Explain how a problem with the spindle checkpoint can cause this to occur in the cell.
A:
Failure in spindle checkpoint results in the formation of one gamete cell with two extra chromosomes and another gamete cell lacking chromosomes.
B:
Failure in spindle checkpoint yields the same number of chromosomes in each gamete cell.
C:
Failure in spindle checkpoint will form two gamete cells without any chromosomes.
D:
Failure in spindle checkpoint results in the formation of one gamete cell with an extra chromosome and another gamete cell lacking a chromosome.

Tags:

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ID: 759@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.711Z

Question:
Rb and other proteins that negatively regulate the cell cycle are sometimes called tumor supressors. Why do you think the name tumor suppressor might be appropriate for these proteins?
A:
They inhibit cell division.
B:
They enhance the rate of cell division.
C:
They start the cell cycle, thereby suppressing tumor formation.
D:
These proteins, when phosphorylated, allow the cell cycle to proceed.

Tags:

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ID: 760@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.732Z

Question:
Describe the general conditions that must be met at each of the three main cell cycle checkpoints.
A:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> checkpoint - assessment of DNA damage, <span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> - assessment of new DNA, M checkpoint - segregation of sister chromatids in anaphase.
B:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> checkpoint - Energy reserves for s phase, <span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> checkpoint - assessment of new DNA, M checkpoint- attachment of spindle to kinetochore.
C:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> checkpoint - assessment of DNA damage, <span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> checkpoint - energy reserves for duplication, M checkpoint - attachment of spindle to kinetochore
D:
<span data-math="G_1">G_1</span> checkpoint - Energy reserves for S-phase, S checkpoint - synthesis of DNA, <span data-math="G_2">G_2</span> checkpoint - assessment of new DNA

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s03 apbio-ch10-s03-lo02 apbio-ch10-ex025

ID: 761@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.740Z

Question:
Explain the roles of the positive cell cycle regulators compared to the negative regulators.
A:
Positive regulators promote the cell cycle but negative regulators block the cell cycle.
B:
Positive regulators block the cell division in cancerous cells but negative regulators promote in such cells.
C:
Positive regulators promote the cell cycle but negative regulators arrest the cell cycle until certain events have occurred.
D:
Positive regulators show positive feedback mechanisms but negative regulators show negative feedback in the cell cycle.

Tags:

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ID: 762@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.759Z

Question:
Li-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS1) is a rare hereditary disorder that leads to a predisposition to cancer. This hereditary disorder is linked to mutations in the tumor suppressor gene encoding the transcription factor p53. p53 acts at the $\text{G}_1$ checkpoint. If damaged DNA is detected, p53 halts the cell cycle. As p53 levels rise, the production of p21 is triggered. p21 enforces the halt in the cell cycle. A variant of Li-Fraumeni, called LFS2, is thought to occur due to a mutation of the CHK2 gene, which is also a tumor suppressor gene. CHK2 regulates the action of p53. Which of the following cascades is most likely to occur in a normal cell that does not contain the LFS mutation?
A:
<ol> <li>cell cycle progression</li> <li>p53</li> <li>p21</li> <li>CHK2</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>p53</li> <li>p21</li> <li>CHK2</li> <li>cell cycle progression</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>p21</li> <li>p53</li> <li>CHK2</li> <li>cell cycle progression</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>CHK2</li> <li>p53</li> <li>p21</li> <li>cell cycle progression</li> </ol>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s03 apbio-ch10-s03-aplo-3-7 apbio-ch10-ex027

ID: 763@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.778Z

Question:
The image shows a flow chart starting with IGF-1, with an arrow pointing to a block containing Cyclin D1 gene expressed. An arrow from that block points to CyclinD1 with a block containing Cdk4 attached. An arrow goes from Cyclin D1 to Active Cdk4. From Cdk4, an arrow points to the phrase Cell cycle progressions through G1 phase. A line with a flat end goes from the block containing Active Cdk4 to the block containing Cyclin D1. The insulin growth factor (IGF-1) promotes cell proliferation as shown in the diagram. The expression of which protein in the diagram is controlled through negative feedback?
A:
active Cdk4
B:
Cyclin D1
C:
Cyclin D1/Cdk4 complex
D:
IGF-1

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s03 apbio-ch10-s03-aplo-3-8 apbio-ch10-ex028

ID: 764@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.795Z

Question:
The image shows a flow chart starting with IGF-1, with an arrow pointing to a block containing Cyclin D1 gene expressed. An arrow from that block points to CyclinD1 with a block containing Cdk4 attached. An arrow goes from Cyclin D1 to Active Cdk4. From Cdk4, an arrow points to the phrase Cell cycle progressions through G1 phase. A line with a flat end goes from the block containing Active Cdk4 to the block containing Cyclin D1. The insulin growth factor (IGF-1) promotes cell proliferation as shown in the diagram. Cells with a temperature-sensitive mutation of Cdk4 have normal protein function at $23^\circ\text{C}$ ; but, at $37^\circ\text{C}$ the Cdk4 protein becomes inactive. The shift to $37^\circ\text{C}$ leads to cell cycle arrest at the $\text{G}_1$ /S checkpoint, which can be determined by measuring the DNA content of the cells in the culture. Create a basic experimental protocol that would illustrate the theory Cdk4 regulates the cell cycle at the $\text{G}_1$ /S checkpoint.
A:
Grow a cell sample A at <span data-math="23^\circ\text{C}">23^\circ\text{C}</span> and another sample B at <span data-math="37^\circ\text{C}">37^\circ\text{C}</span> and check for the content of the samples. The contents of sample B will be double the contents of sample A.
B:
Grow a sample A at <span data-math="37^\circ\text{C}">37^\circ\text{C}</span>. Heat kill sample B, then keep it at <span data-math="23^\circ\text{C}">23^\circ\text{C}</span>. Check the contents of the samples. Sample B will have double the contents of sample A.
C:
Synchronously grow two sets of cells at <span data-math="23^\circ\text{C}">23^\circ\text{C}</span> . The move one of the samples (sample B) to <span data-math="37^\circ\text{C}">37^\circ\text{C}</span>. The contents of sample A double, but not the contents of sample B, due to lack of Cdk4 activity.
D:
Grow synchronously growing cells at <span data-math="37^\circ\text{C}">37^\circ\text{C}</span> (sample A) and another (sample B) at <span data-math="23^\circ\text{C}">23^\circ\text{C}</span>. A doubling of cell contents is seen in sample A, not in sample B due to lack of Cdk4 activity.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long dok4 ap-test-prep blooms-6 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s03 apbio-ch10-s03-aplo-3-8 apbio-ch10-ex029

ID: 765@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.809Z

Question:
What do you call changes to the order of nucleotides in a segment of DNA that codes for a protein?
A:
proto-oncogenes
B:
tumor suppressor genes
C:
gene mutations
D:
negative regulators

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s04 apbio-ch10-s04-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex030

ID: 766@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.815Z

Question:
Human papillomavirus can cause cervical cancer. The virus encodes E6, a protein that binds p53. Based on this fact and what you know about p53, what effect do you think E6 binding has on p53 activity?
A:
E6 activates p53.
B:
E6 protects p53 from degradation.
C:
E6 mutates p53.
D:
E6 binding marks p53 for degradation.

Tags:

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ID: 767@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.832Z

Question:
List the regulatory mechanisms that might be lost in a cell producing faulty p53.
A:
assessment of damaged DNA, recruiting repair enzymes, and binding of spindle to kinetochore
B:
quality of DNA, triggering apoptosis, and recruiting repair enzymes
C:
quality of DNA, binding of spindle to kinetochore, and assessment of DNA repair
D:
triggering apoptosis, recruiting repair enzymes, and proper binding of spindle to kinetochore

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ID: 768@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.848Z

Question:
Explain why p53, p21, and CHK2 are considered tumor suppressor genes, not proto-oncogenes. Give an example of a proto-oncogene.
A:
p53, p21, and CHK2 suppress the proteins that regulate the cell cycle, whereas proto-oncogenes, like phosphorylated Rb, help in cell cycle progression.
B:
p53, p21, and CHK2 are negative cell cycle regulators, whereas Cdk’s are proto-oncogenes, which could cause cancer when mutated.
C:
p53, p21, and CHK2 suppress the proteins that regulate the cell cycle, whereas Rb is considered a proto-oncogene, as it is the most primitive
D:
The three proteins help stop the formation of tumors, whereas Cdk’s are called proto-oncogenes because they are the most primitive of all.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s04 apbio-ch10-s04-aplo-3-7 apbio-ch10-ex033

ID: 769@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.865Z

Question:
FtsZ is a prokaryotic protein and tubulin is a eukaryotic protein. These two proteins share many structural and functional similarities and are believed to have evolved from the same ancestral protein. However, there are also some important differences between these proteins. In what way are these proteins different?
A:
Tubulin proteins can rapidly disassemble, but FtsZ proteins cannot.
B:
Tubulin proteins can form long filaments, but FtsZ proteins cannot.
C:
Tubulin uses GTP as an energy source, but FtsZ does not.
D:
Tubulin pulls chromosomes apart, but FtsZ does not.

Tags:

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ID: 770@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.870Z

Question:
Human papillomavirus can cause cervical cancer. The virus encodes E6, a protein that binds p53. Based on this fact and what you know about p53, what effect do you think E6 binding has on p53 activity?
A:
E6 activates p53
B:
E6 inactivates p53
C:
E6 mutates p53
D:
E6 binding marks p53 for degradation

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s04 apbio-ch10-s04-lo01 apbio-ch10-s04-aplo-3-7 apbio-ch10-ex035

ID: 771@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.882Z

Question:
Treating cancer can be described as a fight against natural biologic processes. Explain what this means in terms of tumor formation.
A:
Cancer forms when natural defenses are inhibited and cells divide uncontrollably.
B:
Mutated cells undergo apoptosis, causing cells to divide uncontrollably.
C:
Cancer treatment would require inhibiting apoptosis which is a natural defense.
D:
In cancerous cells, apoptosis occurs.

Tags:

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ID: 772@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.894Z

Question:
Which eukaryotic cell cycle events are missing in binary fission?
A:
cell growth
B:
DNA duplication
C:
karyokinesis
D:
cytokinesis

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s05 apbio-ch10-s05-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex037

ID: 773@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.906Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about binary fission is false?
A:
In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, the outcome of cell reproduction is a pair of daughter cells, which are genetically identical to the parent cell.
B:
Karyokinesis is unnecessary in prokaryotes because there is no nucleus.
C:
Replication of the prokaryotic chromosome begins at the origin of replication and continues in both directions at once.
D:
The mitotic spindle draws the duplicated chromosomes to the opposite ends of the cell followed by formation of a septum and two daughter cells.

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s05 apbio-ch10-s05-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex038

ID: 774@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.918Z

Question:
Name the processes that eukaryotic cell division and binary fission have in common.
A:
DNA duplication, division of cell organelles, division of the cytoplasmic contents
B:
DNA duplication, segregation of duplicated chromosomes, and division of the cytoplasmic contents
C:
formation of a septum, DNA duplication, division of the cytoplasmic contents
D:
segregation of duplicated chromosomes, formation of a septum, division of cell organelles

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s05 apbio-ch10-s05-lo01 apbio-ch10-ex039

ID: 775@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.935Z

Question:
Photo shows small, green fleshy succulent sedum plants, growing as a ground cover. The plant has spread in a continuous mat, with new plants growing from offshoots of older plants Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between mitosis and asexual reproduction?
A:
Mitosis is a process that can result in asexual reproduction.
B:
Mitosis is a process that always results in asexual reproduction.
C:
Asexual reproduction is a process that always results in mitosis.
D:
Asexual reproduction is a process that can result in mitosis.

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-everyday apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo02 apbio-ch10-ex044

ID: 776@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.940Z

Question:
What inherited feature, in specific combinations, determines an organism’s traits?
A:
cells
B:
genes
C:
proteins
D:
chromatids

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-lo01 apbio-ch10-ot001

ID: 777@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.951Z

Question:
What are identical copies of chromatin held together by cohesin at the centromere called?
A:
histones
B:
nucleosomes
C:
chromatin
D:
sister chromatids

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-lo01 apbio-ch10-ot002

ID: 778@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.962Z

Question:
Eukaryotic chromosomes are thousands of times longer than a typical cell. Explain how chromosomes can fit inside a eukaryotic nucleus.
A:
The genetic material remains distributed in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplast.
B:
The genome is present in a looped structure, thus it fits the size of the nucleus.
C:
The DNA remains coiled around proteins to form nucleosomes.
D:
The genetic material remains bound to the nuclear envelope, forming invaginations.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-lo01 apbio-ch10-ot003

ID: 779@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.975Z

Question:
Pictured are 23 chromosome pairs. Which of the following statements about structure 1 on the karyotype is not true?
A:
Structure 1 consists of homologous chromosomes.
B:
The two parts of structure 1 will have genes in different loci.
C:
The two parts of structure 1 originate from different parents.
D:
The two parts of structure 1 will have slightly different sequences of nucleotides.

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s01 apbio-ch10-s01-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch10-ot004

ID: 780@1

2015-08-20T13:03:41.997Z

Question:
The mitotic spindles arise from which cell structure?
A:
centromere
B:
centrosome
C:
kinetochore
D:
cleavage furrow

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo01 apbio-ch10-ot005

ID: 781@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.008Z

Question:
What would be the outcome of blocking S-phase of interphase?
A:
The cell would enter karyokinesis.
B:
DNA replication would not occur.
C:
Centrosomes would be duplicated.
D:
The cytoskeleton would be dismantled.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo01 apbio-ch10-ot006

ID: 782@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.020Z

Question:
Unpacking of chromosomes and the formation of a new nuclear envelope is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?
A:
prometaphase
B:
metaphase
C:
anaphase
D:
telophase

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo02 apbio-ch10-ot007

ID: 783@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.026Z

Question:
List some reasons why a cell that has just completed cytokinesis might enter the $\text{G}_0$ phase instead of the $\text{G}_1$ phase.
A:
Some cells are physiologically inhibited from undergoing any division and remain in <span data-math="\text{G}_0">\text{G}_0</span> phase to provide assistance to their neighboring cells.
B:
Some cells reproduce only under certain conditions and, until then, they remain in <span data-math="\text{G}_0">\text{G}_0</span> phase.
C:
Suspected DNA damage can lead the cell to undergo <span data-math="\text{G}_0">\text{G}_0</span> phase.
D:
The lack of important components of cell division makes cells stay in <span data-math="\text{G}_0">\text{G}_0</span> phase.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo01 apbio-ch10-ot009

ID: 784@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.047Z

Question:
What cell cycle events will be affected in a cell that produces mutated (non-functional) cohesin protein?
A:
Non-functional cohesion would hinder the process of condensation of chromatin material.
B:
Non-functional cohesion would lead to improper attachment of spindle to kinetochore.
C:
Non-functional cohesion would inhibit the sorting and separation of chromosomes.
D:
Non-functional cohesin would lead to disruption of nucleosomes.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-lo02 apbio-ch10-ot010

ID: 785@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.053Z

Question:
In which phase of the mitotic cell can nondisjunction occur?
A:
anaphase
B:
metaphase
C:
prophase
D:
telophase

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-9 apbio-ch10-ot011

ID: 786@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.086Z

Question:
A bar graph is shown. The vertical axis is labeled "Relative DNA content" with a scale from zero to two. The bar for sample A stops at 1. The bar for samples B, C, and D stop at two. In a study on cell division, researchers culture synchronously dividing human cells with thymidine. This causes the cells to arrest at the G1/S boundary. The cells are then placed in medium lacking thymidine, which releases the block, and the cells begin to divide again. Starting with Sample A and ending with Sample D, the DNA content of the cells is measured at different times after thymidine is removed. Results for four samples (A-D) are shown in the graph. What would be the expected results in the cells were kept in medium lacking thymidine past the sample D time point (additional time points E and F)?
A:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_a6930f7bfa2b57e42684b6a2044cd64b86f832c74e4bcd96951a318b040497b2.png" alt='A bar graph is shown. The vertical axis is labeled "Relative DNA content" with a scale from zero to two. The bar for sample D stops at one. The bar for samples E and F stop at two'>
B:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_91a385be405aaaf09bfa49ce2923bd02aabe4877ac3d81b9a1e30e36bcbd4616.png" alt='A bar graph is shown. The vertical axis is labeled "Relative DNA content" with a scale from zero to two. The bar for sample D stops at two. The bar for samples E and F stop at one.'>
C:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_d912c7ee3ea8b6f8cf8921d2f7b6951c497ed61095f06e731c2b6aa9e4944bd4.png" alt='A bar graph is shown. The vertical axis is labeled "Relative DNA content" with a scale from zero to two. The bar for samples D and E stop at one. The bar for sample F stops at two.'>
D:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_9e282c56944bcfd4a5ba433cd600a928a654b1253116f2a3fbcdbe6ad9c2ab3c.png" alt='A bar graph is shown. The vertical axis is labeled "Relative DNA content" with a scale from zero to two. The bar for samples D and E stop at two. The bar for sample F stops at one.'>

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apbio dok3 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc ap-test-prep blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s02 apbio-ch10-s02-aplo-3-11 apbio-ch10-ot012

ID: 787@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.092Z

Question:
What is the main prerequisite for clearance at the $\text{G}_2$ checkpoint?
A:
The cell has a reached a sufficient size.
B:
The cell has an adequate stockpile of nucleotides.
C:
An accurate and complete DNA replication has occurred.
D:
Proper attachment of mitotic spindle fibers to kinetochores has occurred.

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ID: 788@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.106Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about regulation of the cell cycle at internal checkpoints is false?
A:
The cell irreversibly commits to the cell division process at the M checkpoint.
B:
Proper chromosome duplication is assessed at the <span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> checkpoint.
C:
The integrity of the DNA is assessed at the <span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> checkpoint.
D:
The cell cycle does not proceed unless the kinetochores are properly attached to the spindle fibers at the M checkpoint.

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ID: 789@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.124Z

Question:
Many of the negative regulator proteins of the cell cycle were discovered in what type of cells?
A:
cancer cells
B:
Cells in <span data-math="\text{G}_0">\text{G}_0</span>
C:
gametes
D:
stem cells

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ID: 790@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.136Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about positive regulation of the cell cycle is true?
A:
The retinoblastoma protein promotes progress of the cell from the <span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> phase to mitosis.
B:
The cyclin proteins A, B, D, and E are all present in equal amounts in each of the cell cycle phases.
C:
Cyclins regulate the cell cycle only when they are tightly bound to cyclin-dependent kinases.
D:
Cyclin-dependent kinases dephosphorylate other proteins.

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ID: 791@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.146Z

Question:
Describe what occurs at the M checkpoint and predict what would happen if the M checkpoint failed.
A:
The M checkpoint checks for proper separation of sister chromatids and if it fails, then cells may undergo nondisjunction of chromosomes.
B:
The M checkpoint checks if the DNA is damaged and promotes its repair. If it fails, then the daughters end up with damaged DNA.
C:
The M checkpoint ensures the proper duplication of DNA and if it fails, the cells may undergo nondisjunction of chromosomes.
D:
The M checkpoint ensures that all the components required for cell division are available and if it fails, the cell cycle will be inhibited.

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ID: 792@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.163Z

Question:
Rb and other proteins that negatively regulate the cell cycle are sometimes called tumor suppressors. Why do you think the name tumor suppressor might be appropriate for these proteins?
A:
Proteins help in proper regulation of the cell cycle and if they get mutated, cancer will develop.
B:
Proteins regulate the cell cycle and help in suppressing the tumor-producing genes.
C:
Proteins mutate themselves and undergo loss of function to suppress the tumor-causing genes.
D:
Proteins help in proper regulation of the cell cycle and if they get mutated, cancer will not develop.

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ID: 793@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.178Z

Question:
Li-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS1) is a rare hereditary disorder that leads to a predisposition to cancer. This hereditary disorder is linked to mutations in the tumor suppressor gene encoding the transcription factor p53. p53 acts at the $\text{G}_1$ checkpoint. If damaged DNA is detected, p53 halts the cell cycle. As p53 levels rise, the production of p21 is triggered. p21 enforces the halt in the cell cycle. A variant of Li-Fraumeni, called LFS2, is thought to occur due to a mutation of the CHK2 gene, which is also a tumor suppressor gene. CHK2 regulates the action of p53. Which cell cycle checkpoint is most likely to be impaired in LFS2?
A:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> checkpoint
B:
<span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> checkpoint
C:
M checkpoint
D:
S checkpoint

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ID: 794@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.185Z

Question:
The image shows a flow chart starting with IGF-1, with an arrow pointing to a block containing Cyclin D1 gene expressed. An arrow from that block points to CyclinD1 with a block containing Cdk4 attached. An arrow goes from Cyclin D1 to Active Cdk4. From Cdk4, an arrow points to the phrase Cell cycle progressions through G1 phase. A line with a flat end goes from the block containing Active Cdk4 to the block containing Cyclin D1. The insulin growth factor (IGF-1) promotes cell proliferation as shown in the diagram. What role does cyclin D1 play in the regulation of the cell cycle?
A:
It blocks the progression of the cell cycle.
B:
It increases the IGF-1 levels.
C:
It activates Cdk4.
D:
It inhibits active Cdk4.

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ID: 795@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.196Z

Question:
What is a gene that codes for a positive cell cycle regulator called?
A:
kinase inhibitor
B:
oncogenes
C:
proto-oncogenes
D:
tumor suppressor genes

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ID: 796@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.208Z

Question:
Which molecule is a Cdk inhibitor or is controlled by p53?
A:
anti-kinase
B:
cyclin
C:
p21
D:
Rb

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s04 apbio-ch10-s04-lo01 apbio-ch10-ot022

ID: 797@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.225Z

Question:
p53 can trigger apoptosis if certain cell cycle events fail. How does this regulatory outcome benefit a multicellular organism?
A:
The apoptosis helps in controlling the consumption of energy by the extra cells.
B:
The apoptosis inhibits the production of faulty proteins, which could be produced due to the DNA damage.
C:
The process of apoptosis stops the invasion of viruses in the other cells.
D:
The cells are killed due to the production of reactive oxygen species produced, which could harm the organism.

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ID: 798@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.237Z

Question:
The formation of what structure, that will eventually form the new cell walls of the daughter cells, is directed by FtsZ?
A:
contractile ring
B:
cell plate
C:
cytoskeleton
D:
septum

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ID: 799@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.243Z

Question:
What would be the outcome of blocking FtsZ function?
A:
A septum will not form.
B:
The chromosome will not replicate.
C:
The cell will not elongate.
D:
The mitotic spindles will not form.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch10 apbio-ch10-s05 apbio-ch10-s05-lo01 apbio-ch10-ot025

ID: 800@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.256Z

Question:
Describe how the duplicated bacterial chromosomes are distributed into new daughter cells without the direction of the mitotic spindle.
A:
After replication, chromosomes attach to a membrane-bound organelle and move with it to different daughter cells.
B:
After replication, chromosomes move to different daughter cells with the help of transport proteins.
C:
After replication, chromosomes attach to microfilaments and move to different daughter cells.
D:
After replication, chromosomes attach to the plasma membrane and growth of the membrane aids in their movement.

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ID: 801@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.268Z

Question:
Human males typically have XY chromosomes and females have XX chromosomes, but there are rare instances in which a male can inherit an XXY or an XYY, or a female can have three X chromosomes. Explain how an error in meiosis can cause these aberrations.
A:
Errors can arise only during the recombination process which may result in deletions, duplications or translocations causing such abnormalities.
B:
Aberrations caused when a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to separate during anaphase I or when sister chromatids fail to separate during anaphase II, the daughter cells will inherit unequal numbers of chromosomes.
C:
Errors during anaphase I of meiosis only cause such aberrations resulting in unequal numbers of chromosomes.
D:
Errors during meiosis introduce variations in the DNA sequence, which depends specifically on the size of the variant only.

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ID: 802@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.283Z

Question:
Which of the following events occurs in both mitosis and meiosis I?
A:
Homologous chromosomes pair together.
B:
Crossover occurs between chromosomes.
C:
Chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate.
D:
Sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase.

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ID: 803@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.295Z

Question:
Single-celled organisms, like amoebas, reproduce by mitosis. Explain how the genetic makeup of these organisms differs from organisms that undergo meiosis.
A:
Organisms reproducing through mitosis produce genetically different daughter cells whereas those producing through meiosis have genetically identical daughter cells.
B:
Crossing over or mixing of chromosomes does not occur in meiosis whereas it is prevalent in mitosis.
C:
Mitosis is a process of asexual reproduction in which the number of chromosomes are reduced by half producing two haploid cells whereas in meiosis two diploid cells are produced by cell division.
D:
Organisms producing through mitosis create genetically identical offspring as only a single parent copies its entire genetic material to the offspring. In meiosis, two parents produces gametes and the offspring have only half the number of chromosomes of each parent and hence genetic variation is introduced.

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ID: 804@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.313Z

Question:
How many and what type of daughter cells does meiosis produce?
A:
four haploid
B:
four diploid
C:
two haploid
D:
two diploid

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ID: 805@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.320Z

Question:
What structure is most important in forming the tetrads?
A:
centromere
B:
chiasmata
C:
kinetochore
D:
Synaptonemal complex

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ID: 806@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.341Z

Question:
At which stage of meiosis are sister chromatids separated from each other?
A:
anaphase I
B:
anaphase II
C:
prophase I
D:
prophase II

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ID: 807@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.356Z

Question:
At metaphase I, homologous chromosomes are connected only at what structures?
A:
chiasmata
B:
kinetochores
C:
microtubules
D:
recombination nodules

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ID: 808@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.361Z

Question:
What phase(s) of mitotic interphase is missing from meiotic interkinesis?
A:
<span data-math="\text{G}_0">\text{G}_0</span> phase
B:
<span data-math="\text{G}_1">\text{G}_1</span> phase
C:
<span data-math="\text{G}_2">\text{G}_2</span> phase
D:
S-phase

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ID: 809@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.380Z

Question:
What part of meiosis is most similar to mitosis?
A:
reduction division
B:
interkinesis
C:
meiosis I
D:
meiosis II

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ID: 810@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.391Z

Question:
Which of the following is not true during crossing over?
A:
Chiasmata are formed.
B:
Non-sister chromatids exchange genetic material.
C:
Recombination nodules mediate cross over events.
D:
Spindle microtubules guide the movement of chromosomal material.

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ID: 811@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.397Z

Question:
During which phase does the second round of genetic variation occur during meiosis?
A:
anaphase I
B:
metaphase I
C:
prophase II
D:
Genetic variation only occurs during prophase I.

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ID: 812@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.408Z

Question:
Describe what happens to the tetrads after they form.
A:
Prophase I of meiosis forms the tetrads. They line up at the midway point between the two poles of the cell to form the metaphase plate. There is equal chance of a microtubule fiber to encounter a maternally or a paternally inherited chromosome. Orientation of each tetrad is independent of the orientation of other tetrads.
B:
Prophase II of meiosis forms the tetrads. They line up at the midway point between the two poles of the cell to form the metaphase plate. There is equal chance of microtubule fiber to encounter maternally or paternally inherited chromosome. Orientation of each tetrad is independent of the orientation of other tetrads.
C:
Prophase I of mitosis forms the tetrads. They line up at the midway between the two poles of the cell to form the metaphase plate. There is equal chance of a microtubule fiber to encounter a maternally or a paternally inherited chromosome. Orientation of each tetrad is independent of the orientation of other tetrads.
D:
Prophase I of meiosis forms the tetrads. They line up at the midway between the two poles of the cell to form the metaphase plate. There is a chance of microtubule fiber to encounter maternally inherited chromosome. Orientation of each tetrad is independent of the orientation of other tetrads.

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ID: 813@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.420Z

Question:
Which of the following distinguishes metaphase I from metaphase II?
A:
Metaphase I occurs when chromosomes appear in homologous pairs on the spindle. Metaphase II has a single line of chromosomes on the spindle. A Pair of chromosomes is pulled apart and migrate towards pole in anaphase I, while in anaphase II sister chromatids separate. Telophase I reconstitutes the nucleus and loosen the chromosomes, while telophase II mimics telophase I.
B:
Prophase I condenses the chromosomes and eliminates the nuclear membrane. The microtubules arrange in a spindle. Prophase II mimics prophase I. Metaphase I occurs when chromosomes appear in homologous pairs on the spindle. Metaphase II has a single line of chromosomes on the spindle. Pairs of chromosomes are pulled apart and migrate towards the poles during anaphase I, while in anaphase II sister chromatids separate. Telophase I reconstitutes the nucleus and condenses the chromosomes, while telophase II mimics telophase I.
C:
Prophase I condense the chromosomes and add nuclear membrane. The microtubules arrange in a spindle. Prophase II mimics prophase I. Metaphase I occurs when chromosomes appear in homologous pairs on the spindle. Metaphase II has a single line of chromosomes on the spindle. Pair of chromosomes are pulled apart and migrate towards the poles in anaphase I, while in anaphase II sister chromatids separate. Telophase I reconstitutes the nucleus and loosens the chromosomes, while telophase II mimics telophase I.
D:
Prophase I condenses the chromosomes and eliminates the nuclear membrane. The microtubules arrange in a spindle. Prophase II mimics prophase I. Metaphase I occurs when chromosomes appear in homologous pairs on the spindle. During Metaphase II, the chromosomes line up in a double line across the spindle. Each pair of chromosomes is pulled apart and migrate towards the poles in anaphase I, while in anaphase II sister chromatids separate. Telophase I reconstitutes the nucleus and loosen the chromosomes, while telophase II mimics telophase I.

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ID: 814@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.432Z

Question:
Though the stages of meiosis have the same names as the stages of mitosis, they exhibit fundamental differences. What are the main differences between the two processes?
A:
Meiosis differs from mitosis in that the number of chromosomes is halved and genetic variation is introduced in meiosis, but not in mitosis.
B:
Meiosis differs from mitosis in that the number of chromosomes is halved and genetic variation is reduced in meiosis, but not in mitosis.
C:
Metaphase and telophase portions of meiosis and mitosis are the same. Meiosis and mitosis are also the same, except for the number of chromosomes. Anaphase I and anaphase are different.
D:
Prophase and telophase portions of meiosis and mitosis are the same. Meiosis II and mitosis are also the same and have the same number of chromosomes. Anaphase I and anaphase are different.

Tags:

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ID: 815@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.449Z

Question:
Explain how the orientation of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I of meiosis contributes to greater variation in gametes.
A:
The random alignment of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate ensures the random destination of the chromosomes in the daughter cells.
B:
Because homologous chromosomes dissociate from the spindle fibers during metaphase I, they move randomly to the daughter cells.
C:
The homologous chromosomes are paired tightly during metaphase I and undergo crossover as the synaptonemal complex forms a lattice around them.
D:
Recombination of maternal and paternal chromosomes occurs in metaphase I because the homologous chromosomes are not connected at their centromeres.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch11 apbio-ch11-s01 apbio-ch11-s01-lo04 apbio-ch11-ex015

ID: 816@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.454Z

Question:
Reproductive cells in most species are different from the cells that make up the rest of the organism. What are the “body” cells called and how are they different from the reproductive cells?
A:
Body cells are called gametes and they have half the number of chromosomes found in reproductive cells.
B:
Body cells are called somatic cells and have the same number of chromosomes as reproductive cells.
C:
Body cells are called somatic cells and have double the number of chromosomes found in reproductive cells.
D:
Body cells are called gametes and have double the number of chromosomes found in reproductive cells.

Tags:

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ID: 817@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.475Z

Question:
Spores are structures produced by some plants and all fungi. Which is true about them?
A:
Spores are haploid reproductive cells that can produce haploid organisms through mitosis.
B:
Spores are haploid precursors to gametes that give rise to gametes when environmental conditions are favorable.
C:
Spores are haploid reproductive cells that can produce diploid cells without fertilization.
D:
Spores are haploid cells formed only during asexual reproduction and so are not formed by meiosis.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch11 apbio-ch11-s01 apbio-ch11-s01-aplo-3-9 apbio-ch11-ex017

ID: 818@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.480Z

Question:
In prophase I, the homologous chromosomes are paired up and linked together. What binds the chromosomes together and maintains their alignment?
A:
cohesin proteins
B:
tetrads
C:
the centromere
D:
synaptonemal complex

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch11 apbio-ch11-s01 apbio-ch11-s01-aplo-3-10 apbio-ch11-ex018

ID: 819@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.497Z

Question:
One of the ways that sexual reproduction enhances the diversity of offspring from the same parents is through a process called crossing over. What entities does this occur between during prophase I?
A:
sister chromatids
B:
tetrads
C:
non-homologous chromosomes
D:
non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

Tags:

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ID: 820@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.509Z

Question:
There are three sources of genetic variation in sexual reproduction. Which is not considered random?
A:
All are random.
B:
Crossing over
C:
Egg and sperm fertilization
D:
Tetrad alignment on the meiotic spindle.

Tags:

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ID: 821@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.520Z

Question:
Which of the following scenarios provides the best support for the Red Queen Hypothesis?
A:
An asexually reproducing plant rapidly populates a hillside left barren by a fire.
B:
Individuals of a snail population that reproduce asexually die out after a parasite invades its territory.
C:
A widely dispersed population of ruffed grouse disappears because individuals have difficulty finding mates.
D:
A sexually-reproducing species of gophers goes extinct after a new predator is introduced.

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ID: 822@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.537Z

Question:
If a mutation occurs so that a fungus is no longer able to produce a minus mating type, will it still be able to reproduce?
A:
No, sexual mode of reproduction is the only mode of reproduction in fungi.
B:
No, absence of minus mating types will disrupt functions in fungi.
C:
Yes, it will be able to reproduce asexually by the mitotic divisions of spores.
D:
Yes, by action of some enzymes, it will be able to reproduce asexually.

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ID: 823@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.542Z

Question:
Which type of life cycle has both a haploid and a diploid multicellular stage?
A:
alternation of generations
B:
asexual
C:
diploid-dominant
D:
haploid-dominant

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ID: 824@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.565Z

Question:
What is a source of variation in asexual reproduction?
A:
crossing over of chromosomes
B:
mutation of DNA
C:
random assortment of chromosomes
D:
There is no variation in asexual reproduction.

Tags:

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ID: 825@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.576Z

Question:
What is a likely evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
A:
Sexual reproduction involves fewer steps.
B:
Sexual reproduction results in variation in the offspring.
C:
Sexual reproduction is more metabolically efficient.
D:
Sexual reproduction uses up fewer resources in a given environment.

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ID: 826@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.585Z

Question:
What is a disadvantage of sexual reproduction over asexual forms of reproduction?
A:
Half the population is capable of carrying offspring.
B:
Identical offspring are not produced.
C:
Adaptation to rapidly changing environments is more difficult.
D:
Mutation rates are slower.

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ID: 827@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.598Z

Question:
Fungi typically display which type of life cycle?
A:
alternation of generations
B:
asexual
C:
diploid-dominant
D:
haploid-dominant

Tags:

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ID: 828@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.609Z

Question:
What is a haploid cell produced in a diploid-dominant organism by meiosis called?
A:
gamete
B:
gametophyte
C:
spore
D:
sporophyte

Tags:

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ID: 829@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.620Z

Question:
Explain how the Red Queen’s catchphrase, “It takes all the running you can do to stay in the same place,” describes co-evolution between competing species.
A:
When a sexually reproducing species and an asexually reproducing species compete for the same resources, they both “run [evolve] in the same place” because the increased genetic variation in the sexually reproducing species balances the loss in energy it uses to find and attract mates.
B:
When one species gains an advantage with a favorable variation, selection increases on another species with which it competes. This species must also develop an advantage or it will be outcompeted. The two species “run [evolve] to stay in the same place.”
C:
When one species develops a mutation that decreases its ability to survive, a competing species will become better able to survive even though it has not changed in any way. In effect, this species “runs [evolves] to stay in the same place.”
D:
When two asexually reproducing species encounter rapid environmental change, the species that is also able to reproduce sexually will outcompete the other. This way it can “run [evolve] to stay in the same place.”

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ID: 830@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.637Z

Question:
Which three processes lead to variation among offspring that have the same two parents?
A:
genetic recombination, fertilization, meiosis
B:
crossing over, random chromosome assortment, genetic recombination
C:
meiosis, crossing over, genetic recombination
D:
fertilization, crossing over, random chromosome assortment

Tags:

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ID: 831@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.644Z

Question:
Compare the three main types of life cycles in multicellular organisms and give an example of an organism that employs each.
A:
In a diploid dominant cycle, the multicellular diploid stage is present, as in humans. Haploid dominant life cycles have a multicellular haploid stage, as in fungi. In alternation of generations, both haploid dominant and diploid dominant stages alternate, as in plants.
B:
In a diploid dominant cycle, the unicellular diploid stage is present, as in humans. In a haploid dominant life cycle, a unicellular haploid stage is present, as in fungi. In alternation of generations both haploid dominant and diploid dominant stages alternate, as in plants.
C:
In a diploid dominant cycle, a multicellular haploid stage is present, as in humans. In a haploid dominant life cycle, a multicellular diploid stage is present, as in fungi. In alternation of generations, both haploid dominant and diploid dominant stages alternate, as in plants.
D:
In a diploid dominant cycle, a multicellular diploid stage is present, as in algae. In a haploid dominant life cycle, a multicellular haploid stage is present, as in plants. In alternation of generations, both haploid dominant and diploid dominant stages alternate, as in fungi.

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ID: 832@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.655Z

Question:
Which one of the three types of life cycles of sexually reproducing organisms does not have a multicellular haploid stage?
A:
alternation of generations
B:
diploid-dominant
C:
haploid-dominant
D:
They all have a multicellular haploid stage in their life cycles.

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ID: 833@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.670Z

Question:
How are spores produced in haploid-dominant and alternation of generation life cycles?
A:
by gametophytes
B:
by germ cells
C:
through mitosis
D:
through meiosis

Tags:

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ID: 834@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.682Z

Question:
What part of meiosis produces four haploid cells?
A:
binary fission
B:
meiosis I
C:
meiosis II
D:
mitosis

Tags:

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ID: 835@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.693Z

Question:
What is a kinetochore?
A:
governs the formation of the meiotic spindle
B:
a protein complex attached to the centromere that links chromatids to the spindle
C:
a specialized region of the chromosome where two sister chromatids are attached
D:
a region where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material

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ID: 836@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.704Z

Question:
What is the difference between anaphase I and II in meiosis?
A:
Homologous chromosomes are separated in anaphase I and sister chromatids are separated in anaphase II.
B:
Homologous chromatids are separated in anaphase I and sister chromosomes are separated in anaphase II.
C:
Sister chromosomes are separated in anaphase I and homologous chromatids are separated in anaphase II.
D:
Sister chromatids are separated in anaphase I and homologous chromosomes are separated in anaphase II.

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ID: 837@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.715Z

Question:
How do the microtubules function in meiosis?
A:
form part of the spindle that lines up and guides the chromosomes
B:
form a complex with the sister chromatids to facilitate crossing over
C:
guide the reformation of the nuclear envelope
D:
maintain cellular structure during cell divisions

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ID: 838@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.727Z

Question:
Why is the S-phase of a cell’s life cycle not necessary between meiosis I and II?
A:
Cellular organelles do not need to be replicated.
B:
There is no need for cell growth at this time.
C:
The chromosomes have already been duplicated.
D:
The DNA replicates twice before meiosis I and does not need to replicate again.

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ID: 839@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.744Z

Question:
How are meiosis II and mitosis different?
A:
Each meiosis II division produces four cells; mitosis produces two.
B:
Meiosis II generates diploid cells; mitosis makes haploid cells.
C:
Meiosis II makes two nuclei per cell; mitosis makes one per cell.
D:
Sister chromatids separate in meiosis II; homologous chromosomes separate in mitosis.

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ID: 840@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.749Z

Question:
What is the function of recombination nodules in meiosis?
A:
Recombination nodules organize the spindle.
B:
Recombination nodules guide the chromosomes along the spindle during anaphase.
C:
Recombination nodules function with the kinetochore to facilitate microtubule binding.
D:
Recombination nodules mark the points of chiasmata and mediate the crossover process.

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ID: 841@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.765Z

Question:
When does the random assortment of chromosomes occur in meiosis?
A:
anaphase I
B:
metaphase I
C:
prophase II
D:
telophase II

Tags:

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ID: 842@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.771Z

Question:
Why is it necessary that meiosis occurs in sexually reproducing organisms?
A:
to maintain the viability of the gametes
B:
to ensure that genetic variation is continually generated
C:
to maintain a constant chromosome number in each generation
D:
to ensure evolutionary success

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ID: 843@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.782Z

Question:
Describe what happens to the number of chromosomes during the two divisions of meiosis.
A:
The number of chromosomes is halved in the first division of meiosis. In the second division, the number of chromosomes remains the same.
B:
The number of chromosomes is doubled in the first division of meiosis. In the second division, the number of chromosomes is halved.
C:
The number of chromosomes is halved in the first division of meiosis. In the second division, the number of chromosomes doubles.
D:
The number of chromosomes remains the same in the first division of meiosis. In the second division, the number of chromosomes is halved.

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ID: 844@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.792Z

Question:
Explain why meiosis might be considered a special case of mitosis.
A:
Meiosis simply repeats each step of mitosis two times.
B:
Meiosis is essentially the same as mitosis except it occurs only in the gonads.
C:
Meiosis and mitosis use similar mechanisms in the same sequence of steps.
D:
Meiosis and mitosis follow the same steps but in slightly different order.

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ID: 845@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.803Z

Question:
Explain how a boy could have his mother’s nose and his father’s ears.
A:
independent assortment of chromosomes
B:
the movement of homologous pairs during meiosis
C:
by receiving his father’s Y chromosome
D:
inheritance of intact chromosomes from parents

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ID: 846@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.814Z

Question:
The random, independent assortment during metaphase I produces a number of different gametes. The total possible number of different gametes is $2n$ , where $n$ equals the number of chromosome pairs. Approximately how many gametes are possible if a species has 4 chromosomes? Approximately how many gametes are possible in humans?
A:
8 and 100
B:
4 and 100,000
C:
4 and over 8 million
D:
16 and over 70 trillion

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ID: 847@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.832Z

Question:
Cells enter meiosis after going through an S-phase of their life cycle, so the chromosomes have been duplicated. In order to produce reproductive cells, however, the number needs to be cut in half. How does meiosis accomplish this goal?
A:
Meiosis produces haploid cells because only half of the DNA is replicated in the S-phase preceding meiosis I.
B:
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number in the first division and then restores the number in the second division.
C:
Chromosome number is halved during the interphase between meiosis I and meiosis II.
D:
Chromosome number is halved during meiosis when the homologous chromosomes separate, but the sister chromatids remain connected.

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ID: 848@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.843Z

Question:
There are multiple ways that the diversity of offspring from the same parents is enhanced. What is the contribution of metaphase I to this diversity?
A:
the random orientation of tetrads at the metaphase plate
B:
the random alignment of homologous chromosomes when they cross over
C:
the formation of chiasmata when the homologous chromosomes line up at the equator
D:
the formation of a synaptonemal complex during chromosomal synapsis

Tags:

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ID: 849@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.848Z

Question:
How does the alignment of chromosomes during prophase I facilitate the crossing over of chromosomal material?
A:
The homologous chromosomes cross over at recombination nodules, where the chromatids physically overlap.
B:
The chiasmata holds the homologous chromosomes closely together at specific points along their lengths.
C:
The synaptonemal complex forms bridges between the paired homologous chromosomes at points where crossing over occurs.
D:
The homologous chromosomes are tightly paired along their entire lengths, forming a synapsis.

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ID: 850@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.860Z

Question:
Which phase of a fern’s life cycle is free living?
A:
both diploid and haploid phases
B:
neither diploid nor haploid phase
C:
only the gametophyte
D:
only the sporophyte

Tags:

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ID: 851@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.871Z

Question:
What is the role of DNA mutation in sexual reproduction?
A:
It is the ultimate source of genetic variation.
B:
It reshuffles genetic changes over generations.
C:
It plays no significant role in sexual reproduction.
D:
It is responsible for crossover events.

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ID: 852@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.882Z

Question:
If sexual reproduction results in offspring that are unique, what are the offspring from asexual reproduction?
A:
equal mixtures of both parents
B:
clones
C:
asexual spores
D:
recombinations

Tags:

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ID: 853@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.898Z

Question:
What is a reason why there are fewer offspring from a population that reproduces sexually than from a population that reproduces asexually?
A:
Sexually reproducing organisms don’t live as long.
B:
The offspring have more genetic variations.
C:
Sexually reproducing organisms expend energy seeking and attracting mates.
D:
Asexual organisms are more fit for their environment.

Tags:

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ID: 854@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.904Z

Question:
Which organism employs a diploid-dominant life-cycle strategy?
A:
an evergreen tree
B:
a red algae
C:
a mushroom
D:
a gorilla

Tags:

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ID: 855@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.915Z

Question:
What is a gamete?
A:
a diploid single cell
B:
a haploid multicellular organism
C:
a diploid, multicellular organism
D:
a haploid single cell

Tags:

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ID: 856@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.926Z

Question:
How does the co-evolution of competing species assist the survival of both species?
A:
When a species gains an advantage, the other species must also develop an advantage or else it will be outcompeted.
B:
When a species loses an advantage, the other species must develop an advantage or it will be outcompeted.
C:
When a species gains an advantage, the other species must also develop an advantage so the two species can continue to compete.
D:
When a species loses an advantage, the other species must also lose an advantage so the two species can continue to compete.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch11 apbio-ch11-s02 apbio-ch11-s02-lo01 apbio-ch11-ot023

ID: 857@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.943Z

Question:
How is genetic variation introduced in sexual and asexual forms of reproduction?
A:
Variation in sexual reproduction: independent assortment of chromosomes, genetic recombination, random fertilization. Variation in asexual reproduction: mutations
B:
Variation in sexual reproduction : independent assortment of chromosomes, crossing over. Variations in asexual reproduction: random cloning.
C:
Variation in sexual reproduction: independent assortment of chromosomes, crossing over. Variations in sexual reproduction: mutations, random cloning.
D:
Variation in sexual reproduction: random assortment of chromosomes, genetic recombination, random fertilization. Variations in asexual reproduction: genetic recombination, mutations

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch11 apbio-ch11-s02 apbio-ch11-s02-lo02 apbio-ch11-ot024

ID: 858@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.948Z

Question:
Contrast diploid-dominant and haploid-dominant types of sexual reproduction.
A:
Both types of adult organisms grow from multicellular diploid zygotes.
B:
Both perform meiosis by the reduction division of germ cells.
C:
Both produce diploid zygotes from haploid cells.
D:
Both produce haploid spores from diploid cells.

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ID: 859@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.965Z

Question:
Compare and contrast the haploid-dominant and alternation of generations life cycles.
A:
meiosis
B:
(+) and (−) mating types
C:
spores
D:
a free-living haploid stage

Tags:

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ID: 860@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.970Z

Question:
Mendel performed hybridizations by transferring pollen to the female ova from what part of the male plant?
A:
anther
B:
pistil
C:
stigma
D:
seed

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ID: 861@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.982Z

Question:
Which is one of the seven characteristics that Mendel observed in pea plants?
A:
flower size
B:
leaf shape
C:
seed texture
D:
stem color

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex002

ID: 862@1

2015-08-20T13:03:42.994Z

Question:
Imagine you are performing a cross involving garden pea plants. What F1 offspring would you expect if you cross true-breeding parents with green seeds and yellow seeds? Yellow seed color is dominant over green.
A:
100 percent yellow-green seeds
B:
100 percent yellow seeds
C:
50 percent yellow, 50 percent green seeds
D:
25 percent green, 75 percent yellow seeds

Tags:

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ID: 863@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.010Z

Question:
Consider a cross to investigate the pea pod texture trait, involving constricted or inflated pods. Mendel found that the traits behave according to a dominant/recessive pattern in which inflated pods were dominant. If you performed this cross and obtained 650 inflated-pod plants in the F2 generation bred from true-breading stock, approximately how many constricted-pod plants would you expect to have?
A:
600
B:
165
C:
217
D:
468

Tags:

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ID: 864@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.021Z

Question:
Describe one reason why the garden pea was an excellent model system for studying inheritance.
A:
The garden pea has flowers that close tightly to promote cross-fertilization.
B:
The garden pea has flowers that close tightly to prevent cross-fertilization.
C:
The garden pea does not mature in one season and is a perennial plant.
D:
Male and female reproductive parts attain maturity at different times, promoting self-fertilization.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex005

ID: 865@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.032Z

Question:
How would you perform a reciprocal cross to test stem height in the garden pea?
A:
First cross is performed by transferring the pollen of a heterozygous tall plant to the stigma of a true breeding dwarf plant. Second cross is performed by transferring the pollen of a heterozygous dwarf plant to the stigma of a true breeding tall plant.
B:
First cross is performed by transferring the pollen of a true breeding tall plant to the stigma of a true breeding dwarf plant. Second cross is performed by transferring the pollen of a true breeding dwarf plant to the stigma of a true breeding tall plant.
C:
First cross is performed by transferring the pollen of a true breeding tall plant to the stigma of a heterozygous dwarf plant. Second cross is performed by transferring the pollen of a heterozygous dwarf plant to the stigma of a true breeding tall plant.
D:
First cross is performed by transferring the pollen of a heterozygous tall plant to the stigma of a heterozygous dwarf plant. Second cross is performed by transferring the pollen of a heterozygous tall plant to the stigma of a heterozygous dwarf plant.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex006

ID: 866@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.037Z

Question:
In pea plants, round peas (R) are dominant to wrinkled peas (r).You do a test cross between a pea plant with wrinkled peas (genotype rr) and a plant of unknown genotype that has round peas. You end up with three plants, all which have round peas. From this data, can you tell if the round pea parent plant is homozygous dominant or heterozygous? If the round pea parent plant is heterozygous, what is the probability that a random sample of 3 progeny peas will all be round?
A:
The data set is too small to predict the genotype of the round pea plant. The probability of having only round pea plants from a random sample of 3 progeny will be <span data-math="^1/_8">^1/_8</span>.
B:
The genotype of the unknown round pea plant is Rr. The probability of having only round pea plants from a random sample of 3 progeny will be <span data-math="^1/_4">^1/_4</span>.
C:
The genotype of the unknown round pea plant is Rr. The probability of having only round pea plants from a random sample of 3 progeny will be <span data-math="^1/_2">^1/_2</span>.
D:
The data set is too small to predict the genotype of the round pea plant. The probability of having only round pea plants from a random sample of 3 progeny will be <span data-math="^1/_6">^1/_6</span>.

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apbio visual-connection inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 time-long dok4 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex007

ID: 867@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.054Z

Question:
alt text Using the tree above, what are the genotypes of the individuals labeled 1, 2 and 3?
A:
1- aa , 2-AA, 3- AA
B:
1-aa, 2-Aa, 3- Aa
C:
1-aa, 2-Aa, 3-AA
D:
1-Aa, 2-Aa, 3-Aa

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex008

ID: 868@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.065Z

Question:
According to this passage, why does P. falciparum only need one drug-resistant dhps allele to express the drug resistance trait?
A:
The drug-resistant dhps allele is co-dominant with the wild type allele.
B:
Only one dhps allele is present during all stages of the <em>P. falciparum</em> life cycle.
C:
Only one dhps allele is present when <em>P. falciparum</em> is infectious.
D:
The drug-resistant dhps allele prevents the wild type allele from being expressed.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 evolution apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ex009

ID: 869@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.077Z

Question:
What ratio of offspring would result from a cross between a white-eyed male and a female that is heterozygous for red eye color?
A:
<span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> of the offspring are males and hemizygous dominant with red eyes and <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> are male and hemizygous recessive with white eyes. <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> are female and heterozygous with red eyes and <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> are females and homozygous recessive with white eyes.
B:
<span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> of the offspring are male and hemizygous dominant with red eyes and <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> are male hemizygous recessive with white eyes. <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> are female and heterozygous with red eyes and <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> are female and homozygous recessive with white eyes.
C:
<span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> of the males are hemizygous dominant with red eyes and <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> of the male are hemizygous recessive with white eyes. <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> females are heterozygous with red eyes and <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> of the females are homozygous with white eyes.
D:
<span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> of the males are hemizygous dominant with red eyes and <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> of the male are hemizygous recessive with white eyes. <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> females are heterozygous with red eyes and <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> of the females are homozygous recessive with white eyes

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ex010

ID: 870@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.082Z

Question:
The most common form of hemophilia affects 1 out of every 5,000 male births worldwide, but the condition is much rarer in females. Explain why this is the case.
A:
Females need two mutated X chromosomes to be hemophilic.
B:
Females need one mutated X chromosome to be hemophilic.
C:
Females do not inherit mutated X chromosomes.
D:
Females need two mutated X chromosomes to not be hemophilic.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 interactive apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-s02-aplo-3-16 apbio-ch12-ex011

ID: 871@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.093Z

Question:
The observable traits expressed by an organism are described as its
A:
alleles
B:
genotype
C:
phenotype
D:
zygote

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex012

ID: 872@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.104Z

Question:
A recessive trait will be observed in individuals that are what for that trait?
A:
diploid
B:
heterozygous
C:
homozygous or heterozygous
D:
homozygous

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex013

ID: 873@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.121Z

Question:
If black and white true-breeding mice are mated and the result is all gray offspring, what inheritance pattern would this be indicative of ?
A:
codominance
B:
dominance
C:
incomplete dominance
D:
multiple alleles

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ex014

ID: 874@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.127Z

Question:
The ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the IA, IB, and I alleles. The IA allele encodes the A blood group antigen, IB encodes B, and I encodes O. Both A and B are dominant to O. If a heterozygous blood type A parent (iAi) and a heterozygous blood type B parent (iBi) mate, one quarter of their offspring will have AB blood type (IAIB) in which both antigens are expressed equally. Therefore, the ABO blood groups are an example of:
A:
codominance and incomplete dominance
B:
incomplete dominance only
C:
multiple alleles and incomplete dominance
D:
multiple alleles and codominance

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ex015

ID: 875@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.137Z

Question:
In a mating between two individuals that are heterozygous for a recessive lethal allele that is expressed in utero, what genotypic ratio (homozygous dominant : heterozygous : homozygous recessive) would you expect to observe in the off-spring?
A:
<span data-math="1 : 2 : 1">1 : 2 : 1</span>
B:
<span data-math="3 : 1 : 1">3 : 1 : 1</span>
C:
<span data-math="1 : 2 : 0">1 : 2 : 0</span>
D:
<span data-math="0 : 2 : 1">0 : 2 : 1</span>

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex016

ID: 876@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.148Z

Question:
The forked line and probability methods make use of what probability rule?
A:
monohybrid rule
B:
product rule
C:
sum rule
D:
test cross

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex017

ID: 877@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.160Z

Question:
Flower position in pea plants is determined by a gene with axial and terminal alleles. Given that axial is dominant to terminal, list all of the possible F1 and F2 genotypes and phenotypes from a cross involving parents that are homozygous for each trait. Express genotypes with conventional genetic abbreviations.
A:
F1: All AA-axial; F2: AA-Axial and aa-terminal.
B:
F1: All aa-terminal; F2: AA-Axial and Aa-terminal.
C:
F1: AA-axial and Aa-terminal; F2: All AA-axial.
D:
F1: All Aa-axial; F2: AA-Axial, Aa-Axial, and aa-terminal.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex018

ID: 878@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.177Z

Question:
Use a Punnett square to predict the offspring in a cross between a dwarf pea plant (homozygous recessive) and a tall pea plant (heterozygous). What is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
A:
1 Tall : 1 dwarf
B:
1 Tall : 2 dwarf
C:
3 Tall : 1 dwarf
D:
1 dwarf : 4 Tall

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex019

ID: 879@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.182Z

Question:
Can a human male be a carrier of red-green color blindness?
A:
Yes, males can be the carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is autosomal dominant.
B:
No, males cannot be the carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is X-linked.
C:
No, males cannot be the carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is Y-linked.
D:
Yes, males can be the carriers of red-green color blindness, as color blindness is autosomal recessive.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ex020

ID: 880@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.193Z

Question:
The trait for widow’s peak can be considered a monoallelic dominant trait in humans. If a man with a widow’s peak and a woman with a straight hairline have a child together, what is the probability that the child will inherit the widow’s peak if you know that the father’s mother had a straight hairline?
A:
0.25
B:
0.5
C:
0.75
D:
1

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-aplo-3-12 apbio-ch12-ex021

ID: 881@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.204Z

Question:
Don’t like Brussels sprouts? Blame your genes. The chemical PTC (phenylthiocarbamide), which is nearly identical to a compound found in the cabbage family, tastes very bitter for some people. Others cannot detect a taste. The ability to taste PTC is incompletely dominant and is controlled by a gene on chromosome 7. A woman who does not like Brussels sprouts, but will eat them has a child with a man who hates Brussels sprouts. What is the probability that their son likes Brussels sprouts?
A:
0
B:
0.25
C:
0.5
D:
1

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-aplo-3-12 apbio-ch12-ex022

ID: 882@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.220Z

Question:
Tay-Sachs is an autosomal recessive disorder that causes severe problems in neurons. Children who receive two copies of the gene rarely live beyond the age of five. There is no cure for the disease. During a genetic screening a couple is told that both partners carry the recessive gene. What kind of issue must the couple confront?
A:
scientific
B:
financial
C:
ethical
D:
educational

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-aplo-3-13 apbio-ch12-ex024

ID: 883@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.232Z

Question:
A student who knows her blood type and those of her parents realizes that, genetically, her blood type is not possible given the blood types of her parents. She is distressed because:
A:
She will not be able to receive blood transfusions.
B:
Her parents may not be her biological parents.
C:
She has abnormal blood that could be diseased.
D:
Her blood type genes were altered during crossing over.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-aplo-3-13 apbio-ch12-ex025

ID: 884@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.244Z

Question:
In pea plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant to white flowers (p) and yellow peas (Y) are dominant to green peas (y). What are the possible genotypes and phenotypes for a cross between PpYY and ppYy pea plants? How many squares do you need to do a Punnett square analysis of this cross?
A:
ppYY, Ppyy, ppYY, ppyy yielding white flowers with yellow peas, purple flowers with yellow peas, and white flowers with green peas. You can find this with a <span data-math="3 \times 3">3 \times 3</span> Punnett square.
B:
PPYY, PpYy, ppYY, ppyy yielding purple flowers with yellow peas, white flowers with yellow peas, and white flowers with green peas. You can find this with a <span data-math="2 \times 2">2 \times 2</span> Punnett square.
C:
Ppyy, PpYy, ppYY, ppyy yielding purple flowers with green peas, purple flowers with yellow peas, white flowers with yellow peas, and white flowers with green peas. You can find this with a <span data-math="3 \times 3">3 \times 3</span> Punnett square.
D:
PpYY, PpYy, ppYY, ppYy yielding purple flowers with yellow peas, and white flowers with yellow peas. You can find this with a <span data-math="2 \times 2">2 \times 2</span> Punnett square.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-2 time-long apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex027

ID: 885@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.249Z

Question:
A couple produces a green-eyed child. Both of the parents have brown eyes. Explain how this is genetically possible.
A:
Both parents are homozygous for the dominant trait of brown eyes.
B:
Both parents are heterozygous, having the green trait on the green-blue eye gene.
C:
Both parents are heterozygous with the recessive trait of brown eyes.
D:
Both parents are homozygous having the green trait on the green-blue eye gene.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-long interactive apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo01 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-14 apbio-ch12-ex028

ID: 886@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.266Z

Question:
Explain how Mendel’s experiments help modern-day farmers breed crops that exhibit preferred traits, like tall height or large fruit size.
A:
by providing information about the variety of pea plants
B:
by providing information about soil condition
C:
by providing information about organic feritilizers
D:
by providing information about the inheritance of traits and the concept of dominance

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 time-long interactive apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo01 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-14 apbio-ch12-ex029

ID: 887@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.271Z

Question:
How many different offspring genotypes are expected in a trihybrid cross between parents heterozygous for all three traits? How many phenotypes are expected if the traits behave in a dominant and recessive pattern?
A:
64 genotypes; 16 phenotypes
B:
16 genotypes; 64 phenotypes
C:
8 genotypes; 27 phenotypes
D:
27 genotypes; 8 phenotypes

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex030

ID: 888@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.282Z

Question:
Four-o’ clock flowers may be red, pink or white. In the crossing of a true-breeding red and true-breeding white plants, all the offspring are pink. Use a Punnett square to determine the correct genotype of the offspring if the red parent has genotype RR and the white parent has genotype rr.
A:
RR and Rr
B:
Rr and rr
C:
Rr only
D:
RR only

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex031

ID: 889@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.294Z

Question:
Which cellular process underlies Mendel’s law of independent assortment?
A:
Chromosomes align randomly during meiosis.
B:
Chromosomes can exchange genetic material during crossover.
C:
Gametes contain half the number of chromosomes of somatic cells.
D:
Daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells after mitosis.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex032

ID: 890@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.311Z

Question:
While studying meiosis, you observe that gametes receive one copy of each pair of homologous chromosomes and one copy of the sex chromosomes. This observation is the physical explanation of Mendel’s law of
A:
dominance
B:
independent assortment
C:
random distribution of traits
D:
segregation

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex033

ID: 891@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.316Z

Question:
In some primroses, the petal color blue is dominant. A cross between a true-breed blue primrose and a white primrose yields progeny with white petals. A second gene at another locus prevented the expression of the dominant coat color. This is an example of:
A:
codominance
B:
hemizygosity
C:
incomplete dominance
D:
epistasis

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo03 apbio-ch12-ex034

ID: 892@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.328Z

Question:
This table reports the results of cross 1 and 2. In cross 1, swollen pods were crossed with shriveled pods. The F 1 generation contained 314 swollen and 298 shriveled. In cross 2, swollen F 1 was crossed with swollen F 1. The F 2 generation contained 594 swollen and 97 shriveled. Purple flowers (P) are dominant over red flowers (p) and long pollen grains are dominant over round pollen grains. When purple flowers and long pollen grain plants were crossed with plants with white flowers and round pollen grains, all the F1 plants showed purple flowers and long pollen grains. The F1 plants were crossed and the results are in the table: What conclusions about the physical relationship between the traits can be drawn from the experiment?
A:
The traits are probably linked.
B:
The traits follow the law of independent assortment
C:
The traits are located on different chromosomes
D:
There was epistasis.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo03 apbio-ch12-ex035

ID: 893@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.344Z

Question:
Use the probability method to calculate the genotypes and genotypic proportions of a cross between AABBCc and Aabbcc parents.
A:
Possible genotypes are AABBcc, AaBbCc, AaBbcc and the ratio <span data-math="1 : 2 : 1">1 : 2 : 1</span>.
B:
Possible genotypes are AABbcc, AaBbCc, AaBbcc and the ratio <span data-math="1 : 3 : 1">1 : 3 : 1</span>.
C:
Possible genotypes are AABbCc, AABbcc, AaBbCc, AaBbcc and the ratio <span data-math="1 : 1 : 1 : 1">1 : 1 : 1 : 1</span>.
D:
Possible genotypes are AABbcc, AaBbCC, AaBbcc and the ratio <span data-math="1 : 1 : 1">1 : 1 : 1</span>.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo02 apbio-ch12-ex036

ID: 894@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.355Z

Question:
How does the segregation of traits result in different combinations of gametes at the end of meiosis?
A:
The chromosomes randomly align during metaphase I at the equator, and separation of homologous chromosomes occurs during anaphase I. Similarly separation of sister chromatids occurs at anaphase II of meiosis II. At the end of meiosis II, four different gametic combinations are produced, each containing a haploid set of chromosomes.
B:
The chromosomes randomly align during anaphase I at the equator. Separation of bivalent chromosomes occur during metaphase I of meiosis I. Similarly, separation of sister chromatids occurs at metaphase II of meiosis II. At the end of meiosis II, four different gametic combinations are produced, each containing a haploid set of chromosomes.
C:
The chromosomes randomly align during prophase I at the equator, and separation of sister chromatids occurs during metaphase I of meiosis I. Similarly separation of bivalent chromosomes occur at metaphase II of meiosis II. At the end of meiosis II, four different gametic combinations are produced, each containing a diploid set of chromosomes.
D:
The chromosomes randomly align during prophase I at the equator, and separation of bivalent chromosomes occur during anaphase I of meiosis I. Similarly, separation of homologous chromosomes occurs at metaphase II of meiosis II. At the end of meiosis II, four different gametic combinations are produced, each containing a diploid set of chromosomes.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo01 apbio-ch12-ex037

ID: 895@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.366Z

Question:
In Section 12.3, “Laws of Inheritance,” an example of epistasis was given for summer squash. Cross white WwYy heterozygotes to demonstrate the phenotypic ratio of 12 white:3 yellow:1 green that was given in the text.
A:
12 offspring are white, as the W gene is epistatic to the Y gene. Three offspring are yellow, because w is not epistatic. Green offspring is obtained when the recessive form of both genes (wwyy) are present.
B:
12 offspring are white as W gene is hypostatic to Y gene. Three offspring are yellow because Y is epistatic to w. Green offspring is obtained when the dominant form of both the genes (WWYY) is present.
C:
12 offspring are white as W gene is dominant. Three offspring are yellow because Y is dominant and w is recessive. Green offspring is obtained when the recessive form of both the genes (wwyy) is present, showing codominance.
D:
12 offspring are white as W is epistatic to Y gene. Three offspring are yellow because Y is hypostatic to w. Green offspring is obtained when the recessive form of both the genes (wwyy) are present, showing codominance.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo03 apbio-ch12-ex038

ID: 896@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.372Z

Question:
A couple has 3 daughters. What is the probability that the next child they have will be a daughter?
A:
<span data-math="0\%">0\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="25\%">25\%</span>
C:
<span data-math="50\%">50\%</span>
D:
<span data-math="100\%">100\%</span>

Tags:

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ID: 897@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.383Z

Question:
What is the probability that a couple will have three daughters?
A:
<span data-math="^1/_2">^1/_2</span>
B:
<span data-math="^1/_3">^1/_3</span>
C:
<span data-math="^1/_6">^1/_6</span>
D:
<span data-math="^1/_8">^1/_8</span>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-14 apbio-ch12-ex040

ID: 898@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.400Z

Question:
Petunias can be blue, red, or violet. When a blue flower is crossed with a red flower, all the resulting flowers are violet. When a violet flower is crossed with a red flower, about half of the flowers are violet and half are red. How do you characterize the color trait?
A:
complete dominance
B:
codominance
C:
incomplete dominance
D:
sex-linked

Tags:

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ID: 899@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.406Z

Question:
Petunias can be blue, red, or violet. When a blue flower is crossed with a red flower, all the resulting flowers are violet. Two violet petunias are crossed. Which is the most probable result of the cross?
A:
<span data-math="75\%">75\%</span> of the flowers are blue and <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> of the flowers are red.
B:
<span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> of the flowers are blue and <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> of the flowers are red.
C:
<span data-math="75\%">75\%</span> of the flowers are red and <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> are blue.
D:
<span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> of the flowers are blue, <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> of the flowers are violet, and <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> of the flowers are red.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-15 apbio-ch12-ex043

ID: 900@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.416Z

Question:
Fruit flies ( Drosophila melanogaster ) with a wild-type phenotype have gray bodies and red eyes. Certain mutations can cause changes to these traits. Mutant flies may have a black body and/or cinnabar eyes. To study the genetics of these traits, a researcher crossed a true-breeding wild-typed male fly with a true-breeding female fly with a black body and cinnabar eyes. All of the F1 progeny displayed a wild type phenotype. Which of the following is correct about the traits observed?
A:
Gray body and cinnabar eyes are dominant.
B:
Eye color is sex-linked.
C:
Body color is sex-linked.
D:
Gray body and red eyes are dominant.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-16 apbio-ch12-ex045

ID: 901@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.427Z

Question:
This table shows the predicted number of body and eye color for fruit flies. It predicts that there will be 244 gray body and red eye individuals. It predicts that there will be 244 black body and cinnabar eye individuals. It predicts that there will be 244 gray body and cinnabar eye individuals. It predicts that there will be 244 black body and red eye individuals. Female flies from the F1 generation were crossed with true-breeding male flies with black bodies and cinnabar eyes. The table below represents the predicted outcome and the data obtained from the cross. What was the assumption that lead to the predicted numbers?
A:
The traits assort independently.
B:
The traits are located on the X-chromosome.
C:
The traits are on the same chromosome.
D:
The female flies were homozygous for wild type alleles.

Tags:

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ID: 902@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.439Z

Question:

Cats can be black, yellow, or calico (black and yellow patches). Coat color is carried on the X chromosome. What typed of inheritance is color coat in cats?

  1. Complete dominance
  2. Codominance
  3. Incomplete dominance
  4. Sex-linked
A:
2
B:
3
C:
2,4
D:
3,4

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-17 apbio-ch12-ex048

ID: 903@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.456Z

Question:
Cats can be black, yellow or calico (black and yellow patches). Coat color is carried on the X chromosome. A yellow cat is crossed with a black cat. Assume that the offspring are both male and female. What are the phenotypes of the offspring and in what proportions?
A:
All the cats are yellow.
B:
All the cats are black.
C:
All the cats are calico.
D:
There is not enough information to answer the question.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-17 apbio-ch12-ex049

ID: 904@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.461Z

Question:
Which of the following characteristics contributed to the success of Mendel’s experiments?
A:
Mendel chose traits that have many intermediate variations.
B:
Mendel used true-breeding plants.
C:
Only a few plants may be cultivated simultaneously.
D:
Seeds can be harvested only every other year.

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot001

ID: 905@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.472Z

Question:
How did Mendel make sure that he knew the traits came from the parent plants?
A:
He chose plants that could only cross fertilize.
B:
He planted peas far apart so that they would only self-fertilize.
C:
He removed the anthers and manually fertilized the plants.
D:
He selected a plant having a short life cycle.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot002

ID: 906@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.486Z

Question:
When pure-breeding yellow seed and green-seed pea plants are crossed, the dominant to recessive ratio in the F2 generation is:
A:
<span data-math="3 : 1">3 : 1</span>
B:
<span data-math="1 : 1">1 : 1</span>
C:
<span data-math="4 : 1">4 : 1</span>
D:
<span data-math="1 : 2 : 1">1 : 2 : 1</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo02 apbio-ch12-ot003

ID: 907@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.498Z

Question:
Petunias can be blue, red, or violet. When a blue flower is crossed with a red flower, all the resulting flowers are violet. When a violet flower is crossed with another violet flower, what are the expected ratios of colors?
A:
blue/red in a <span data-math="1 : 1">1 : 1</span> ratio
B:
blue/red in a <span data-math="3 : 1">3 : 1</span> ratio
C:
blue/violet/red in a <span data-math="1 : 2 : 1">1 : 2 : 1</span> ratio
D:
blue/violet/red in a <span data-math="1 : 3 : 1">1 : 3 : 1</span> ratio

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo02 apbio-ch12-ot004

ID: 908@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.515Z

Question:
What characteristics of Mendel’s experiments show his understanding of the scientific method?
A:
Mendel selected a perennial plant, so that very few seeds are produced and it is easy to perform statistical analyses, performed cross fertilization manually to avoid confusion of parentage, and chose many traits at a time to get fast results.
B:
Mendel selected a plant with a short life cycle so that many seeds are produced to perform statistical analyses, performed self-fertilization manually, and chose to study easily measurable traits.
C:
Mendel selected a plant with a short life cycle so that many seeds are produced to perform statistical analysis, performed self-fertilization manually, and chose only traits that were linked.
D:
Mendel selected a plant that was easy to grow, produced few seeds so that it is easy to perform statistical analysis, performed cross fertilization manually, and chose complex traits to understand recombination.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot005

ID: 909@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.521Z

Question:
This table reports the results of cross 1 and 2. In cross 1, swollen pods were crossed with shriveled pods. The F 1 generation contained 314 swollen and 298 shriveled. In cross 2, swollen F 1 was crossed with swollen F 1. The F 2 generation contained 594 swollen and 97 shriveled. In cross 1, a pea plant with swollen pods is crossed with a plant with shriveled pods. The cross yields 314 plants with swollen pods and 298 plants with shriveled pods. In cross 2, the plants with swollen pods from cross 1 are self-pollinated. The results are 594 plants with swollen pods and 97 plants with shriveled pods. After considering both crosses, answer the following questions: Which trait is recessive? What is the genotype of the swollen pod plant in cross 1? What is the genotype of the shriveled pod plant in cross 1? What is the genotype of the swollen pod plant of F1?
A:
Shriveled pod is recessive, genotype of swollen pod in cross 1 is Ss, genotype of shriveled pod plant in cross 1 is ss, and genotype of swollen pod plant of F1 generation is Ss.
B:
Shriveled pod is recessive, genotype of swollen pod plant in cross 1 is SS, genotype of shriveled pod plant in cross 1 is ss, and genotype of swollen pod plant of F1 generation is SS.
C:
Shriveled pod is recessive, genotype of swollen pod plant in cross 1 cannot be determined, genotype of shriveled pod plant in cross 1 is ss, and genotype of swollen pod plant of F1 generation is SS.
D:
Swollen and shriveled pods are codominant, genotype of swollen pod plant in cross 1 is Ss, genotype of shriveled pod plant in cross 1 is ss, and genotype of shriveled pod plants of F1 generation is Ss.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s01 apbio-ch12-s01-lo02 apbio-ch12-ot006

ID: 910@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.533Z

Question:
In the mouse coat color phenotype, gray (G) is dominant over white (g). A true-breeding gray mouse is crossed with a true-breeding white mouse. What is the genotype of the F1 offspring resulting from the cross?
A:
GG
B:
Gg
C:
gg
D:
not enough information to answer the question

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot007

ID: 911@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.544Z

Question:
In the mouse coat color phenotype, gray (G) is dominant over white (g). A true-breeding gray mouse is crossed with a true-breeding white mouse. The F1 mice are self-crossed. What is (are) the possible phenotype(s) of the mice in F2?
A:
all white
B:
all gray
C:
half gray and half white
D:
three quarters gray and one quarter white

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot008

ID: 912@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.560Z

Question:
A Punnett square shows the heterozygous parents of four possible genotypes. The offspring genotypes shown are 1 homozygous for smooth seeds, 2 heterozygous, and 1 missing. In pea plants, smooth seeds (S) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (s). In a genetic cross of two plants that are heterozygous for the seed shape trait, the Punnett square is drawn below. What is the missing genotype?
A:
‘SS’
B:
‘Ss’
C:
‘sS’
D:
‘ss’

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo02 apbio-ch12-ot009

ID: 913@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.565Z

Question:
The color blindness gene is recessive and X linked. It is written as Xb. A woman who is color blind has a son with a man with normal vision. What is the genotype of the son? Use a Punnett square to answer the question.
A:
XBY
B:
XbY
C:
XBXB
D:
XbXb

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ot010

ID: 914@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.576Z

Question:
What is the probability that a daughter will inherit an X-linked recessive allele from her father?
A:
<span data-math="25\%">25\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="50\%">50\%</span>
C:
<span data-math="75\%">75\%</span>
D:
<span data-math="100\%">100\%</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ot011

ID: 915@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.588Z

Question:
If the inheritance of two traits fully obeys Mendelian laws of inheritance, you may assume that the genes are located
A:
on the autosomal chromosomes
B:
on the X chromosomes
C:
on the same chromosome
D:
on separate chromosomes

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot012

ID: 916@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.604Z

Question:
You have adopted a gray mouse. When crossed with a white mouse, your gray mouse has a first litter of 3 gray mice and 2 white mice. In the second litter, you observe 3 gray mice and 4 white mice. What is the probable genotype of your gray mouse? Write out a cross to explain your answer.
A:
Genotype of the gray mouse is GG. It is a test cross.
B:
Genotype of the gray mouse is Gg. It is a test cross.
C:
Genotype of the gray mouse is gg. It is a back cross.
D:
Genotype of the gray mouse cannot be determined. It is a back cross.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot013

ID: 917@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.610Z

Question:
Some mice are born with a yellow coat controlled by the gene Y. Examine the following crosses: P0: yellow mouse X gray mouse F1: 5 yellow mice, 4 gray mice P1: yellow mouse F1 X yellow mouse F1 F2: 7 gray, 15 yellow 9 dead a. What is the name of the genetic test performed in the first cross? b. Which trait is dominant? c. What is the genotype of the yellow mouse in first cross? d. What is the genotype of the gray mouse in the second cross? e. Why are 9 mice dead in F2?
A:
Back cross; yellow coat is recessive; genotype of the yellow coat in the first cross is yy; genotype of the gray mouse in the second cross is YY; yellow coat homozygous recessive condition is lethal.
B:
Back cross; yellow coat is dominant; genotype of the yellow coat in the first cross is YY; genotype of the gray mouse in the second cross is yy; yellow coat heterozygous dominant condition is lethal.
C:
Test cross; yellow coat is recessive; genotype of the yellow coat in the first cross is yy; genotype of the gray mouse in the second cross is yy; yellow coat heterozygous dominant condition is lethal.
D:
Test cross; yellow coat is dominant; genotype of the yellow coat in the first cross is Yy; genotype of the gray mouse in the second cross is yy; yellow coat homozygous dominant condition is lethal.

Tags:

apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo02 apbio-ch12-ot014

ID: 918@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.720Z

Question:
A boy, whose parents and grandparents had normal vision, is color-blind. What are the genotypes for his mother and his maternal grandparents? Use XB for the dominant normal condition and Xb for the recessive, color-blind phenotype.
A:
Maternal grandmother and mother both are the carriers of the disorder with genotype XBXb.
B:
Maternal grandmother and mother both are homozygous dominant (XBXB) with normal vision.
C:
Maternal grandmother is homozygous dominant (XBXB) with normal vision whereas mother is a heterozygous (XBXb) carrier for the disorder.
D:
Maternal grandmother is heterozygous (XBXb) with normal vision whereas mother is a homozygous dominant (XBXB) carrier for the disorder.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ot015

ID: 919@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.737Z

Question:
A student is blood type A. His father was type A and his mother was type O. Does the student need a genetic test to figure out whether his genotype is AA or AO? Explain your answer.
A:
No, it is evident from the information that the student will have genotype IAi as the mother has genotype ii.
B:
No, it is evident from the information that the student will have genotype (IAIA).
C:
He will need to take a genetic test as the father can be heterozygous for the blood group (IAi) that can result in either an A or O blood group.
D:
He will need to take a genetic test as the mother can be heterozygous for the blood group (IAi) that can result in either an A or O blood group.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-aplo-3-12 apbio-ch12-ot016

ID: 920@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.743Z

Question:
A genetic counselor is discussing with a couple the possibility of having a child with Tay-Sachs given that they are both of Eastern European Jewish ancestry. What is the counselor going to discuss with them?
A:
On the basis of pedigree, the counselor predicts the probability of a child to be affected with the disease and provides them with personal, moral and ethical advice.
B:
The counselor will directly suggest the parents to undergo tests available for predicting whether the child is affected or not. The counselor can advise for an abortion if the condition is severe.
C:
The counselor looks into the history of the parents and predicts the possibility of having a diseased child. The counselor can advise that it is not right to abort a child.
D:
The counselor can analyze the pedigree of the couple and inform them about their probability of having an affected child. The counselor can suggest to them the necessary genetic screening tests.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long ap-test-prep blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-aplo-3-13 apbio-ch12-ot017

ID: 921@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.755Z

Question:
What is the probability for an offspring in a trihybrid cross between parents heterozygous for all three traits when the traits follow a dominant and recessive pattern to express the recessive trait at all three loci?
A:
<span data-math="^1/_{4}">^1/_{4}</span>
B:
<span data-math="^1/_{16}">^1/_{16}</span>
C:
<span data-math="^1/_{32}">^1/_{32}</span>
D:
<span data-math="^1/_{64}">^1/_{64}</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo02 apbio-ch12-ot018

ID: 922@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.766Z

Question:
How many different genotypes and phenotypes are expected in a tetrahybrid cross between parents heterozygous for all four traits when the traits follow a dominant and recessive pattern?
A:
64 genotypes; 16 phenotypes
B:
81 genotypes; 16 phenotypes
C:
256 genotypes; 108 phenotypes
D:
81 genotypes; 27 phenotypes

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo02 apbio-ch12-ot019

ID: 923@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.777Z

Question:
When the expression of one gene pair masks or modifies the expression of another, the genes show:
A:
codominance
B:
epistasis
C:
incomplete dominance
D:
partial linkage

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo03 apbio-ch12-ot020

ID: 924@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.794Z

Question:
In Mendel’s experiments all traits assorted independently. The main reason is that:
A:
Peas do not have linked genes.
B:
The traits happened to be on different chromosomes.
C:
The traits Mendel selected showed incomplete dominance.
D:
9:3:3:1 is the ratio expected from a dihybrid cross when the traits are linked.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo03 apbio-ch12-ot021

ID: 925@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.799Z

Question:
Eye color in human comes in several variations. The most likely explanation is that eye color is determined by
A:
a codominant gene
B:
a dominant gene
C:
several genes
D:
an incompletely dominant gene

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s02 apbio-ch12-s02-lo03 apbio-ch12-ot022

ID: 926@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.811Z

Question:
At meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate so that each daughter cell receives only one copy of an allele. Which of Mendel’s laws describes this observation?
A:
independent assortment
B:
segregation of alleles
C:
one allele is dominant over the other
D:
linked genes are always inherited together

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot023

ID: 927@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.824Z

Question:
How can you explain that two traits are located on the same chromosome and yet re-assort almost at the same frequency as traits located on separate chromosomes?
A:
Traits should lie very close to each other on the same chromosome.
B:
Traits should have some overlapping part on the same chromosome.
C:
Traits should be located far apart on the same chromosome.
D:
Two traits can never be located on the same chromosome.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo01 apbio-ch12-ot024

ID: 928@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.835Z

Question:
A forked-line diagram is shown for the F2 generation of a tri-hybrid cross of parents heterozygous for all 3 traits: capital or small A, capital or small B, and capital or small C. The top row shows that the ratio of capital A to small A is 3 to 1 in the F2 generation. The second row shows that the probability that the parents will have either capital B or small b is 3 to 1. The third row shows that the probability that the parents will have either capital C or small c is 3 to 1. The probability of all three phenotypes occurring together in the offspring is determined by multiplying each individual probability together. The probability ratio is 1/64 for small A B C, 3/64 for each of three double recessives with only a capital A B or C, 9/64 for each of three single recessives with only a small A B or C, and 27/64 for capital A B C. For three traits inherited in a dominant/recessive pattern, what is the probability of an offspring in a trihybrid cross between parents heterozygous for all three traits to be recessive at exactly two of the three loci?
A:
<span data-math="^1/_{64}">^1/_{64}</span>
B:
<span data-math="^3/_{64}">^3/_{64}</span>
C:
<span data-math="^6/_{64}">^6/_{64}</span>
D:
<span data-math="^9/_{64}">^9/_{64}</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-lo02 apbio-ch12-ot025

ID: 929@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.852Z

Question:
Examine the following crosses. Parent cross: rough, soft peas X smooth, hard peas F1 all rough, hard Test cross: rough, hard X smooth, soft peas F2: 115 rough soft 110 smooth hard 8 rough hard 12 smooth soft Which traits are dominant? Do the traits rough/smooth and soft/hard assort independently according to Mendel’s law?
A:
Rough and smooth are dominant. The traits are not linked.
B:
Rough and hard are dominant. The traits are linked.
C:
Smooth and hard are dominant. The traits are linked.
D:
Hard and soft are dominant. The traits are not linked.

Tags:

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ID: 930@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.864Z

Question:
Axial flower position is a dominant trait over terminal flower position in pea plants. A plant with axial flowers of unknown genotype is test-crossed. Of the offspring, 486 have axial flowers and 502 have terminal flowers. What is the genotype of the unknown parent? Show the cross with a Punnett square to support your answer.
A:
heterozygous dominant
B:
homozygous dominant
C:
hemizygous dominant
D:
hemizygous recessive

Tags:

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ID: 931@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.869Z

Question:
Petunias can be blue, red, or violet. When a blue flower is crossed with a red flower, all the resulting flowers are violet. What would be the genotypes of a cross if a blue petunia were crossed with a red one? Justify your answer by drawing a Punnett square.
A:
Blue and red colors are incompletely dominant, and therefore the F1 generation will be violet with genotype BR.
B:
Blue and red colors are codominant, and therefore the F1 generation will have a mixture of red and blue petals with genotype BR.
C:
Blue is dominant over red. Blue is completely dominant, and therefore the F1 generation will be blue with genotype BB.
D:
Red is dominant over blue. Red is completely dominant, and therefore the F1 generation will be red with genotype RR.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-15 apbio-ch12-ot028

ID: 932@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.881Z

Question:
This table shows the F2 generation phenotypes. Gray body, red eye flies had a predicted number of 244 but an observed number of 455. Black body, cinnabar eye flies had a predicted number of 244 but an observed number of 432. Gray body, cinnabar eye flies had a predicted number of 244 but an observed number of 42. Black body, red eye flies had a predicted number of 244 but an observed number of 47. Refer to the table below. Explain with a diagram why the following combinations - gray body/cinnabar eyes and black body/red eyes - were observed in such low numbers.
A:
The combinations are a result of the close linkage between the genes encoding the body color and the eye color.
B:
The genes follow the law of segregation, and thus we observe gray body/cinnabar eyes and black body/red eyes in such low numbers.
C:
The genes produce such a rare combination due to chance.
D:
The recombinants have been produced by crossing over.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-long ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-16 apbio-ch12-ot029

ID: 933@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.899Z

Question:
A yellow cat is crossed with a black cat. You know that the black and yellow fur color traits are carried on the X chromosome and only one X chromosome is expressed in a cell. You observe that half the offspring are calico (patches of black and yellow) and half are black. Your friend Tien tells you that the black cat was the mother, the yellow cat was the father, and all the calico kittens are females. Is he correct? Write out all the possible crosses to test his answer.
A:
The cross between black female cats and yellow male cats will result in calico males and black females. If the cross is reversed, it would result in calico females and yellow males.
B:
The cross between black female cats and yellow male cats will result in calico males and females. If the cross is reversed, it would result in black males and females.
C:
The cross between black female cats and yellow male cats will result in black males and calico females. If the cross is reversed it would result in calico females and yellow males.
D:
The cross between black female cats and yellow male cats will result in calico females and black males. If the cross is reversed, it would result in yellow females and calico males.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-long ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch12 apbio-ch12-s03 apbio-ch12-s03-aplo-3-17 apbio-ch12-ot030

ID: 934@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.904Z

Question:
In a test cross for two characteristics such as the one shown here, can the predicted frequency of recombinant offspring be $60\%$ ? Why or why not?
A:
Yes, the predicted offspring frequencies range from <span data-math="0\%">0\%</span> to <span data-math="100\%">100\%</span>
B:
No, the predicted offspring frequencies cannot be higher than <span data-math="30\%">30\%</span>.
C:
Yes, the predicted offspring frequencies range from <span data-math="0\%">0\%</span> to <span data-math="60\%">60\%</span>.
D:
No, the predicted offspring frequencies range from <span data-math="0\%">0\%</span> to <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span>.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex001

ID: 935@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.922Z

Question:
Which of the following statements most accurately describes domestication syndrome?
A:
Genes responsible for temperament are on the same chromosome as genes responsible for certain facial features.
B:
A single gene codes for both temperament and certain facial features, such as jaw size.
C:
Genes responsible for mild temperament are only expressed when genes encoding a cute face are also present.
D:
The products of genes encoding temperament interact with the products of genes encoding facial features.

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-everyday apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo03 apbio-ch13-ex002

ID: 936@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.934Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is true?
A:
Recombination of the red/brown eye and long/short aristae alleles will occur more frequently than recombination of the alleles for wing length and body color.
B:
Recombination of the body color and red/cinnabar eye alleles will occur more frequently than recombination of the alleles for wing length and aristae length.
C:
Recombination of the body color and aristae length alleles will occur more frequently than recombination of red/brown eye alleles and the aristae length alleles.
D:
Recombination of the gray/black body color and long/short aristae alleles will not occur.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex003

ID: 937@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.945Z

Question:
Genetic diversity is the total number of genetic characteristics in a species. Explain how chromosomal crossover contributes to genetic diversity.
A:
Chromosomal crossover is a specific, non-random process during which chromosomes are linked together and exchange DNA, contributing to the genetic diversity.
B:
Chromosomal crossover occurs during meiosis when chromosome pairs are linked and exchange DNA. Thus, crossover increases the variance of genetic combinations in the haploid gamete cell.
C:
Chromosomal crossover results in the inheritance of genetic material by offspring and the recombination event is not variable in frequency or location.
D:
Chromosomal crossover occurs during the mitotic process when chromosomes are linked together and recombination takes place, increasing the variance of genetic combinations in the haploid mitotic cells formed from mitosis.

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ID: 938@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.951Z

Question:
When comparing humans (or in Drosophila), are X-linked recessive traits observed more frequently in males, in similar numbers between males and females, more frequently in females, or is the frequency different depending on the trait? Why?
A:
in more males than females
B:
in more females than males
C:
in males and females equally
D:
in different distributions depending on the trait

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex005

ID: 939@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.967Z

Question:
Which recombination frequency corresponds to perfect linkage and violates the law of independent assortment?
A:
<span data-math="0">0</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.25">0.25</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.5">0.5</span>
D:
<span data-math="0.75">0.75</span>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex006

ID: 940@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.979Z

Question:
Which best describes the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance?
A:
The theory was proposed by Charles Darwin. It describes the units of inheritance between parents and offspring as well as the processes by which those units control offspring development.
B:
The theory was proposed by Boveri-Sutton. It describes linkage, recombination, and crossing over and states that Mendelian genes have specific loci on chromosomes, which undergo segregation and independent assortment.
C:
The theory was proposed by Charles Darwin. It states the Mendelian genes have two alternate forms and undergo independent assortment. It helped increase understanding of linkage and recombination.
D:
The theory was proposed by Boveri-Sutton. It describes the units of inheritance between parents and offspring as well as the processes by which those units control development in offspring.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex007

ID: 941@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.984Z

Question:
The image is a line with markers A through E along it at given distances. A and B are 8 apart. B and C are 12 apart. C and D are 3 apart. D and E are 5 apart. The following figure represents a Drosophila linkage map for genes A-E. The numbers between the gene loci are the relative map units between each gene. Based on the linkage map, which two genes are most likely to segregate together?
A:
A and B
B:
B and C
C:
C and D
D:
D and E

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-aplo-3-12 apbio-ch13-ex008

ID: 942@1

2015-08-20T13:03:43.996Z

Question:
An additional gene, gene W, was also examined. A test cross was made between true-breeding EEWW flies and eeww flies. The resulting F1 generation was then crossed with eeww flies. $100$ offspring in the F2 generation were examined, and it was discovered that the E and W genes were not linked. Which is the correct genotype of the F2 offspring if the genes were linked and if the genes were not linked?
A:
Linked: <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> EeWw and <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> eeww; not linked: <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> EeWw, <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span>, Eeww <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> eeWw, and <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> eeww
B:
Linked: <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> Eeww, <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> eeWw; not linked: parental genotypes EeWw and eeww.
C:
Linked genotypes (EeWw and eeww) and recombinant genotypes (Eeww and eeWw) in the F2 generation are nearly the same irrespective of their linkage.
D:
Linked: mostly with parental genotypes, Eeww and eeWw; unlinked: <span data-math="25\%">25\%</span> EeWw and eeww with <span data-math="75\%">75\%</span> Eeww and eeWw.

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ID: 943@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.012Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about nondisjunction is true?
A:
Nondisjunction only results in gametes with n+1 or n-1 chromosomes.
B:
Nondisjunction occurring during meiosis II results in <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> normal gametes.
C:
Nondisjunction during meiosis I results in <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> normal gametes.
D:
Nondisjunction always results in four different kinds of gametes.

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apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex010

ID: 944@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.018Z

Question:
Women over the age of 40 are at an increased risk of giving birth to a baby with Down Syndrome. Why is age a risk factor?
A:
Cells are more likely to make mistakes as we age due to an increase in the nondisjunction of cells during cell division which is the reason for the occurrence of Down syndrome.
B:
Chances increases with age due to increased mistakes in the mitotic cells resulting in the abnormalities leading to Down syndrome.
C:
There are increased chances of translocations only with increase in age. This may increase the risk of Down syndrome in the offspring.
D:
The risk of Down syndrome does not increase with women over the age of <span data-math="40">40</span>.

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ID: 945@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.031Z

Question:
According to the passage, which of the following events are believed to have occurred after humans diverged from their common ancestor with chimpanzees?
A:
Paracentric inversions occurred at several chromosomes, including human chromosome 18.
B:
Two separate chromosomes underwent a pericentric inversion, then fused to form chromosome 2 in humans.
C:
<span data-math="19,000">19,000</span> nucleotide bases were duplicated, inverted, and reinserted at human chromosome 18.
D:
The ROCK1 and USP14 genes were duplicated in early humans, which increased expression of these genes.

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc evolution apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-lo02 apbio-ch13-ex012

ID: 946@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.042Z

Question:
Which of the following codes describes position 12 on the long arm of chromosome 13?
A:
13p12
B:
13q12
C:
12p13
D:
12q13

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apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex013

ID: 947@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.059Z

Question:
Assume a pericentric inversion occurred in one of two homologs prior to meiosis. The other homolog remains normal. During meiosis, what structure, if any, would these homologs assume in order to pair accurately along their lengths?
A:
V formation
B:
cruciform
C:
a loop
D:
pairing would not be possible

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex014

ID: 948@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.071Z

Question:
This illustration shows nondisjunction that occurs during meiosis 1 and meiosis 2. Nondisjunction during meiosis 1 occurs when a homologous pair fails to separate, and results in two gametes with n + 1 chromosomes, and two gametes with n − 1 chromosomes. Nondisjunction during meiosis 2 would occur when sister chromatids fail to separate, and results in one gamete with n + 1 chromosomes, one gamete with n − 1 chromosomes, and two normal gametes. Choose the statement that best describes how non-disjunction can result in an aneuploid zygote.
A:
Nondisjunction only occurs when homologous chromosomes do not separate during meiosis I, resulting in the formation of gametes containing n+1 and n-1 chromosomes.
B:
Nondisjunction only occurs when sister chromatids do not separate in meiosis II, resulting in the formation of gametes containing n+1 and n-1 chromosomes.
C:
Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or the failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II, leading to the formation of n+1/n-1/n chromosomes.
D:
Nondisjunction occurs when the sister chromatids fail to separate during mitosis II, resulting in the formation of gametes containing n+1 and n-1/n chromosomes.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review blooms-2 display-simple-mc critical-thinking apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-lo01 apbio-ch13-ex015

ID: 949@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.077Z

Question:
In this micrograph of a male human karyotype, an extra copy of the X chromosome is present, in addition to a Y chromosome. All other chromosomes show the normal diploid state with 2 copies Which of the following symptoms is most likely associated with the disorder shown in the karyotype?
A:
lethality
B:
infertility
C:
heart and bleeding defects
D:
short stature and stunted growth

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc ap-test-prep blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-aplo-3-13 apbio-ch13-ex016

ID: 950@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.089Z

Question:
In this micrograph of a male human karyotype, an extra copy of the X chromosome is present, in addition to a Y chromosome. All other chromosomes show the normal diploid state with 2 copies Choose the correct option amongst the following that describes the disorder shown in the karyotype and the social, ethical or medical issue related to the disorder.
A:
Down syndrome (47 XY +21) causes intellectual disability, vision problems, congenital heart disease, and susceptibility to cancer. Healthcare providers often do not discuss the positive aspects of raising a child with Down syndrome and often provide out of date information.
B:
Klinefelter syndrome (47 XY +21) causes intellectual disability, vision problems, congenital heart disease, and susceptibility to cancer. Arguments are often made against abortion of an affected fetus.
C:
Klinefelter’s syndrome (47 XXY) causes sterility and reduced testosterone production. Arguments are often made against informing insurance companies about a diagnosis of this disease.
D:
Down syndrome (47 XXY) causes sterility and lower testosterone production. Arguments are often made against informing insurance companies about a diagnosis of this disease.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-aplo-3-13 apbio-ch13-ex017

ID: 951@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.107Z

Question:
A horizontal line is divided proportionally into 4 sections by 5 vertical lines, one at each end and 3 in the middle. The 5 vertical lines are labelled R, S, T, U and V. The 4 sections have values from left to right of 6, 11, 2 and 4. Which of the following gene orders is the most likely outcome of an inversion mutation in the chromosome shown?
A:
RSTUV
B:
RRSTUV
C:
RSUV
D:
RTSUV

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-aplo-3-24 apbio-ch13-ex018

ID: 952@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.113Z

Question:
This illustration shows nondisjunction that occurs during meiosis 1 and meiosis 2. Nondisjunction during meiosis 1 occurs when a homologous pair fails to separate, and results in two gametes with n + 1 chromosomes, and two gametes with n − 1 chromosomes. Nondisjunction during meiosis 2 would occur when sister chromatids fail to separate, and results in one gamete with n + 1 chromosomes, one gamete with n − 1 chromosomes, and two normal gametes. With the help the diagram given, choose the most appropriate statement describing nondisjunction and its genetic consequences.
A:
Nondisjunction occurs when a homologous pair is unable to separate during meiosis I, resulting in the formation of gametes containing n+1 and n-1 chromosomes. This is called aneuploidy.
B:
Nondisjunction occurs due to the inability of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II, resulting in the formation of gametes containing n+1 and n-1 chromosomes. This results in heart and bleeding defects.
C:
Nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II. This results in aneuploid gametes.
D:
Nondisjunction occurs when a pair of homologous chromosomes fails to segregate during meiosis II resulting in the formation of gametes containing n+1, n-1, or n numbers of chromosomes. This results in abnormal growth patterns.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-aplo-3-24 apbio-ch13-ex019

ID: 953@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.125Z

Question:
Which recombination frequency corresponds to independent assortment and the absence of linkage?
A:
<span data-math="0">0</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.25">0.25</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.5">0.5</span>
D:
<span data-math="0.75">0.75</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo01 apbio-ch13-ot001

ID: 954@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.137Z

Question:
The illustration shows a Drosophila genetic map. The gene for aristae length occurs at 0 centimorgans, or cM. The gene for body color occurs at 48.5 cM. The gene for red versus cinnabar eye color occurs at 57.5 cM. The gene for wing length occurs at 65.5 cM, and the gene for red versus brown eye color occurs at 104.5 cM. One cM is equivalent to a recombination frequency of 0.01. Based on the diagram, which of the following statements is true?
A:
Recombination of the body color and red/cinnabar eye alleles will occur more frequently than recombination of the alleles for wing length and aristae length.
B:
Recombination of the body color and aristae length alleles will occur more frequently than recombination of red/ brown eye alleles and the aristae length alleles.
C:
Recombination of the gray/black body color and long/short aristae alleles will not occur.
D:
Recombination of the red/brown eye and long/short aristae alleles will occur more frequently than recombination of the alleles for wing length and body color.

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo01 apbio-ch13-ot002

ID: 955@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.155Z

Question:
In a test cross for two characteristics (dihybrid cross), can the predicted frequency of recombinant offspring be $60\%$ ? Why or why not?
A:
No. The predicted frequency of recombinant offspring ranges from <span data-math="0\%">0\%</span> (for linked traits) to <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> (for unlinked traits) because of both parental and nonparental cases.
B:
Yes. The predicted frequency of recombinant offspring can be <span data-math="60\%">60\%</span> if genes are located very far from each other.
C:
Yes. The predicted frequency can be <span data-math="60\%">60\%</span> if crossing over occurs during every meiotic event.
D:
No. The predicted frequency can never be <span data-math="60\%">60\%</span> due to the presence of mutations such as deletions.

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-lo01 apbio-ch13-ot003

ID: 956@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.167Z

Question:
The table shows that, for choice A, big A, little A, big B, little b had 46, big A little A little b, little b had 4. Little a, little a, big B, little b had 4. Big A, little a, little b, little b had 46. The table shows that, for choice B, big A, little A, big B, little b had 4, big A little A little b, little b had 46. Little a, little a, big B, little b had 46. Big A, little a, little b, little b had 4. The table shows that, for choice C, big A, little A, big B, little b had 25, big A little A little b, little b had 25. Little a, little a, big B, little b had 25. Big A, little a, little b, little b had 25. The table shows that, for choice D, big A, little A, big B, little b had 50, big A little A little b, little b had 0. Little a, little a, big B, little b had 0. Big A, little a, little b, little b had 50 A cross was made with true-breeding AABB flies and true-breeding aabb flies. The resulting F1 generation was then crossed with true-breeding aabb flies. Based on the linkage map, which of the following F2 generation genotype ratios is most likely to be observed?
A:
Number Observed: AaBb (46), Aabb (4), aaBb (4), Aabb (46)
B:
Number Observed: AaBb (4), Aabb (46), aaBb (46), Aabb (4)
C:
Number Observed: AaBb (25), Aabb (25), aaBb (25), Aabb (25)
D:
Number Observed: AaBb (50), Aabb (0), aaBb (0), Aabb (50)

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s01 apbio-ch13-s01-aplo-3-12 apbio-ch13-ot004

ID: 957@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.180Z

Question:
In agriculture, polypoid crops (like coffee, strawberries, or bananas) tend to produce what?
A:
more uniformity
B:
more variety
C:
larger yield
D:
smaller yield

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-lo01 apbio-ch13-ot005

ID: 958@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.186Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about nondisjunction is true?
A:
Nondisjunction only results in gametes with n+1 or n-1 chromosomes.
B:
Nondisjunction occurring during meiosis II results in <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> normal gametes.
C:
Nondisjunction during meiosis I results in <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span> normal gametes.
D:
Nondisjunction always results in four different kinds of gametes.

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-lo01 apbio-ch13-ot006

ID: 959@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.204Z

Question:
Identify the chromosomal aberrations and their respective genetic consequence amongst the following:
A:
nondisjunction - aneuploid gametes; duplication - physical and mental abnormalities; deletion - lethal to a diploid organism; inversion - chromosomal breaks in gene; translocations - effects depend on how positions of genes are altered
B:
nondisjunction - physical and mental abnormalities; inversion - genetic imbalance; duplication - aneuploid gametes; translocations - chromosomal breaks in the gene; deletion - effects depend on how positions of genes are altered
C:
deletion -aneuploid gametes; translocations - physical and mental abnormalities; duplication - effects depend on positions of genes; nondisjunction - causes genetic imbalance lethal to a diploid organism; aneuploidy - leads to various syndromes
D:
nondisjunction - chromosomal breaks in gene; duplication - physical and mental abnormalities; deletion - genetic imbalance lethal to a diploid organism; inversion - aneuploid gametes; translocations - effects depend on positions of genes

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch13 apbio-ch13-s02 apbio-ch13-s02-lo01 apbio-ch13-ot007

ID: 960@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.215Z

Question:
If the effects of the above disorder are compared to the effects of Down Syndrome, this disorder is:
A:
more severe than Down Syndrome, due to gene deletions in this syndrome
B:
more severe than Down Syndrome, due to trisomy in Down Syndrome
C:
less severe than Down Syndrome, due to monosomy in Down Syndrome
D:
less severe than Down Syndrome, due to X-inactivation in this disorder

Tags:

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ID: 961@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.221Z

Question:
If a male homozygous for the normal gene order and a female homozygous for an inversion mutation had a child, the child would have what type, or types, of chromosomes?
A:
two normal chromosomes
B:
two chromosomes with an inversion mutation
C:
one normal chromosome and one chromosome with an inversion mutation
D:
two normal chromosomes and one chromosome with an inversion mutation

Tags:

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ID: 962@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.238Z

Question:
Why were Phoebus Levene’s discoveries important to our current understanding of DNA?
A:
Phoebus Levene believed that the four nucleotides in DNA are not linked or repeated in the same pattern and that they are held together by phosphodiester bonds.
B:
He discovered that the nucleotides were held together by phosphodiester bonds, in which two phosphate groups bind two sugars together. This discovery led to our current understanding of DNA.
C:
He believed that proteins were less likely the vehicles for hereditary information. Later he discovered the four nucleotides in DNA which were linked together and repeated in a wide variety of different ways.
D:
He believed inaccurately that the four nucleotides in DNA repeated over in the same pattern. Also, he discovered that the nucleotides were held together by phosphodiester bonds in which the phosphate group binds two sugars together.

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ID: 963@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.249Z

Question:
Who was the first person to isolate the material that came to be known as nucleic acids?
A:
Frederick Griffith
B:
Friedrich Miescher
C:
James Watson
D:
Oswald Avery

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ID: 964@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.255Z

Question:
What is bacterial transformation?
A:
The transformation of a bacterium occurs during replication.
B:
It is the transformation of a bacterium into a pathogenic form.
C:
Transformation of bacteria involves changes in its chromosome.
D:
Transformation is a process in which external DNA is taken up by a cell, thereby changing morphology and physiology.

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ID: 965@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.290Z

Question:
What type of nucleic acid material is analyzed in forensic cases?
A:
cytoplasmic rRNA
B:
mitochondrial DNA
C:
nuclear chromosomal DNA
D:
nuclear mRNA

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ID: 966@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.296Z

Question:
The experiments by Hershey and Chase helped confirm that DNA was the hereditary material on the basis of the finding of what?
A:
Radioactive phages were found in the pellet.
B:
Radioactive cells were found in the supernatant.
C:
Radioactive sulfur was found inside the cell.
D:
Radioactive phosphorus was found in the cell.

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ID: 967@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.314Z

Question:
If DNA of a particular species was analyzed and it was found that it contains $27\%$ A, what would be the percentage of C?
A:
<span data-math="23\%">23\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="27\%">27\%</span>
C:
<span data-math="30\%">30\%</span>
D:
<span data-math="54\%">54\%</span>

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ID: 968@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.326Z

Question:
If the sequence of the 5’ to 3’ strand is AATGCTAC, then the complementary sequence has the following sequence:
A:
3’-AATGCTAC-5’
B:
3’-CATCGTAA-5’
C:
3’-TTACGATG-5’
D:
3’-GTAGCATT-5’

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ID: 969@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.338Z

Question:
Explain Griffith’s transformation experiments. What did he conclude from them?
A:
Two strains of <em>S. pneumoniae</em> were used for the experiment. Griffith injected a mouse with heat- inactivated S strain (pathogenic) and R strain (non-pathogenic). The mouse died and S strain was recovered from the dead mouse. He concluded that external DNA is taken up by a cell that changed morphology and physiology.
B:
Two strains of <em>Vibrio cholerae</em> were used for the experiment. Griffith injected a mouse with heat-inactivated S strain (pathogenic) and R strain (non-pathogenic). The mouse died and S strain was recovered from the dead mouse. He concluded that external DNA is taken up by a cell that changed morphology and physiology.
C:
Two strains of <em>S. pneumoniae</em> were used for the experiment. Griffith injected a mouse with heat-inactivated S strain (pathogenic) and R strain (non-pathogenic). The mouse died and R strain was recovered from the dead mouse. He concluded that external DNA is taken up by a cell that changed morphology and physiology.
D:
Two strains of <em>S. pneumoniae</em> were used for the experiment. Griffith injected a mouse with heat-inactivated S strain (pathogenic) and R strain (non-pathogenic). The mouse died and S strain was recovered from the dead mouse. He concluded that mutation occurred in the DNA of the cell that changed morphology and physiology.

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ID: 970@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.344Z

Question:
Explain why radioactive sulfur and phosphorous were used to label bacteriophages in the Hershey and Chase experiments.
A:
Protein was labeled with radioactive sulfur and DNA was labeled with radioactive phosphorous. Phosphorous is found in DNA, so it will be tagged by radioactive phosphorous.
B:
Protein was labeled with radioactive phosphorous and DNA was labeled with radioactive sulfur. Phosphorous is found in DNA, so it will be tagged by radioactive phosphorous.
C:
Protein was labeled with radioactive sulfur and DNA was labeled with radioactive phosphorous. Phosphorous is found in DNA, so DNA will be tagged by radioactive sulfur.
D:
Protein was labeled with radioactive sulfur and DNA was labeled with radioactive phosphorous. Phosphorous is found in DNA, so DNA will be tagged by radioactive sulfur.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s01 apbio-ch14-s01-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex009

ID: 971@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.357Z

Question:
How can Chargaff’s rules be used to identify different species?
A:
The amount of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine varies from species to species and are not found in equal quantities. They do not vary between individuals of the same species and can be used to identify different species.
B:
The amount of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine varies from species to species and is found in equal quantities. They do not vary between individuals of the same species and can be used to identify different species.
C:
The amount of adenine and thymine is equal to guanine and cytosine and is found in equal quantities. They do not vary between individuals of the same species and can be used to identify different species.
D:
The amount of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine varies from species to species and they are not found in equal quantities. They vary between individuals of the same species and can be used to identify different species.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s01 apbio-ch14-s01-lo03 apbio-ch14-ex010

ID: 972@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.374Z

Question:
What would Chase and Hershey have concluded if the supernatant contained radioactive labeled-phosphorus?
A:
DNA was the primary source of heritable information.
B:
RNA was the primary source of heritable information.
C:
Protein was the primary source of heritable information.
D:
Phages were the primary source of heritable information.

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ID: 973@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.386Z

Question:
Which piece of evidence supports that the material Miescher discovered was DNA?
A:
The precipitate contained sulfur.
B:
The precipitate contained oxygen.
C:
The precipitate contained phosphorus.
D:
The precipitate contained protein.

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s01 apbio-ch14-s01-aplo-3-2 apbio-ch14-ex012

ID: 974@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.392Z

Question:
Explain how forensic scientists are able to use DNA analysis to identify individuals.
A:
Comparison of DNA from a known source or individual with analysis of the sequence of an unknown sample of DNA allows scientists to find out if both of them are similar or not.
B:
DNA from the unknown sample is sequenced and analyzed. The result of the analysis is then matched with any random population. The matching individual then helps in forensics.
C:
Comparison of DNA from a known source or individual with analysis of the sequence of bases in strands of an unknown sample of RNA allows scientists to find out if both of them are similar or not.
D:
Comparison of DNA from a known source or individual with analysis of the sugars and phosphates in strands of an unknown sample of DNA allows scientists to find out if both of them are similar or not.

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ID: 975@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.404Z

Question:
Discuss the contributions of Francis Crick, James Watson, and Rosalind Franklin to the discovery of the structure of DNA.
A:
Rosalind Franklin used X-ray diffraction methods to demonstrate the helical nature of DNA, while Watson and Crick formulated the double stranded structural model of DNA.
B:
Rosalind Franklin, Watson and Crick first employed the technique of X-ray diffraction to understand the storage of DNA. Since it did not work out, Watson and Crick then ran experiments to ascertain the DNA structure.
C:
Rosalind Franklin, Watson and Crick used X-ray diffraction methods to demonstrate the helical nature of DNA, while Rosalind Franklin formulated the double stranded structural model of DNA.
D:
Watson and Crick used X-ray diffraction methods to demonstrate the helical nature of DNA, while Rosalind Franklin formulated the double stranded structural model of DNA.

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ID: 976@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.417Z

Question:
Describe one advantage and a possible limitation to Sanger’s method.
A:
Sanger’s method can be used to sequence more than one strand at a time which is less time consuming. Challenges of Sanger’s method includes its decreased accuracy to sequence DNA strands.
B:
Sanger’s method is a reliable and accurate way of sequencing DNA strands. However, only one strand at a time can be sequenced at a time. Also, it can look for one base only at a time which can be time consuming.
C:
Sanger’s method is highly inexpensive and less accurate. However, it is not readily adaptable to commercial kits.
D:
Sanger’s method is less time consuming and highly accurate. However, it is more expensive than other methods available for sequencing.

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ID: 977@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.430Z

Question:
Explain how fast DNA sequencing can change the way doctors treat disease.
A:
Faster genetic sequencing will help in quick analysis of the genetic makeup of bacteria that can cause diseases in humans for better and more efficient treatments. Also, sequencing of a cancerous cell’s DNA can provide better ways to treat or prevent cancer.
B:
Fast DNA sequencing can help us quickly analyze the genetic information of existing bacteria only that cause disease in humans, which may lead to more efficient treatments.
C:
Fast DNA sequencing can help doctors to treat and diagnose diseases which are not rare in populations.
D:
Faster genetic sequencing can be used to treat and prevent a few types of cancers and thus increase the life expectancy of patients suffering from the diseases.

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ID: 978@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.441Z

Question:
According to the passage, which statement best describes the relationship between humans and Neanderthals?
A:
Early humans emerged from Africa, then spread out to populate different parts of the globe. An isolated population of these early humans interbred with Neanderthals.
B:
Early humans interbred with Neanderthals, emerged from Africa, then spread out to populate different parts of the globe.
C:
Early humans emerged from Africa, interbred with Neanderthals, then spread out to populate different parts of the globe.
D:
Early humans did not interbreed with Neanderthals, but we have many genetic similarities because we share a common ancestor.

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apbio inbook-yes time-medium dok2 blooms-2 display-simple-mc evolution apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex018

ID: 979@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.453Z

Question:
Why is it significant that the human population in Africa has wider genetic variation than the rest of the world?
A:
It has been suggested that all humans most likely descended from Africa. This is supported by the research that genetic variance in Africa was also found in the rest of the world.
B:
The theory that humans descended from Africa was supported by the research that most of the human genomes tested outside of Africa had close ties to the genomes of people in Africa but a genetic variance in Africa was not found in the rest of the world.
C:
Humans have most likely descended from Africa. This research is supported by the fact that all the human genomes tested outside of Africa had close ties to the genomes of people in Africa. Also, there is a genetic variance in Africa that was not found in the rest of the world.
D:
The transition to modern humans occurred within Africa which was sudden. Thus, human genomes tested outside of Africa had close ties to the genomes of people in Africa.

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ID: 980@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.464Z

Question:
In eukaryotic cells, DNA and RNA synthesis occur in a separate compartment from protein synthesis. In prokaryotic cells, both processes occur together. What advantages might there be to separating the processes? What advantages might there be to having them occur together?
A:
Compartmentalization in eukaryotic cells enables the building of more complex proteins and RNA products. In prokaryotes the advantage is that RNA and protein synthesis occurs much more quickly because it occurs in a single compartment.
B:
Compartmentalization in prokaryotic cells enables the building of more complex proteins and RNA products. In eukaryotes the advantage is that RNA and protein synthesis occurs much more quickly because they occur in a single compartment.
C:
Compartmentalization in eukaryotic cells enables the building of simpler proteins and RNA products. In prokaryotes the advantage is that RNA and protein synthesis occurs much more quickly because it occurs in a single compartment.
D:
Compartmentalization in eukaryotic cells enables the building of more complex proteins and RNA products. In prokaryotes, the advantage is that RNA and protein synthesis takes more time because it occurs in a single compartment.

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ID: 981@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.477Z

Question:
The DNA double helix does not have which of the following?
A:
antiparallel configuration
B:
complementary base pairing
C:
major and minor grooves
D:
uracil

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apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex021

ID: 982@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.490Z

Question:
What is a purine?
A:
a double ring structure with a six-membered ring fused to a five-membered ring
B:
a single six-membered ring
C:
a six-membered ring
D:
three phosphates covalently bonded by phosphodiester bonds

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex022

ID: 983@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.503Z

Question:
What is the name of the method developed by Fred Sanger to sequence DNA?
A:
Dideoxy Chain Termination method
B:
Double Helix Determination
C:
Polymerase Chain Reaction
D:
Polymer Gel Electrophoresis

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex023

ID: 984@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.514Z

Question:
What happens when a dideoxynucleotide is added to a developing DNA strand?
A:
The chain extends to the end of the DNA strand.
B:
The DNA stand is duplicated.
C:
The chain is not extended any further.
D:
The last codon is repeated.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex024

ID: 985@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.526Z

Question:
In eukaryotes, what is DNA wrapped around?
A:
histones
B:
polymerase
C:
single-stranded binding proteins
D:
sliding clamp

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo03 apbio-ch14-ex025

ID: 986@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.538Z

Question:
Which enzyme is only found in prokaryotic organisms?
A:
DNA gyrase
B:
helicase
C:
ligase
D:
telomerase

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo03 apbio-ch14-ex026

ID: 987@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.563Z

Question:
Describe the structure and complementary base pairing of DNA.
A:
DNA is made up of two strands that are twisted around each other to form a helix. Adenine pairs up with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine. The two strands are anti-parallel in nature; that is, the 3’ end of one strand faces the 5’ end of other strand. Sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous bases contribute to the DNA structure.
B:
DNA is made up of two strands that are twisted around each other to form a helix. Adenine pairs up with cytosine and thymine pairs with guanine. The two strands are anti-parallel in nature; that is, the 3’ end of one strand faces the 5’ end of other strand. Sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous bases contribute to the DNA structure.
C:
DNA is made up of two strands that are twisted around each other to form a helix. Adenine pairs up with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine. The two strands are parallel in nature; that is, the 3’ end of one strand faces the 3’ end of other strand. Sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous bases contribute to the DNA structure.
D:
DNA is made up of two strands that are twisted around each other to form a helix. Adenine pairs up with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine. The two strands are anti-parallel in nature; that is, the 3’ end of one strand faces the 5’ end of other strand. Only sugar contributes to the DNA structure.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex027

ID: 988@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.599Z

Question:
Provide a brief summary of the Sanger sequencing method.
A:
Frederick Sanger’s sequencing is a chain termination method that is used to generate DNA fragments that terminate at different points using dye-labeled dideoxynucleotides. DNA is separated by electrophoresis on the basis of size. The DNA sequence can be read out on an electropherogram generated by a laser scanner.
B:
Frederick Sanger’s sequencing is a chain elongation method that is used to generate DNA fragments that elongate at different points using dye-labeled dideoxynucleotides. DNA is separated by electrophoresis on the basis of size. The DNA sequence can be read out on an electropherogram generated by a laser scanner.
C:
Frederick Sanger’s sequencing is a chain termination method that is used to generate DNA fragments that terminate at different points using dye-labeled dideoxynucleotides. DNA is joined together by electrophoresis on the basis of size. The DNA sequence can be read out on an electropherogram generated by a laser scanner.
D:
Frederick Sanger’s sequencing is a chain termination method that is used to generate DNA fragments that terminate at different points using dye-labeled dideoxynucleotides. DNA is separated by electrophoresis on the basis of size. The DNA sequence can be read out on an electropherogram generated by a magnetic scanner.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex028

ID: 989@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.611Z

Question:
Compare and contrast the similarities and differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA.
A:
Eukaryotes have a single, circular chromosome, while prokaryotes have multiple, linear chromosomes. Prokaryotes pack their chromosomes by super coiling, managed by DNA gyrase. Eukaryote chromosomes are wrapped around histone proteins that create heterochromatin and euchromatin, which is not present in prokaryotes.
B:
Prokaryotes have a single, circular chromosome, while eukaryotes have multiple, linear chromosomes. Prokaryotes pack their chromosomes by super coiling, managed by DNA gyrase. Eukaryote chromosomes are wrapped around histone proteins that create heterochromatin and euchromatin, which is not present in prokaryotes.
C:
Prokaryotes have a single, circular chromosome, while eukaryotes have multiple, linear chromosomes. Eukaryotes pack their chromosomes by super coiling, managed by DNA gyrase. Prokaryotes chromosomes are wrapped around histone proteins that create heterochromatin and euchromatin, which is not present in eukaryotes.
D:
Prokaryotes have a single, circular chromosome, while eukaryotes have multiple, linear chromosomes. Prokaryotes pack their chromosomes by super coiling, managed by DNA gyrase. Eukaryote chromosomes are wrapped around histone proteins that create heterochromatin and euchromatin, which is present in prokaryotes.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo03 apbio-ch14-ex029

ID: 990@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.627Z

Question:
What do RNA and DNA have in common?
A:
Both contain four different nucleotides.
B:
Both are double-stranded molecules.
C:
Both contain adenine and uracil.
D:
Both contain ribose.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short ap-test-prep blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-aplo-4-1 apbio-ch14-ex030

ID: 991@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.638Z

Question:
Which of the following would be a good application of plasmid transformation?
A:
to make copies of DNA
B:
to isolate a change in a single nucleotide
C:
to separate DNA fragments
D:
to sequence DNA

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-aplo-3-5 apbio-ch14-ex031

ID: 992@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.644Z

Question:
Explain how the components of DNA fit together.
A:
DNA is composed of nucleotides, consisting of a 5 carbon sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base. DNA is a double helical structure in which complementary base pairing occurs. Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine. Adenine and thymine form two hydrogen bonds and cytosine and guanine form three hydrogen bonds. The two individual strands of DNA are held together by covalent bonds between the phosphate of one nucleotide and sugar of the next. The two strands run antiparallel to each other.
B:
DNA is composed of nucleotides, consisting of a 5 carbon sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base. DNA is a double helical structure in which complementary base pairing occurs. Adenine pairs with cytosine and guanine pairs with thymine. Adenine and cytosine form two hydrogen bonds and guanine and thymine form three hydrogen bonds. The two individual strands of DNA are held together by covalent bonds between the phosphate of one nucleotide and sugar of the next. The two strands run antiparallel to each other.
C:
DNA is composed of nucleotides, consisting of a 5 carbon sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base. DNA is a double helical structure in which complementary base pairing occurs. Adenine pairs with cytosine and guanine pairs with thymine. Adenine and cytosine form three hydrogen bonds and guanine and thymine form two hydrogen bonds. The two individual strands of DNA are held together by covalent bonds between the phosphate of one nucleotide and sugar of the next. The two strands run antiparallel to each other.
D:
DNA is composed of nucleotides, consisting of a 5 carbon sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base. DNA is a double helical structure in which complementary base pairing occurs. Adenine pairs with cytosine and guanine pairs with thymine. Adenine and cytosine form three hydrogen bonds and guanine and thymine form two hydrogen bonds. The two individual strands of DNA are held together by covalent bonds between the phosphate of one nucleotide and sugar of the next. The two strands run parallel to each other.

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ID: 993@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.655Z

Question:
Describe the Sanger DNA sequencing method used for the human genome sequencing project.
A:
A DNA sample is denatured by heating and then put into four tubes. A primer, DNA polymerase and all four nucleotides are added. Limited quantities of one of the four dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) are added to each tube respectively. Each one of them carries a specific fluorescent label. Chain elongation continues until a fluorescent ddNTP is added to the growing chain, after which chain termination occurs. Gel electrophoresis is performed and the length of each base is detected by laser scanners with wavelengths specific to the four different ddNTPS’s.
B:
A DNA sample is denatured by heating and then put into four tubes. A primer, RNA polymerase and all four nucleotides are added. Limited quantities of one of the four dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) are added to each tube respectively. Each one of them carries a specific fluorescent label. Chain elongation continues until a fluorescent ddNTP is added to the growing chain, after which chain termination occurs. Gel electrophoresis is performed and the length of each base is detected by laser scanners with wavelengths specific to the four different ddNTPS’s.
C:
A DNA sample is denatured by heating and then put into four tubes. A primer, DNA polymerase and all four nucleotides are added. Limited quantities of one of the four dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) are added to each tube respectively. Each one of them carries a specific fluorescent label. Chain elongation continues until a fluorescent ddNTP is removed from the growing chain, after which chain termination occurs. Gel electrophoresis is performed and the length of each base is detected by laser scanners with wavelengths specific to the four different ddNTPS’s.
D:
A DNA sample is denatured by heating and then put into four tubes. A primer, DNA polymerase and all four nucleotides are added. Limited quantities of one of the four deoxynucleotides (dNTPs) are added to each tube respectively. Each one of them carries a specific fluorescent label. Chain elongation continues until a fluorescent dNTP is added the growing chain, after which chain termination occurs. Gel electrophoresis is performed and the length of each base is detected by laser scanners with wavelengths specific to the four different dNTPS’s.

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ID: 994@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.673Z

Question:
One theory of aging is that the body’s ability to fix mistakes in its DNA decreases as we age. How can this affect DNA replication?
A:
Aging causes accumulation of DNA mutations and DNA damage of only the nuclear DNA and the mistakes will be passed down to new cells causing age related diseases.
B:
Aging results in ineffective DNA repair mechanism so that the mistakes in the DNA will be passed down to new cells. This could lead to the development of age-related diseases.
C:
Aging causes DNA polymerase to function abnormally. This is the sole reason which causes defects in DNA replication.
D:
DNA replication of only fast growing cells is affected by aging.

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ID: 995@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.679Z

Question:
Which of the following is not one of the proteins involved during the formation of the replication fork?
A:
helicase
B:
ligase
C:
origin of replication
D:
single-strand binding proteins

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ID: 996@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.690Z

Question:
In which direction does DNA replication take place?
A:
5’ to 3’
B:
3’ to 5’
C:
5’
D:
3’

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ID: 997@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.701Z

Question:
Meselson and Stahl’s experiments proved that DNA replicates by which mode?
A:
conservative
B:
converse
C:
dispersive
D:
semi-conservative

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ID: 998@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.712Z

Question:
Which set of results was found in the Meselson and Stahl’s experiments?
A:
The original chromosome was kept intact and a duplicate was made.
B:
The original chromosome was split and half went to each duplicate.
C:
The original chromosome was mixed with new material and each duplicate strand contained both old and new.
D:
The original chromosome was used as a template for two new chromosomes and discarded.

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ID: 999@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.723Z

Question:
DNA replication is bidirectional and discontinuous; explain your understanding of those concepts.
A:
DNA polymerase reads the template strand in the 3’ to 5’ direction and adds nucleotides only in the 5’ to 3’ direction. The leading strand is synthesized in the direction of the replication fork. Replication on the lagging strand occurs in the direction away from the replication fork in short stretches of DNA called Okazaki fragments.
B:
DNA polymerase reads the template strand in the 5’ to 3’ direction and adds nucleotides only in the 5’ to 3’ direction. The leading strand is synthesized in the direction of the replication fork. Replication on the lagging strand occurs in the direction away from the replication fork in short stretches of DNA called Okazaki fragments.
C:
DNA polymerase reads the template strand in the 3’ to 5’ direction and adds nucleotides only in the 5’ to 3’ direction. The leading strand is synthesized in the direction away from the replication fork. Replication on the lagging strand occurs in the direction of the replication fork in short stretches of DNA called Okazaki fragments.
D:
DNA polymerase reads the template strand in the 5’ to 3’ direction and adds nucleotides only in the 3’ to 5’ direction. The leading strand is synthesized in the direction of the replication fork. Replication on the lagging strand occurs in the direction away from the replication fork in long stretches of DNA called Okazaki fragments.

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ID: 1000@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.734Z

Question:
Discuss how the scientific community learned that DNA replication takes place in a semi- conservative fashion.
A:
Meselson and Stahl experimented with <em>E. coli</em>. DNA grown in <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> was heavier than DNA grown in <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span>. When DNA in <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> was switched to <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> media, DNA sedimented halfway between the <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> levels after one round of cell division, indicating fifty percent presence of <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span>. This supports the semi-conservative replication model.
B:
Meselson and Stahl experimented with <em>S. pneumonia</em>. DNA grown in <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> was heavier than DNA grown in <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span>. When DNA in <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> was switched to <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> media, DNA sedimented halfway between the <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> levels after one round of cell division, indicating fifty percent presence of <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span>. This supports the semi-conservative replication model.
C:
Meselson and Stahl experimented with <em>E. coli</em>. DNA grown in <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> was heavier than DNA grown in <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span>. When DNA in <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> was switched to <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> media, DNA sedimented halfway between the <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> levels after one round of cell division, indicating fifty percent presence of <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span>. This supports the semi-conservative replication model.
D:
Meselson and Stahl experimented with <em>S. pneumonia</em>. DNA grown in <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> was heavier than DNA grown in <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span>. When DNA in <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> was switched to <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> media, DNA sedimented halfway between the <span data-math="^{15}\text{N}">^{15}\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span> levels after one round of cell division, indicating complete presence of <span data-math="^{14}\text{N}">^{14}\text{N}</span>. This supports the semi-conservative replication model.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s03 apbio-ch14-s03-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex041

ID: 1001@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.745Z

Question:
Double stranded DNA showing a bubble and the copying of a nucleic acid polymer in the 5' to 3' direction. The nucleic acid polymer contains the sequence UAGCGCUGUACC. What process is illustrated in the figure?
A:
transcription
B:
mutation
C:
excision
D:
translation

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ID: 1002@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.757Z

Question:
Describe how the model of DNA replication illustrates the function of topoisomerase.
A:
Topoisomerase relieves the pressure that results from supercoiling by breaking and reforming DNA’s phosphate backbone ahead of the replication fork.
B:
Topoisomerase increases the pressure to increase supercoiling by breaking and reforming DNA’s phosphate backbone ahead of the replication fork.
C:
Topoisomerase relieves the pressure that results from supercoiling by breaking and reforming DNA’s nucleotide base pairs ahead of the replication fork.
D:
Topoisomerase relieves the pressure that results from separation of DNA strands by breaking and reforming DNA’s phosphate backbone ahead of the replication fork .

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ID: 1003@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.768Z

Question:
You isolate a cell strain in which the joining together of Okazaki fragments is impaired and suspect that a mutation has occurred in an enzyme found at the replication fork. Which enzyme is most likely to be mutated?
A:
DNA ligase
B:
DNA polymerase III
C:
helicase
D:
topoisomerase

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ID: 1004@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.786Z

Question:
Explain why errors in DNA replication are rare events in cells.
A:
Errors in DNA replication are rare events in a cell due to the presence of DNA ligase enzyme which fixes mistakes in the copying process.
B:
Polymerase I is solely responsible for proofreading and fixing mistakes in the copying process, which explains why so few mistakes are made.
C:
Polymerase I and II are responsible for proofreading and fixing mistakes in the copying process which explains why errors in DNA replication are rare.
D:
Errors in DNA replication are rare events in cells due to the action of DNA helicase.

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ID: 1005@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.797Z

Question:
Which DNA polymerase is needed for DNA synthesis?
A:
DNA pol I
B:
DNA pol II
C:
DNA pol III
D:
DNA pol I, DNA pol II, and DNA pol III

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ID: 1006@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.808Z

Question:
Which portion of a chromosome contains Okazaki fragments?
A:
helicase
B:
lagging strand
C:
leading strand
D:
primer

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ID: 1007@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.814Z

Question:
Which of the following does the enzyme primase synthesize?
A:
DNA primer
B:
Okazaki fragments
C:
phosphodiester linkage
D:
RNA primer

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ID: 1008@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.824Z

Question:
The ends of the linear chromosomes are maintained by what?
A:
DNA polymerase
B:
helicase
C:
primase
D:
telomerase

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s04 apbio-ch14-s04-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex050

ID: 1009@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.836Z

Question:
Explain the events taking place at the replication fork. If the gene for helicase is mutated, what part of replication will be affected?
A:
Helicase separates the DNA strands at the origin of replication. Topoisomerase breaks and reforms DNA’s phosphate backbone ahead of the replication fork, thereby relieving the pressure. Single-stranded binding proteins prevent reforming of DNA. Primase synthesizes RNA primer which is used by DNA polymerase to form a daughter strand. If helicase is mutated, the DNA strands will not be separated at the beginning of replication.
B:
Helicase joins the DNA strands together at the origin of replication. Topoisomerase breaks and reforms DNA’s phosphate backbone after the replication fork, thereby relieving the pressure. Single-stranded binding proteins prevent reforming of DNA. Primase synthesizes RNA primer which is used by DNA polymerase to form a daughter strand. If helicase is mutated, the DNA strands will not be joined together at the beginning of replication.
C:
Helicase separates the DNA strands at the origin of replication. Topoisomerase breaks and reforms DNA’s sugar backbone ahead of the replication fork, thereby increasing the pressure. Single-stranded binding proteins prevent reforming of DNA. Primase synthesizes DNA primer which is used by DNA polymerase to form a daughter strand. If helicase is mutated, the DNA strands will be separated at the beginning of replication.
D:
Helicase separates the DNA strands at the origin of replication. Topoisomerase breaks and reforms DNA’s sugar backbone ahead of the replication fork, thereby relieving the pressure. Single-stranded binding proteins prevent reforming of DNA. Primase synthesizes DNA primer which is used by RNA polymerase to form a parent strand. If helicase is mutated, the DNA strands will be separated at the beginning of replication.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s04 apbio-ch14-s04-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex051

ID: 1010@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.847Z

Question:
What are Okazaki fragments and how they are formed?
A:
Okazaki fragments are short stretches of DNA on the lagging strand, which is synthesized in the direction away from the replication fork.
B:
Okazaki fragments are long stretches of DNA on the lagging strand, which is synthesized in the direction of the replication fork.
C:
Okazaki fragments are long stretches of DNA on the leading strand, which is synthesized in the direction away from the replication fork.
D:
Okazaki fragments are short stretches of DNA on the leading strand, which is synthesized in the direction of the replication fork.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s04 apbio-ch14-s04-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex052

ID: 1011@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.858Z

Question:
What is the difference in the rate of replication of nucleotides between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes?
A:
Eukaryotes are <span data-math="50">50</span> times slower.
B:
Eukaryotes are <span data-math="20">20</span> times faster.
C:
Prokaryotes are <span data-math="100">100</span> times slower.
D:
Prokaryotes are <span data-math="10">10</span> times faster.

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ID: 1012@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.869Z

Question:
What are Autonomously Replicating Sequences (ARS)?
A:
areas of prokaryotic chromosomes that initiate copying
B:
portions of prokaryotic chromosomes that can be transferred from one organism to another
C:
areas of eukaryotic chromosomes that are equivalent to the origin of replication in <em>E. coli</em>
D:
portions of eukaryotic chromosomes that replicate independent of the parent chromosome

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s05 apbio-ch14-s05-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex054

ID: 1013@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.880Z

Question:
What type of body cell does not exhibit telomerase activity?
A:
adult stem cells
B:
embryonic cells
C:
germ cells
D:
liver cells

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s05 apbio-ch14-s05-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex055

ID: 1014@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.896Z

Question:
During proofreading, which of the following enzymes reads the DNA?
A:
DNA polymerase
B:
helicase
C:
topoisomerase
D:
primase

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s05 apbio-ch14-s05-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex056

ID: 1015@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.902Z

Question:
If the rate of replication in a particular prokaryote is $900$ nucleotides per second, how long would it take to make two copies of a $1.2$ million base pair genome?
A:
<span data-math="22.2\,\text{minutes}">22.2\,\text{minutes}</span>
B:
<span data-math="44.4\,\text{minutes}">44.4\,\text{minutes}</span>
C:
<span data-math="45.4\,\text{minutes}">45.4\,\text{minutes}</span>
D:
<span data-math="54.4\,\text{minutes}">54.4\,\text{minutes}</span>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s05 apbio-ch14-s05-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex057

ID: 1016@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.913Z

Question:
How do the linear chromosomes in eukaryotes ensure that their ends are replicated completely?
A:
The ends of the linear chromosomes are maintained by the activity of the telomerase enzyme.
B:
The ends of the linear chromosomes are maintained by the formation of a replication fork.
C:
The ends of the linear chromosomes are maintained by the continuous joining of Okazaki fragments.
D:
The ends of the linear chromosomes are maintained by the action of the polymerase enzyme.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s05 apbio-ch14-s05-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex058

ID: 1017@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.930Z

Question:
Which statement about the above malignant melanoma is most likely true?
A:
it was the result of a spontaneous mutation
B:
it was caused by thymine dimer formation
C:
it was caused by a transition substitution
D:
it was caused by a transversion substitution

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-everyday apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex059

ID: 1018@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.942Z

Question:
A frameshift mutation that results in the insertion of three nucleotides is often less deleterious than a mutation that results in the insertion of one nucleotide. Why?
A:
Addition of three nucleotides does not shift the reading frame.
B:
Addition of three nucleotides shifts the reading frame.
C:
Addition of three nucleotides incorporates two amino acids.
D:
Addition of three nucleotides removes two amino acids.

Tags:

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ID: 1019@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.947Z

Question:
Which type of point mutation would have no effect on gene expression?
A:
frameshift
B:
missense
C:
nonsense
D:
silent

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex061

ID: 1020@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.958Z

Question:
Which type of point mutation would result in the substitution of a stop codon for an amino acid?
A:
frameshift
B:
missense
C:
nonsense
D:
silent

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex062

ID: 1021@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.969Z

Question:
You have developed skin cancer and you are pregnant. You are worried that your child will be born with the cancer you have while carrying the baby. Should you be worried?
A:
Yes, the cancer can spread to the baby.
B:
No, the mutations causing the cancer are in somatic cells, not reproductive germ cells.
C:
Yes, the mutations can be passed on to the child through the placenta.
D:
No, UV light only affects adult, somatic cells.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex063

ID: 1022@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.981Z

Question:
What is the initial mechanism for repairing nucleotide errors in DNA?
A:
DNA polymerase proofreading
B:
mismatch repair
C:
nucleotide excision repair
D:
thymine dimers

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-lo02 apbio-ch14-ex064

ID: 1023@1

2015-08-20T13:03:44.992Z

Question:
What would be the consequence of a mutation in a mismatch repair enzyme? How will this affect the function of a gene?
A:
Mismatch repair corrects the errors after the replication is completed by excising the incorrectly added nucleotide and adding the correct base. Any mutation in a mismatch repair enzyme would lead to more permanent damage.
B:
Mismatch repair corrects the errors during the replication by excising the incorrectly added nucleotide and adding the correct base. Any mutation in the mismatch repair enzyme would lead to more permanent damage.
C:
Mismatch repair corrects the errors after the replication is completed by excising the added nucleotides and adding more bases. Any mutation in the mismatch repair enzyme would lead to more permanent damage.
D:
Mismatch repair corrects the errors after the replication is completed by excising the incorrectly added nucleotide and adding the correct base. Any mutation in the mismatch repair enzyme would lead to more temporary damage.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-lo01 apbio-ch14-ex065

ID: 1024@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.003Z

Question:
A mutation has occurred in the DNA and in the mRNA for a gene. Discuss which would have a more significant effect on gene expression. Why?
A:
Both will result in the production of defective proteins. The DNA mutation, if not corrected, is permanent, while the mRNA mutation will only affect proteins made from that mRNA strand. Production of defective protein ceases when the mRNA strand deteriorates.
B:
Both will result in the production of defective proteins. The DNA mutation, if not corrected, is permanent, while the mRNA mutation will not affect proteins made from that mRNA strand. Production of defective protein continues when the mRNA strand deteriorates.
C:
Only DNA will result in the production of defective proteins. The DNA mutation, if not corrected, is permanent. Production of defective protein ceases when the DNA strand deteriorates.
D:
Only mRNA will result in the production of defective proteins. The mRNA mutation will only affect proteins made from that mRNA strand. Production of defective protein ceases when the mRNA strand deteriorates.

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ID: 1025@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.014Z

Question:
Flamingos have genotypes for white feathers yet often appear with pink feathers within the same population. What is most likely affecting the phenotype of some flamingos, causing their feathers to turn pink in an isolated population?
A:
weather variations
B:
dietary changes
C:
DNA mutations
D:
translation failure

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ID: 1026@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.025Z

Question:
What can be the result of DNA failing to undergo repair after too much UV exposure?
A:
second degree burns
B:
a malignant melanoma
C:
a breakdown of deep layers of the skin
D:
a sun burn

Tags:

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ID: 1027@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.036Z

Question:
Identify the type of change that can occur in the DNA of a chromosome that is termed a chromosomal mutation.
A:
substitution
B:
translocation
C:
missense
D:
transversion

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ID: 1028@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.047Z

Question:
Explain why patients with Xeroderma Pigmentosa are more prone to cancer than the rest of the population.
A:
Xeroderma Pigmentosa patients cannot employ the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. When these patients are exposed to UV light, thymine dimers are formed and they are not able to repair this defect. These dimers distort the structure of DNA and cause them to have a high risk of contracting skin cancer.
B:
Xeroderma Pigmentosa patients can employ the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. When these patients are exposed to UV light, the thymine dimers are formed and they are able to repair this defect. These dimers do not distort the structure of DNA and they have moderate risk of contracting skin cancer.
C:
Xeroderma Pigmentosa patients cannot employ the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. When these patients are exposed to UV light, the adjacent adenine forms dimers and they are not able to repair this defect. These dimers distort the structure of DNA and they have high risk of contracting skin cancer.
D:
Xeroderma Pigmentosa patients cannot employ the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. When these patients are exposed to UV light, the adjacent thymine cannot form thymine dimers and they are not able to repair this defect. The non-formation of dimers distorts the structure of DNA and they have high risk of contracting skin cancer.

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ID: 1029@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.058Z

Question:
You are looking at two fragments of DNA. Both have the sequence CATTCTG on one strand and GTAAGAC on the other. One of the fragments is exposed to UV light, the other is not. What will happen to the fragments and how might these mutations be repaired?
A:
The fragment exposed to UV light contains thymine dimers. Thymines lying adjacent to each other can form thymine dimers when exposed to UV light. They can be repaired by nucleotide excision.
B:
The fragment exposed to UV light contains adenine dimers. Adenines lying adjacent to each other can form dimers when exposed to UV light. They can be repaired by nucleotide excision.
C:
The fragment exposed to UV light contains thymine dimers. Thymines lying parallel to each other can form thymine dimers when exposed to UV light. They can be repaired by nucleotide excision.
D:
The fragment exposed to UV light contains thymine dimers. Thymines lying adjacent to each other can form thymine dimers when exposed to UV light. They can be synthesized by nucleotide excision.

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ID: 1030@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.070Z

Question:
Discuss how mutations can increase variation within a population.
A:
Substitution mutations may cause a different amino acid to be placed at a specific location, causing small changes in the protein. Frameshift mutations usually cause multiple amino acid changes, increasing chances that a new protein will form, leading to radically different characteristics in the offspring.
B:
Substitution mutations may cause multiple amino acid changes, increasing chances that a new protein will form, leading to radically different characteristics in the offspring. Frameshift mutations may cause a different amino acid to be placed at a specific location, causing small changes in a protein.
C:
Substitution mutations may cause a different amino acid to be placed at a specific location, resulting in major changes to the protein and leading to radically different characteristics in the offspring. Frameshift mutations cause multiple amino acid differences in a protein, leading to small changes in the protein.
D:
Substitution mutations result in a different amino acid being placed at a specific position in a protein, causing small changes. Silent mutations could result in new characteristics possessed by an offspring when a stop codon is substituted for an amino acid.

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ID: 1031@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.081Z

Question:
What is Friedrich Miescher known for?
A:
He was the first person to isolate the material that came to be known as nucleic acids.
B:
He identified the structure of DNA.
C:
He worked with bacterial strains of Streptococcus pneumonia and provided the first clue that DNA, and not protein, is the universal molecule of heredity.
D:
He found that the ratio of A = T and C = G, suggesting a paired relationship, and that the percentage content of A, T, C, and G is different for different species.

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ID: 1032@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.092Z

Question:
What term describes the process in which external DNA is taken up by a cell, thereby changing morphology and physiology?
A:
bacterial transformation
B:
polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplification
C:
Sanger’s dideoxy chain termination method
D:
transversion substitution

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ID: 1033@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.103Z

Question:
What do the letters STR stand for as used in forensic science?
A:
Short Tandem Repeat loci
B:
Shallow Transmission Recovery
C:
Stanley T. Riley (forensics expert)
D:
Standard Training Regimen

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ID: 1034@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.114Z

Question:
How did Frederick Griffith show that hereditary information could be transferred from one cell to another “horizontally,” rather than by descent?
A:
He demonstrated bacterial transformation.
B:
He demonstrated dominant inheritance of genes.
C:
He verified DNA replication.
D:
He identified the presence of bacterial pili.

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ID: 1035@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.130Z

Question:
If the DNA of a particular species was analyzed and it was found that it contains $23\%$ A, what would be the percentage of T?
A:
<span data-math="23\%">23\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="27\%">27\%</span>
C:
<span data-math="46\%">46\%</span>
D:
<span data-math="54\%">54\%</span>

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ID: 1036@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.141Z

Question:
If the sequence of the 3’ to 5’ strand is TATCGTCC, then the complementary sequence has the following sequence:
A:
5’-AATGCTAC- 3’
B:
3’- ATAGCAGG -5’
C:
3’-TTACGATG-5’
D:
5’-ATAGCAGG-3’

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ID: 1037@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.152Z

Question:
Who conducted the transformation experiments? What was proven by this work?
A:
Griffith conducted the transformation experiments and proved that genetic information could be transmitted horizontally, not just vertically.
B:
Watson and Crick conducted the transformation experiments and proved that genetic information could be transmitted horizontally, not just vertically.
C:
Griffith proved that the structure of DNA is a double helix. It has a semi-conservative mode of replication.
D:
Sanger conducted the transformation experiments and developed the sequencing method for the genome sequencing project.

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ID: 1038@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.158Z

Question:
Discuss the results of Hershey and Chase’s experiments.
A:
Hershey and Chase labeled the DNA with radioactive phosphorous <span data-math="^{32}\text{P}">^{32}\text{P}</span> and protein with radioactive sulfur <span data-math="^{35}\text{S}">^{35}\text{S}</span>. The result showed that phosphorous was passed into the bacteria and not sulfur. Thus, it is the nucleic acid which contains heritable information, not protein.
B:
Hershey and Chase labeled the protein with radioactive phosphorous <span data-math="^{32}\text{P}">^{32}\text{P}</span> and DNA with radioactive sulfur <span data-math="^{35}\text{S}">^{35}\text{S}</span>. The result showed that phosphorous was passed into the bacteria and not sulfur. Thus, it is the nucleic acid which contains heritable information, not protein.
C:
Hershey and Chase labeled the DNA with radioactive phosphorous <span data-math="^{32}\text{P}">^{32}\text{P}</span> and the protein with radioactive sulfur <span data-math="^{35}\text{S}">^{35}\text{S}</span>. The result showed that sulfur was passed into the bacteria and not phosphorous. Thus, it is the protein which contains heritable information, not the nucleic acid.
D:
Hershey and Chase labeled the RNA with radioactive phosphorous <span data-math="^{33}\text{P}">^{33}\text{P}</span> and protein with radioactive sulfur <span data-math="^{36}\text{S}">^{36}\text{S}</span>. The result showed that phosphorous was passed into the bacteria and not sulfur. Thus, it is the nucleic acid which contains heritable information, not protein.

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ID: 1039@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.174Z

Question:
An unidentified species has been identified as having $27\%$ adenine and $23\%$ guanine in its DNA. Identify which of the following species matches this profile and discuss how your answer is consistent with Chargaff’s Rules. Species A has $29\%$ thymine and $21\%$ cytocine, species B has $20\%$ adenine and $30\%$ thymine, species C has $27\%$ thymine and $23\%$ cytosine.
A:
Species C is consistent with the experimental results. According to Chargaff’s rule, adenine and thymine are equal, and cytosine and guanine are equal.
B:
Species C is consistent with the experimental results. According to Chargaff’s rule, adenine and guanine are equal, and cytosine and thymine are equal.
C:
Species A is consistent with the experimental results. According to Chargaff’s rule, amounts of adenine and thymine are equal, and cytosine and guanine are equal
D:
Species B is consistent with the experimental results. According to Chargaff’s rule, amounts of adenine and thymine are equal, and cytosine and guanine are equal.

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ID: 1040@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.180Z

Question:
DNA sample 1 was 30.1% A, 30.3% T, 19.7% G and 19.9% C. DNA sample 2 was 22.4% A, 21.8% T, 27.6% G and 28.2% C. DNA sample 3 was 27.8% A, 27.5% T, 22.0% G and 22.7% C. DNA sample 4 was 29.5% A, 30.1% T, 20.8% G and 19.6% C. Information about four different DNA samples is provided below. The percentage of each base is shown. What can be concluded from the data below?
A:
DNA samples 1 and 2 are likely the same species.
B:
DNA samples 2 and 3 are likely the same species.
C:
DNA samples 3 and 4 are likely the same species.
D:
DNA samples 1 and 4 are likely the same species.

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ID: 1041@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.191Z

Question:
Why did early scientists have to use radioactive labeling when they were trying to determine the source of hereditary information?
A:
Radioactive atoms were visible in x-rays while nonradioactive atoms were not visible to the x-rays.
B:
Radioactive atoms were heavier while mixed in solution, so they would form better precipitates.
C:
Radioactive atoms could easily be tracked from their source to their final location in solution.
D:
Radioactive atoms had short half-lives so they would decay to nonradioactive state.

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ID: 1042@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.207Z

Question:
Uracil is found where?
A:
chromosomal DNA
B:
helicase
C:
mitochondrial DNA
D:
mRNA

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ID: 1043@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.219Z

Question:
What is a pyrimidine?
A:
a double ring structure with a six-membered ring fused to a five-membered ring
B:
a single six-membered ring
C:
a double six-membered ring
D:
three phosphates covalently bonded by phosphodiester bonds

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ID: 1044@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.224Z

Question:
Who developed the Dideoxy Chain Termination method?
A:
Fred Sanger
B:
Griffith
C:
Hershey and Chase
D:
James Watson

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ID: 1045@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.235Z

Question:
What prevents the further development of a DNA strand in Sanger sequencing?
A:
the addition of DNA reductase
B:
the addition of dideoxynucleotides
C:
the elimination of DNA polymerase
D:
the addition of uracil

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ID: 1046@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.246Z

Question:
What is the function of histones in eukaryotic organisms?
A:
DNA wraps around the protein.
B:
They moderate the effects of DNA polymerase.
C:
They prevent excessive coiling of the DNA.
D:
They assist the rRNA in protein synthesis.

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ID: 1047@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.257Z

Question:
Which enzyme functions at the terminal end of the chromosome?
A:
DNA gyrase
B:
helicase
C:
ligase
D:
telomerase

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ID: 1048@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.269Z

Question:
Explain how we know base pairing takes place between a purine and pyrimidine.
A:
Only the pairing between a purine and pyrimidine can explain the uniform diameter of the DNA double helix. Adenine and thymine form two hydrogen bonds, whereas cytosine and guanine form three hydrogen bonds.
B:
Only the pairing between a purine and pyrimidine can explain the non-uniform diameter of the DNA double helix. Adenine and thymine form two hydrogen bonds, whereas cytosine and guanine form three hydrogen bonds.
C:
Only the pairing between a purine and pyrimidine can explain the uniform diameter of the DNA double helix. Adenine and thymine form three hydrogen bonds, whereas cytosine and guanine form two hydrogen bonds.
D:
Only the pairing between a purine and pyrimidine can explain the uniform diameter of the DNA double helix. Adenine and thymine form two disulfide bonds, whereas cytosine and guanine form three hydrogen bonds.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s02 apbio-ch14-s02-lo01 apbio-ch14-ot018

ID: 1049@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.281Z

Question:
Explain the function of capillary electrophoresis in the Sanger sequencing method.
A:
It separates the components of the sample by size in an electric field. Thus, the DNA sequence can be derived by ordering the DNA fragments by size.
B:
It separates the components of the sample by size in an electric field. Thus, single stranded DNA can be derived by ordering the DNA fragments by size.
C:
It packs the components of the sample by size in an electric field together. Thus, DNA sequence can be derived by ordering the DNA fragments by size.
D:
It separates different types of DNA by size in an electric field. Thus, the DNA sequence can be derived by ordering the different DNA by size.

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ID: 1050@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.292Z

Question:
Discuss the difference between the use of the DNA gyrase enzyme in Prokaryotes and histones in Eukaryotic organisms.
A:
Prokaryotes use DNA gyrase to pack their chromosome into the cell using supercoiling. Eukaryotic chromosomes are wrapped around histone proteins that create heterochromatin and euchromatin.
B:
Eukaryotes use DNA gyrase to pack their chromosome into the cell using supercoiling. Prokaryotic chromosomes are wrapped around histone proteins that create heterochromatin and euchromatin.
C:
Prokaryotes use DNA gyrase to un-pack their chromosome into the cell using supercoiling. Eukaryotic chromosomes are wrapped around histone proteins that create heterochromatin and euchromatin.
D:
Prokaryotes use DNA gyrase to pack their chromosome into the cell using supercoiling. Eukaryotic chromosomes are separated from histone proteins that create heterochromatin and euchromatin.

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ID: 1051@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.302Z

Question:
Which property of proteins refers to the assembly of multiple polypeptide chains?
A:
primary structure
B:
secondary structure
C:
tertiary structure
D:
quaternary structure

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ID: 1052@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.313Z

Question:
What property of DNA fragments accounts for their movement through the gel towards the cathode during gel electrophoresis?
A:
molecular weight of fragment
B:
base composition
C:
charge
D:
shape

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ID: 1053@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.330Z

Question:
Which enzyme initiates the splitting of the double DNA strand during replication?
A:
DNA gyrase
B:
helicase
C:
ligase
D:
telomerase

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ID: 1054@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.341Z

Question:
What is attached to the 5’ and 3’ ends of a nitrogenous base of DNA?
A:
a hydroxyl group to a phosphate group
B:
a carboxyl group to a phosphate group
C:
a phosphate group directly attached
D:
deoxyribose

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ID: 1055@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.347Z

Question:
If DNA replicates in a semi-conservative manner, what is the outcome?
A:
Both copies of DNA have double- stranded segments of parental DNA and newly synthesized DNA interspersed.
B:
Each double-stranded DNA includes one parental or “old” strand and one “new” strand.
C:
The parental DNA remains together, and the newly formed daughter strands are together.
D:
The two “arms” of the chromosomes exchange with each other. The resulting copies have the upper half old and the lower half new material.

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ID: 1056@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.363Z

Question:
The splitting of each chromosome in half with each half going to a new chromosome describes which mode of replication?
A:
conservative
B:
dispersive
C:
semi-conservative
D:
semi-dispersive

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ID: 1057@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.369Z

Question:
Explain why half of DNA is replicated in a discontinuous fashion.
A:
Replication of the lagging strand occurs in the direction away from the replication fork in short stretches of DNA, since access to the DNA is always from the 5’ end. This results in pieces of DNA being replicated in a discontinuous fashion.
B:
Replication of the leading strand occurs in the direction away from the replication fork in short stretches of DNA, since access to the DNA is always from the 5’ end. This results in pieces of DNA being replicated in a discontinuous fashion.
C:
Replication of the lagging strand occurs in the direction of the replication fork in short stretches of DNA, since access to the DNA is always from the 5’ end. This results in pieces of DNA being replicated in a discontinuous fashion.
D:
Replication of the lagging strand occurs in the direction away from the replication fork in short stretches of DNA, since access to the DNA is always from the 3’ end. This results in pieces of DNA being replicated in a discontinuous fashion.

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ID: 1058@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.380Z

Question:
What did the experiments of Meselson and Stahl demonstrate about the replication of DNA?
A:
The experiment demonstrates the semi-conservative mode of DNA. It resulted in each replicated molecule inheriting one of the parent strands and one duplicated strand.
B:
The experiment demonstrates the conservative mode of DNA. It resulted in each replicated molecule inheriting one of the parent strands and one duplicated strand.
C:
The experiment demonstrates the semi-conservative mode of DNA replication. It results in each offspring inheriting one maternal and one paternal chromosome.
D:
The experiment demonstrates the conservative mode of DNA replication. It results in each replicated molecule inheriting one parent and one duplicated RNA copy.

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ID: 1059@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.391Z

Question:
Which of the following uses bidirectional replication?
A:
mitochondria
B:
<em>E. coli</em>
C:
plasmid
D:
Polyoma virus

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ID: 1060@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.402Z

Question:
What is the role of DNA pol II?
A:
Its exonuclease activity removes RNA primer and replaces it with newly synthesized DNA.
B:
It functions in the repair of DNA strands.
C:
It is the main enzyme that adds nucleotides in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
D:
It binds to single-stranded DNA to avoid DNA rewinding back.

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ID: 1061@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.413Z

Question:
What is a fragment of a lagging strand of DNA under replication called?
A:
the Primer fragment.
B:
the Griffith portion
C:
the Okazaki fragment
D:
the portion that telomeres attach to

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ID: 1062@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.424Z

Question:
RNA primers are synthesized by what?
A:
ligase
B:
primase
C:
RNA polymerase
D:
topoisomerase

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ID: 1063@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.436Z

Question:
What is the role of ligase in DNA replication?
A:
It is the main enzyme that adds nucleotides in the 5’ - 3’ direction.
B:
It helps relieve the stress on DNA when unwinding by causing breaks and then resealing the DNA.
C:
It seals the gaps between the Okazaki fragments to create one continuous DNA strand.
D:
It binds to single-stranded DNA to avoid DNA rewinding back.

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ID: 1064@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.447Z

Question:
Compare and contrast the roles of DNA polymerase I and DNA ligase in DNA replication.
A:
DNA polymerase I removes the RNA primers from the developing copy of DNA. DNA ligase seals the ends of the new segment, especially the Okazaki fragments.
B:
DNA polymerase I adds the RNA primers to the already developing copy of DNA. DNA ligase separates the ends of the new segment, especially the Okazaki fragments.
C:
DNA polymerase I seals the ends of the new segment, especially the Okazaki fragments. DNA ligase removes the RNA primers from the developing copy of DNA.
D:
DNA polymerase I removes the enzyme primase from the developing copy of DNA. DNA ligase seals the ends of the old segment, especially the Okazaki fragments.

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ID: 1065@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.458Z

Question:
Explain the roles of single stranded proteins, primase and DNA polymerase III at the replication fork.
A:
Single-strand binding proteins bind to single-stranded DNA. Primase synthesizes the RNA primer. DNA polymerase III synthesizes the daughter strand.
B:
Single-strand binding proteins bind to double-stranded DNA. Primase synthesizes the RNA primer. DNA polymerase III synthesizes the daughter strand.
C:
Single-strand binding proteins synthesize the RNA primer. Primase binds to the single-stranded DNA. DNA polymerase II synthesizes the daughter strand.
D:
Single-strand binding proteins bind to double-stranded DNA. Primase synthesizes the daughter strand. DNA polymerase III synthesizes the RNA primer.

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ID: 1066@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.469Z

Question:
If a Prokaryotic cell is replicating nucleotides at a rate of $100$ per second, how fast would a Eukaryotic cell be replicating nucleotides?
A:
<span data-math="1000">1000</span> per second
B:
<span data-math="100">100</span> per second
C:
<span data-math="10">10</span> per second
D:
<span data-math="1">1</span> per second

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ID: 1067@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.489Z

Question:
What are special chromosomal sequences found in yeast that are equivalent to the origin of replication in E. coli ?
A:
areas of prokaryotic chromosomes that initiate copying
B:
Autonomously Replicating Sequences (ARS)
C:
portions of prokaryotic chromosomes that can be transferred from one organism to another
D:
portions of eukaryotic chromosomes that replicate independent of the parent chromosome

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ID: 1068@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.510Z

Question:
Cells that do not reproduce after a certain point in the organism’s life do not exhibit the activity of what?
A:
germ cell
B:
helicase
C:
RNA polymerase
D:
telomerase

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ID: 1069@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.521Z

Question:
During proofreading, which enzyme opens the DNA?
A:
DNA polymerase
B:
helicase
C:
primase
D:
topoisomerase

Tags:

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ID: 1070@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.526Z

Question:
Compare and contrast Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic DNA replication.
A:
A prokaryotic organism’s rate of replication is ten times faster than that of eukaryotes. Prokaryotes have a single origin of replication and use five types of polymerases, while eukaryotes have multiple sites of origin and use fourteen polymerases. Telomerase is absent in prokaryotes. DNA pol I is the primer remover in prokaryotes, while in eukaryotes it is RNase H. DNA pol III performs strand elongation in prokaryotes and pol <span data-math="\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B4}">\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B4}</span> and pol <span data-math="\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B5}">\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B5}</span> do the same in eukaryotes.
B:
A prokaryotic organism’s rate of replication is ten times slower than that of eukaryotes. Prokaryotes have a single origin of replication and use five types of polymerases, while eukaryotes have multiple sites of origin and use fourteen polymerases. Telomerase is absent in eukaryotes. DNA pol I is the primer remover in prokaryotes, while in eukaryotes it is RNase H. DNA pol III performs strand elongation in prokaryotes and pol <span data-math="\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B4}">\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B4}</span> and pol <span data-math="\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B5}">\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B5}</span> do the same in eukaryotes.
C:
A prokaryotic organism’s rate of replication is ten times faster than that of eukaryotes. Prokaryotes have five origins of replication and use a single type of polymerase, while eukaryotes have a single site of origin and use fourteen polymerases. Telomerase is absent in prokaryotes. DNA pol I is the primer remover in prokaryotes, while in eukaryotes it is RNase H. DNA pol III performs strand elongation in prokaryotes and pol <span data-math="\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B4}">\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B4}</span> and pol <span data-math="\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B5}">\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B5}</span> do the same in eukaryotes.
D:
A prokaryotic organism’s rate of replication is ten times slower than that of eukaryotes. Prokaryotes have a single origin of replication and use five types of polymerases, while eukaryotes have multiple sites of origin and use fourteen polymerases. Telomerase is absent in prokaryotes. DNA pol I is the primer remover in eukaryotes, while in prokaryotes it is RNase H. DNA pol III performs strand elongation in prokaryotes and pol <span data-math="\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B4}">\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B4}</span> and pol <span data-math="\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B5}">\,\unicode[Arial]{x3B5}</span> do the same in eukaryotes.

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ID: 1071@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.537Z

Question:
Explain how the enzyme telomerase functions.
A:
The telomerase enzyme contains a catalytic part and a built-in RNA template. Complementary bases to the RNA template are added at the 3’ chromosomal end of the DNA strand. When the 3’ end of the lagging strand is elongated, DNA polymerase adds complementary nucleotides to the end of chromosomes.
B:
The telomerase enzyme contains a catalytic part and a built-in DNA template. Complementary bases to the RNA template are added at the 3’ chromosomal end of the DNA strand. When the 3’ end of the lagging strand is elongated, DNA polymerase adds complementary nucleotides to the end of chromosomes.
C:
The telomerase enzyme contains a catalytic part and a built-in RNA template. Complementary bases to the RNA template are added at the 5’ chromosomal end of the DNA strand. When the 5’ end of the lagging strand is elongated, DNA polymerase adds complementary nucleotides to the end of chromosomes.
D:
The telomerase enzyme contains a catalytic part and a built-in RNA template. Complementary bases to the RNA template are added at the 3’ chromosomal end of the DNA strand. When the 3’ end of the lagging strand is elongated, RNA polymerase adds complementary nucleotides to the end of chromosomes.

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ID: 1072@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.554Z

Question:
What effect does a frame shift mutation have on a strand of DNA?
A:
a change of an amino acid at the point of the frame shift
B:
a different reading of codons past the frame shift
C:
no effect
D:
the addition of a new codon at the point of the frame shift

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ID: 1073@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.567Z

Question:
What effect would a nonsense mutation have?
A:
It would shift the reading of the codons by one base.
B:
It would have no effect on the DNA.
C:
It would stop all translation of the DNA strand.
D:
It would add a purine where a pyrimidine was previously.

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ID: 1074@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.580Z

Question:
Nucleotide excision repair is often employed when UV exposure causes the formation of what?
A:
phosphodiester bonds
B:
purine conjugates
C:
pyrimidine dimers
D:
tetrad disassembly

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ID: 1075@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.594Z

Question:
What is a transition substitution mutation?
A:
a mutation that occurs without any exposure to any environmental agent
B:
the transfer of a piece of DNA from one chromosome to another
C:
a mutation that is not expressed
D:
a purine or pyrimidine replaced by a base of the same kind

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ID: 1076@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.608Z

Question:
Discuss the effects of point mutations on a DNA strand.
A:
Mutations can cause a single change in an amino acid. A nonsense mutation can stop the replication or reading of that strand. Insertion or deletion mutations can cause a frame shift. This can result in non-functional proteins.
B:
Mutations can cause a single change in amino acid. A missense mutation can stop the replication or reading of that strand. Insertion or deletion mutations can cause a frame shift. This can result in non-functional proteins.
C:
Mutations can cause a single change in amino acid. A nonsense mutation can stop the replication or reading of that strand. Substitution mutations can cause a frame shift. This can result in non-functional proteins.
D:
Mutations can cause a single change in amino acid. A nonsense mutation can stop the replication or reading of that strand. Insertion or deletion mutations can cause a frame shift. This can result in functional proteins.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-lo01 apbio-ch14-ot046

ID: 1077@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.639Z

Question:
Discuss the significance of mutations in tRNA and rRNA.
A:
Mutations in tRNA and rRNA would lead to the production of defective proteins or no protein production.
B:
Mutations in tRNA and rRNA would lead to changes in the semi-conservative mode of replication of DNA.
C:
Mutations in tRNA and rRNA would lead to production of a DNA strand with a mutated single strand and normal other strand.
D:
Mutations in tRNA and rRNA would lead to skin cancer in patients of xeroderma pigmentosa.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-lo02 apbio-ch14-ot047

ID: 1078@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.645Z

Question:
A pH scale from 4.5 to 7.0 is shown. Above the pH scale are hydrangeas with colors ranging from blue to purple to pink. What is illustrated by the image below?
A:
phenotypic changes as a result of pH changes
B:
genotypic changes as a result of pH changes
C:
DNA changes as a result of pH changes
D:
RNA changes as a result of pH changes

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ID: 1079@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.657Z

Question:
Describe what a DNA strand will look like if an incorrectly-added base is present at one point on the strand.
A:
That portion will be elongated.
B:
The addition mutation will cause a shrinking of the strand at that point.
C:
The incorrect base will cause the sides to constrict closer together.
D:
There will be a bulge at the point that the added base was inserted.

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ID: 1080@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.668Z

Question:
Which mutation has most probably led to the most changes in human populations over time and is the most common type of mutation?
A:
addition
B:
deletion
C:
substitution
D:
transversion

Tags:

apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch14 apbio-ch14-s06 apbio-ch14-s06-aplo-3-28 apbio-ch14-ot050

ID: 1081@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.687Z

Question:
Some hereditary and age-related diseases are caused by translation errors. Explain why an error in translation may cause disease.
A:
If there is an error in translation, the correct lipids will not be made for signaling, storage of energy or to perform vital functions. This can cause hereditary and age-related diseases.
B:
Translation is the process in which a particular segment of DNA is copied into RNA (mRNA) by the enzyme RNA polymerase. Error in such copying can lead to various hereditary and age-related diseases.
C:
Translation is the process used by ribosomes to synthesize proteins from amino acids. If there is an error in this process, the correct proteins will not be made to build important body tissue or perform vital functions thus leading to hereditary and age-related diseases.
D:
Translation is the process Golgi bodies use to synthesize proteins from amino acids. If there is an error in this process, the correct proteins will not be made to build important body tissue or perform vital functions.

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ID: 1082@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.692Z

Question:
What is the flow of information for the synthesis of proteins according to the central dogma?
A:
DNA to mRNA to protein
B:
DNA to mRNA to tRNA to protein
C:
DNA to protein to mRNA to protein
D:
mRNA to DNA to mRNA to protein

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ID: 1083@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.709Z

Question:
The DNA of virus A is inserted into the protein coat of virus B. The combination virus is used to infect E. coli . The virus particles produced by the infection are analyzed for DNA and protein contents. What results would you expect?
A:
DNA and protein from B
B:
DNA and protein from A
C:
DNA from A and protein from B
D:
DNA from B and protein from A

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo01 apbio-ch15-ex003

ID: 1084@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.720Z

Question:
The AUC and AUA codons in mRNA both specify isoleucine. What feature of the genetic code explains this?
A:
Complementarity
B:
Degeneracy
C:
Nonsense codons
D:
Universality

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo02 apbio-ch15-ex004

ID: 1085@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.726Z

Question:
How many nucleotides are in 12 mRNA codons?
A:
<span data-math="12">12</span>
B:
<span data-math="24">24</span>
C:
<span data-math="36">36</span>
D:
<span data-math="48">48</span>

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo02 apbio-ch15-ex005

ID: 1086@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.737Z

Question:
If mRNA is complementary to the DNA template strand and the DNA template stand is complementary to the DNA non-template strand, why are base sequences of mRNA and the DNA non-template strand not identical? Could they ever be?
A:
No, they cannot be identical because the T nucleotide in DNA is replaced with U nucleotide in RNA and AUG is the start codon.
B:
No, they cannot be identical because the T nucleotide in RNA is replaced with U nucleotide in DNA.
C:
They can be identical if methylation of the U nucleotide in RNA occurs and gives T nucleotide.
D:
They can be identical if de-methylation of the U nucleotide in RNA occurs and gives T nucleotide.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo01 apbio-ch15-ex006

ID: 1087@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.753Z

Question:
Imagine if there were 200 commonly occurring amino acids instead of 20. Given what you know about the genetic code, what would be the shortest possible codon length? Explain.
A:
Four
B:
Five
C:
Two
D:
Three

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo02 apbio-ch15-ex007

ID: 1088@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.765Z

Question:
What characteristic of the genetic code points to a common ancestry for all organisms?
A:
The code is degenerate
B:
The code contains 64 codons.
C:
The code is universal.
D:
The code contains stop codons

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch15-ex008

ID: 1089@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.770Z

Question:
What process transfers heritable material to the next generation?
A:
replication
B:
splicing
C:
transcription
D:
translation

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch15-ex009

ID: 1090@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.781Z

Question:
When comparing transcription of heritable information in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, which events are the same?
A:
Transcription by polymerase, recognition of a consensus sequence in the promoter, and termination by a hairpin loop are conserved.
B:
Translation by polymerase, recognition of a consensus sequence in the promoter, and termination by a hairpin loop are conserved.
C:
Transcription by polymerase, recognition of a different sequence in the promoter, and termination by a hairpin loop are conserved.
D:
Transcription by polymerase, recognition of a consensus sequence in the promoter, and elongation by a hairpin loop are conserved.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch15-ex010

ID: 1091@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.792Z

Question:
Mutations can occur in any part of the DNA. What can happen if there is a mutation in the promoter sequence?
A:
All processes will carry on as usual. Nothing will be affected.
B:
RNA polymerase will not be able to attach.
C:
RNA polymerase will bind upstream of the promoter sequence.
D:
RNA polymerase will bind downstream of the promoter sequence.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo01 apbio-ch15-s02-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch15-ex011

ID: 1092@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.808Z

Question:
Why is the stop codon necessary for translation?
A:
The stop codon is the first step in a series of steps to end translation.
B:
The stop codon is necessary to initiate translation.
C:
The stop codon ends translation which allows the polypeptide strand to be released.
D:
The stop codon ends translation in order to initiate transcription.

Tags:

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ID: 1093@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.813Z

Question:
Which subunit of the E.coli polymerase confers specificity to transcription?
A:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>’
D:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}">\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}</span>

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ID: 1094@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.830Z

Question:
Why are the -10 and -35 regions of prokaryotic promoters called consensus sequences?
A:
They are identical in all bacterial species.
B:
They are similar in all bacterial species.
C:
They exist in all organisms.
D:
They have the same function in all organisms.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo01 apbio-ch15-ex014

ID: 1095@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.836Z

Question:
The sequence that signals the end of transcription is called the:
A:
promoter
B:
stop codon
C:
TATA box
D:
terminator

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo02 apbio-ch15-ex015

ID: 1096@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.853Z

Question:
If the rho protein is missing, will a prokaryotic gene be terminated?
A:
It depends on the gene.
B:
No, the rho protein is essential.
C:
Transcription termination is not required.
D:
Yes, the rho protein is not involved in transcription.

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ID: 1097@1

2015-08-20T13:03:45.858Z

Question:
Explain the initiation of transcription in prokaryotes. Include all proteins involved.
A:
In prokaryotes the polymerase is composed of five polypeptide subunits, two of which are identical. Four of these subunits, denoted <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>, and <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>’, comprise the polymerase core enzyme. The fifth subunit, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}">\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}</span>, is involved only in transcription initiation. The polymerase comprised of all five subunits is called the holoenzyme.
B:
In prokaryotes the polymerase is composed of four polypeptide subunits, two of which are identical. These subunits, denoted <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>, and <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>’, comprise the polymerase core enzyme. There is a fifth subunit that is involved in translation initiation. The polymerase comprised of all four subunits is called the holoenzyme.
C:
In prokaryotes the polymerase is composed of five polypeptide subunits, two of which are identical. Four of these subunits, denoted <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>, and <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>’, comprise the polymerase holoenzyme. The fifth subunit, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}">\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}</span>, is involved only in transcription initiation. The polymerase comprised of all five subunits is called the core enzyme.
D:
In prokaryotes the polymerase is composed of five polypeptide subunits, two of which are identical. Four of these subunits, denoted <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>α, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>, and <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>’, comprise the polymerase core enzyme. The fifth subunit, <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}">\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}</span>, is involved only in termination. The polymerase comprised of all five subunits is called the holoenzyme.

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ID: 1098@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.049Z

Question:
In your own words, describe the difference between rho-dependent and rho-independent termination of transcription in prokaryotes.
A:
Rho-dependent termination is controlled by rho protein and the polymerase stalls near the end of the gene at a run of G nucleotides on the DNA template. In rho-independent termination, when the polymerase encounters a region rich in C-G nucleotides the mRNA folds into a hairpin loop that causes the polymerase to stall.
B:
Rho-independent termination is controlled by rho protein and the polymerase stalls near the end of the gene at a run of G nucleotides on the DNA template. In rho-dependent termination, when the polymerase encounters a region rich in C-G nucleotides, the mRNA folds into a hairpin loop that causes polymerase to stall.
C:
Rho-dependent termination is controlled by rho protein and the polymerase begins near the end of the gene at a run of G nucleotides on the DNA template. In rho-independent termination, when the polymerase encounters a region rich in C-G nucleotides, the mRNA creates a hairpin loop that causes polymerase to stall.
D:
Rho-dependent termination is controlled by rho protein and the polymerase stalls near the end of the gene at a run of G nucleotides on the DNA template. In rho-independent termination, when the polymerase encounters a region rich in A-T nucleotides, the mRNA creates a hairpin loop that causes polymerase to stall.

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ID: 1099@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.067Z

Question:
A scientist splices a eukaryotic promoter in front of a bacterial gene and inserts the gene in a bacterial chromosome. Would you expect the bacterium to transcribe the gene?
A:
Initially the bacterium will not transcribe it, but will transcribe after 5’ capping.
B:
It will not transcribe it because there is no poly A tail in prokaryotes.
C:
No, prokaryotes use different promoters than eukaryotes.
D:
Yes, the bacterium would transcribe the eukaryotic gene.

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ID: 1100@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.085Z

Question:
The protein product of the SRY gene is a DNA binding protein. Together with a protein called SF1, the SRY protein acts as a transcription factor that “turns on” certain genes. Which of the following statements best describes how a change in these two proteins would affect male sexual development?
A:
A mutation that abolished activity of SF1 would increase the effect of a SRY mutation, making the person more feminine.
B:
A mutation that abolished activity of SF1 would cancel out a mutation in SRY, so if both mutations occur together male sex characteristics would develop normally.
C:
A mutation in the SRY protein that abolished activity would result in abnormal development of male sex characteristics but a mutation of SF1 would not.
D:
Both a mutation in the SRY protein and a mutation in SF1 that abolished activity would result in a lack of development of male sex characteristics.

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ID: 1101@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.096Z

Question:
According to this passage, which of the following has been shown to evolve faster than protein-coding genes?
A:
core promoters that bind the preinitiation complex
B:
core promoters that occur within genes
C:
promoters that occur far upstream of the gene
D:
promoters that occur downstream of a gene

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ID: 1102@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.102Z

Question:
Which feature of promoters can be found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A:
GC box
B:
octamer box
C:
TATA box
D:
-10 and -35 sequences

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ID: 1103@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.113Z

Question:
At what stage in the transcription of a eukaryotic gene would TFII factors be active?
A:
elongation
B:
initiation
C:
processing
D:
termination

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ID: 1104@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.132Z

Question:
Which polymerase is responsible for the synthesis of 5S rRNA?
A:
polymerase I
B:
polymerase II
C:
polymerase III
D:
ribonuclease I

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ID: 1105@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.138Z

Question:
What transcripts will be most affected by low levels of $\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}$ -amanitin?
A:
18S and 28S rRNAs
B:
5S rRNAs and tRNAs
C:
other small nuclear RNAs
D:
pre-mRNAs

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ID: 1106@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.155Z

Question:
Which step in the transcription of eukaryotic RNA differs the most from its prokaryotic counterpart?
A:
The initiation step in eukaryotes requires an initiation complex with enhancers and transcription factors. Also, the separation of the DNA strand is different as histones are involved.
B:
The initiation step in prokaryotes requires an initiation complex with enhancers and transcription factors. Also, the separation of the DNA strand is different as histones are involved.
C:
The elongation step in eukaryotes requires an initiation complex with enhancers and transcription factors. Also, the separation of the DNA strand is different as histones are involved.
D:
The initiation step in eukaryotes requires an initiation complex with enhancers and transcription factors. Also, the separation of the DNA strand is different as histones are not involved.

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ID: 1107@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.167Z

Question:
Would you be able to determine which RNA polymerase you isolated from a eukaryotic cell without analyzing its products?
A:
No, because they have the same <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>-amanitin sensitivity in all products.
B:
No, quantitative analysis of products is done to determine the type of polymerase.
C:
Yes, they can be determined as they differ in <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>-amanitin sensitivity.
D:
Yes, they can be determined by the number of molecules that bind to DNA.

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ID: 1108@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.178Z

Question:
Which of the following cell structures does not contain heritable information?
A:
chloroplast
B:
cytoplasmic membrane
C:
mitochondria
D:
nucleus

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ID: 1109@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.189Z

Question:
How does the enzyme reverse transcriptase violate the central dogma of molecular biology in HIV?
A:
The enzyme reverse transcriptase reverse transcribes the RNA in the genome of HIV to DNA.
B:
The enzyme reverse transcriptase translates the RNA of the HIV into protein and then back to DNA.
C:
The enzyme reverse transcriptase transcribes the DNA straight into the protein molecules.
D:
The enzyme reverse transcriptase transcribes DNA to RNA, then again to DNA. There is no protein synthesis.

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ID: 1110@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.200Z

Question:
In eukaryotes, pre-mRNAs are processed to form mature mRNAs. How does the mRNA editing that occurs in Trypanosoma brucei differ from mRNA processing that occurs in all eukaryotes?
A:
mRNA editing changes the coding sequence of the mRNA, but mRNA processing does not.
B:
mRNA editing splices out noncoding RNA, but mRNA processing does not.
C:
mRNA editing adds a cap of 5’-methylguanosine to the mRNA, but mRNA processing does not.
D:
mRNA editing adds a 3’ poly-A tail, but mRNA processing does not.

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ID: 1111@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.206Z

Question:
Errors in splicing are implicated in cancers and other human diseases. What kinds of mutations might lead to splicing errors? Think of different possible outcomes if splicing errors occur.
A:
Mutations in the spliceosome recognition sequence at each end of an intron, or in the proteins and RNAs that make up the spliceosome, may occur. Mutations may also add new spliceosome recognition sites.
B:
Mutations in the spliceosome recognition sequence at each end of an exon, or in the proteins and RNAs that make up the spliceosome, may occur. Mutations may also add new spliceosome recognition sites.
C:
Mutations in the spliceosome recognition sequence at each end of an intron, or in the proteins and RNAs that make up the spliceosome, may occur. Mutations may also delete existing spliceosome recognition sites.
D:
Mutations at the each end of intron and exon, or in the proteins and RNAs that make up the spliceosome, may occur. Mutations may also add new spliceosome recognition sites and delete existing sites.

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ID: 1112@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.217Z

Question:
Explain why helper proteins are necessary for the formation of the final protein during RNA splicing in higher organisms.
A:
Helper proteins attach themselves to the ends of introns so that they can be spliced out during RNA splicing and coded areas are spliced together to form mRNA which then codes for the final protein.
B:
Helper proteins attach themselves to the ends of exons so that they can be spliced out during RNA splicing and coded areas are spliced together to form mRNA which encodes the final protein.
C:
Helper proteins attach themselves to mRNA in order to remove the non-coded areas and thus form the pre-mRNA which codes for the final protein.
D:
Helper proteins help the pre-mRNA to recruit various other components which splice out the non-coded regions and form mRNA which codes for the final protein.

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ID: 1113@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.234Z

Question:
A poly-A sequence is added at the:
A:
5’ end of a transcript in the nucleus
B:
3’-end of a transcript in the nucleus
C:
5’ end of a transcript in the cytoplasm
D:
3’-end of a transcript in the cytoplasm

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ID: 1114@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.246Z

Question:
Which pre-mRNA processing step is important for initiating translation?
A:
poly-A tail
B:
RNA editing
C:
splicing
D:
7-methylguanosine cap

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo01 apbio-ch15-ex034

ID: 1115@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.252Z

Question:
Where are the RNA components of ribosomes synthesized?
A:
cytoplasm
B:
endoplasmic reticulum
C:
nucleus
D:
nucleolus

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ID: 1116@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.263Z

Question:
What processing step enhances the stability of pre-tRNAs and pre-rRNAs?
A:
cleavage
B:
methylation
C:
nucleotide modification
D:
splicing

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo02 apbio-ch15-ex036

ID: 1117@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.280Z

Question:
Can you predict how alternative splicing may lead to an economy of genes? Do you need a different gene for every protein that the cell can produce?
A:
Alternative splicing can lead to the synthesis of several polypeptides from a single gene.
B:
Alternative splicing can lead to the synthesis of several forms of mRNA from a single gene.
C:
Alternative splicing can lead to the synthesis of several forms of codons from a set of genes.
D:
Alternative splicing can lead to the synthesis of several forms of ribosomes from a set of genes.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo01 apbio-ch15-ex037

ID: 1118@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.285Z

Question:
What is the major challenge in the production of RNA in eukaryotes compared to prokaryotes?
A:
exporting the mRNA across the nuclear membrane
B:
importing the mRNA across the nuclear membrane
C:
the mRNA staying inside the nuclear membrane
D:
the mRNA translating into proteins within seconds

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo02 apbio-ch15-ex038

ID: 1119@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.297Z

Question:
A lack of protein in the diet can cause hair loss. Explain why this occurs.
A:
Due to lack of protein in the diet, our body will not be able to form other proteins; thus, it will conserve the protein it has for critical use, leading to hair loss.
B:
Lack of protein in the diet can weaken the immune system, thus leading to hair loss.
C:
Due to lack of protein in the diet, energy will be lost, thus leading to hair loss.
D:
Lack of protein in the diet will lead to breakage of disulfide bonds between proteins, thus leading to hair loss.

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ID: 1120@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.308Z

Question:

Many antibiotics inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. For example, tetracycline blocks the A site on the bacterial ribosome, and chloramphenicol blocks peptidyl transfer. What specific effect would you expect each of these antibiotics to have on protein synthesis?

Tetracycline would directly affect: 1. tRNA binding to the ribosome 2. Ribosome assembly 3. Growth of the protein chain

Chloramphenicol would directly affect 1. tRNA binding to the ribosome 2. Ribosome assembly 3. Growth of the protein chain

A:
Tetracycline would directly affect tRNA binding to the ribosome. Chloramphenicol would affect the growth of the protein chain.
B:
Tetracycline would directly affect ribosome assembly. Chloramphenicol would affect the growth of the protein chain.
C:
Tetracycline would directly affect the growth of the protein chain. Chloramphenicol would affect the tRNA binding to the ribosome.
D:
Tetracycline would directly affect mRNA binding to the ribosome. Chloramphenicol would affect the ribosome assembly.

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apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo01 apbio-ch15-s05-aplo-3-4 apbio-ch15-ex040

ID: 1121@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.320Z

Question:
The first amino acid added to a polypeptide chain is usually:
A:
adenine
B:
leucine
C:
methionine
D:
thymine

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ID: 1122@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.331Z

Question:
In any given species, there are at least how many types of aminoacyl tRNA synthetases?
A:
<span data-math="20">20</span>
B:
<span data-math="40">40</span>
C:
<span data-math="100">100</span>
D:
<span data-math="200">200</span>

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo01 apbio-ch15-ex042

ID: 1123@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.343Z

Question:
In prokaryotic cells, ribosomes are found in/on the:
A:
cytoplasm
B:
mitochondrion
C:
nucleus
D:
endoplasmic reticulum

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo02 apbio-ch15-ex043

ID: 1124@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.361Z

Question:
The peptide bond synthesis in prokaryotic translation is catalyzed by:
A:
a ribosomal protein
B:
a cytoplasmic protein
C:
mRNA itself
D:
ribosomal RNA

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo02 apbio-ch15-ex044

ID: 1125@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.373Z

Question:
Transcribe and translate the following DNA sequence (nontemplate strand): 5’- ATGGCCGGTTATTAAGCA-3’
A:
The mRNA would be 5’-AUGGCCGGUUAUUAAGCA-3’ and the protein will be MAGY.
B:
The mRNA would be 3’-AUGGCCGGUUAUUAAGCA-5’ and the protein will be MAGY.
C:
The mRNA would be 5’-ATGGCCGGTTATTAAGCA-3’ and the protein will be MAGY.
D:
The mRNA would be 5’-AUGGCCGGUUAUUAAGCA-3’ and the protein will be MACY.

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apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo01 apbio-ch15-ex045

ID: 1126@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.384Z

Question:
The RNA world hypothesis proposes that the first complex molecule was RNA and it preceded protein formation. Which major function of the ribosomal RNA supports the hypothesis?
A:
rRNA has catalytic properties in the large subunit and it assembles proteins.
B:
rRNA is a protein molecule that helps in the synthesis of other proteins.
C:
rRNA is essential for the transcription process.
D:
rRNA plays a major role in post-translational processes.

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ID: 1127@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.396Z

Question:
You sequence a gene of interest and isolate the matching mRNA. You find that the mRNA is considerably shorter than the DNA sequence. Why is that?
A:
There was an experimental mistake. The mRNA should have the same length as the gene.
B:
The mRNA should be longer than the DNA sequence because the promoter is also transcribed.
C:
The processed mRNA is shorter because introns were removed.
D:
The mRNA is shorter because the signal sequence to cross the nuclear membrane was removed.

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ID: 1128@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.402Z

Question:
A mutation in the promoter region of the gene for the beta-globin can cause beta-thalassemia, a hereditary condition which causes anemia. Why would mutations in the promoter region lead to low levels of hemoglobin?
A:
The globin chains produced are too long to form functional hemoglobin.
B:
The globin chains are too short to form functional hemoglobin.
C:
Fewer globin chains are synthesized because less mRNA is transcribed.
D:
Globin chains do not fold properly and are non-functional.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch15-ex048

ID: 1129@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.419Z

Question:

A table of with the codon and what amino acid it codes for, which correlate as follows: GCA - alanine, AAG - lysine, GUU - valine, AAU -asparagine, UGC - cysteine, UCG and UCU - serine, UUA - Leucine, and UAA - stop. You are given three mRNA sequences:

  1. 5’-UCG-GCA- AAU-UUA -GUU-3’
  2. 5’-UCU-GCA- AAU-UUA -GUU-3’
  3. 5’-UCU-GCA- AAU-UAA -GUU-3’

Using the table, write the peptide encoded by each of the mRNA sequences.

A:
<ol> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine-leucine-valine</li> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine-leucine-valine</li> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine(-stop)</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>Serine-phenylalanine-asparagine-leucine-valine</li> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine-leucine-valine</li> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine (-stop)</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine-leucine-valine</li> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine (-stop)</li> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine-leucine-valine</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine-leucine-valine</li> <li>Serine-arginine-asparagine-leucine-valine</li> <li>Serine-alanine-asparagine(-stop)</li> </ol>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-aplo-3-4 apbio-ch15-ex049

ID: 1130@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.430Z

Question:

A table of with the codon and what amino acid it codes for, which correlate as follows: GCA - alanine, AAG - lysine, GUU - valine, AAU -asparagine, UGC - cysteine, UCG and UCU - serine, UUA - Leucine, and UAA - stop. You are given three mRNA sequences:

  1. 5’-UCG-GCA- AAU-UUA -GUU-3’
  2. 5’-UCU-GCA- AAU-UUA -GUU-3’
  3. 5’-UCU-GCA- AAU-UAA -GUU-3’

Using the peptide encoded by each of the above, compare the three peptides obtained. How are peptides 2 and 3 different from 1? What would be the consequence for the cell in each case?

A:
There is a silent mutation in peptide 2 and peptide 3 has a stop codon due to mutation.
B:
There is a silent mutation in peptide 3 and peptide 2 has a stop codon due to mutation.
C:
There is a different amino acid in peptide 2 and peptide 3 has a stop codon due to mutation.
D:
There isn’t a mutation in peptide 2 and peptide 3 has a stop codon due to mutation.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch15-ex050

ID: 1131@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.438Z

Question:
Which of the following molecules does not contain heritable information?
A:
DNA
B:
mRNA
C:
Protein
D:
RNA

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot001

ID: 1132@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.455Z

Question:
Which molecule in the central dogma can be compared to a disposable photocopy of a book kept on reserve in the library?
A:
DNA
B:
mRNA
C:
Protein
D:
tRNA

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot002

ID: 1133@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.460Z

Question:
How many nucleotides form a codon?
A:
<span data-math="3">3</span>
B:
<span data-math="4">4</span>
C:
<span data-math="8">8</span>
D:
<span data-math="20">20</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot003

ID: 1134@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.478Z

Question:
If a polypeptide is 100 amino acids long, what would be the minimum number of bases needed to encode this polypeptide without counting start and stop codons?
A:
<span data-math="100">100</span>
B:
<span data-math="110">110</span>
C:
<span data-math="300">300</span>
D:
<span data-math="303">303</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot004

ID: 1135@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.483Z

Question:
What part of central dogma is not always followed in viruses?
A:
The flow of information in HIV is from RNA to DNA, then back to RNA to proteins. Influenza viruses never go through DNA.
B:
The flow of information is from protein to RNA in HIV virus, while the influenza virus converts DNA to RNA.
C:
The flow of information is similar, but nucleic acids are synthesized as a result of translation in HIV and influenza viruses.
D:
The flow of information is from RNA to protein. This protein is used to synthesize the DNA of the viruses in HIV and influenza.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot005

ID: 1136@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.495Z

Question:
A messenger RNA is 153 nucleotides long, including the start and stop codons. What is the number of amino acids in the protein directly translated from this mRNA? Assume no post-translational modification has taken place yet. Explain your calculations.
A:
<span data-math="50">50</span>
B:
<span data-math="49">49</span>
C:
<span data-math="150">150</span>
D:
<span data-math="149">149</span>

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot006

ID: 1137@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.506Z

Question:
Scientists are setting up the following experiment. They plan to introduce DNA that codes for insulin, a human hormone, into a yeast genome by recombinant DNA technology. The goal is to produce human insulin. Will the experiment succeed?
A:
No, yeast can produce only yeast proteins. The experiment will fail.
B:
Yes, yeast and humans are eukaryotes and are closely related.
C:
Yes, the genetic code is degenerate.
D:
Yes, the genetic code is universal.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s01 apbio-ch15-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch15-ot007

ID: 1138@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.523Z

Question:
Which subunit of the prokaryotic RNA polymerase recognizes the binding site on DNA?
A:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span>’
D:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}">\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot008

ID: 1139@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.534Z

Question:
What is the second step of transcription?
A:
elongation
B:
initiation
C:
release
D:
termination

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot009

ID: 1140@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.546Z

Question:
Which protein mediates the termination of transcription in prokaryotes?
A:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x394}">\unicode[Arial]{x394}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3C1}">\unicode[Arial]{x3C1}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}">\unicode[Arial]{x3C3}</span>

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot010

ID: 1141@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.557Z

Question:
A hairpin sequence is best described as a sequence:
A:
where RNA polymerase binds
B:
of complementary nucleotides that folds on itself
C:
that encodes the ribosomal attachment site
D:
where regulatory proteins bind

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot011

ID: 1142@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.562Z

Question:
What is the main structure that differentiates between rho-dependent and rho-independent termination in prokaryotes?
A:
Rho-independent termination involves the formation of a hairpin.
B:
Rho-dependent termination involves the formation of a hairpin.
C:
Rho-dependent termination stalls when the polymerase begins to transcribe a region rich in A-T nucleotides.
D:
Rho-independent termination stalls when the polymerase begins to transcribe a region rich in G nucleotides.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot012

ID: 1143@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.574Z

Question:
By looking at the sequence of a gene, would you be able to hypothesize if it is terminated with the help of a rho protein?
A:
A gene sequence that was terminated with the help of a rho protein would have a region rich in G, located at the end of a gene.
B:
A gene sequence that was terminated with the help of a rho protein would have a region rich in G-C, located at the end of a gene.
C:
A gene sequence that was terminated with the help of a rho protein would have a region rich in A and T, located at the end of a gene.
D:
A gene sequence that was terminated with the help of a rho protein would have a region rich in G, located at the start of a gene.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s02 apbio-ch15-s02-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot013

ID: 1144@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.593Z

Question:
What consensus sequence signals the initiation site of transcription in eukaryotes?
A:
a GC rich region
B:
a hairpin loop
C:
a TATA box
D:
a poly-A region

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s03 apbio-ch15-s03-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot014

ID: 1145@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.599Z

Question:
Which of the following features distinguishes eukaryotic transcription from bacterial transcription?
A:
Eukaryotic transcription does not start at a consensus sequence.
B:
Eukaryotic transcription does not require an initiation complex.
C:
Eukaryotic transcription and translation do not take place at the same time.
D:
Eukaryotic transcription does not require a termination sequence.

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s03 apbio-ch15-s03-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot015

ID: 1146@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.616Z

Question:
If $\unicode[Arial]{x3B1}$ -amanitin is added to cells in culture, which enzyme will be the most affected?
A:
eukaryotic polymerase I
B:
eukaryotic polymerase II
C:
eukaryotic polymerase III
D:
prokaryotic polymerase

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s03 apbio-ch15-s03-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot016

ID: 1147@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.628Z

Question:
If α-amanitin is added to cells in culture, it will inhibit the synthesis of which macromolecules the least?
A:
18S and 28S rRNAs
B:
5S rRNAs and tRNAs
C:
other small nuclear RNAs
D:
pre-mRNAs

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s03 apbio-ch15-s03-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot017

ID: 1148@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.639Z

Question:
How does RNA polymerase in eukaryotes recognize the end of a gene?
A:
The sequence will transcribe as a hairpin in the mRNA.
B:
The sequence will wind up as a double helix.
C:
The sequence will be identified by the 5’ capping.
D:
The sequence will be identified by the 3’ poly-A tail.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s03 apbio-ch15-s03-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot018

ID: 1149@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.650Z

Question:
What would happen if RNA polymerase II did not have proofreading capabilities?
A:
Defective or no proteins would be made.
B:
Mutations would occur.
C:
Synthesis of DNA will be inhibited.
D:
No change in proteins since it is the DNA that determines sequence of amino acids.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s03 apbio-ch15-s03-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot019

ID: 1150@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.656Z

Question:
Radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate is supplied to the protist Euglena. After an interval of time, the cells are homogenized and different fractions are analyzed for radioactivity content in large nucleic acid molecules. Which fraction will not be labeled?
A:
nucleus
B:
mitochondrion
C:
chloroplast
D:
plasma membrane

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s03 apbio-ch15-s03-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch15-ot020

ID: 1151@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.673Z

Question:
What are introns?
A:
DNA sequences to which polymerases bind
B:
the processed mRNA
C:
translated DNA sequences in a gene
D:
untranslated DNA sequences in a gene

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot021

ID: 1152@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.684Z

Question:
A methyl-guanosine group is added at the:
A:
5’ end of a transcript in the nucleus
B:
3’-end of a transcript in the nucleus
C:
5’ end of a transcript in the cytoplasm
D:
3’-end of a transcript in the cytoplasm

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot022

ID: 1153@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.690Z

Question:
If a nucleolus is analyzed for the type of RNA it contains, the result would show what?
A:
mRNAs
B:
micro RNA
C:
rRNA
D:
tRNAs

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot023

ID: 1154@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.707Z

Question:
The tRNA and rRNA molecules are stabilized by what?
A:
methyl groups
B:
methyl-guanosine residues
C:
poly-A sequences
D:
poly-U sequences

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot024

ID: 1155@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.718Z

Question:
What would happen if the 5’ methyl guanosine was not added to an mRNA?
A:
The transcript would degrade when the mRNA moves out of the nucleus to the cytoplasm.
B:
The mRNA molecule would stabilize and start the process of translation within the nucleus of the cell.
C:
The mRNA molecule would move out of the nucleus and create more copies of the mRNA molecule.
D:
The mRNA molecule would not be able to add the poly-A tail on its strand at the 5’ end.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot025

ID: 1156@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.724Z

Question:
The globin protein can be synthesized in a cell-free system where all the needed components are isolated from red blood cells. Red blood cells have no nucleus. Where did the information come from?
A:
The information comes from the mRNA that is extremely stable.
B:
The information comes from the mRNA that is extremely unstable.
C:
The information comes from the DNA that is extremely stable
D:
The information comes from the protein that is extremely unstable.

Tags:

apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s04 apbio-ch15-s04-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot026

ID: 1157@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.740Z

Question:
Which of the following is associated with the docking of mRNA on a ribosome in eukaryotic cells?
A:
Kozak’s sequence
B:
poly-A sequence
C:
Shine-Dalgarno sequence
D:
TATA box

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot027

ID: 1158@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.746Z

Question:
Which of the following molecule(s) would not be essential for translation?
A:
amino acids
B:
DNA
C:
rRNA
D:
tRNA

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot028

ID: 1159@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.763Z

Question:
Which of the following molecules binds to the A site of a ribosome?
A:
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
B:
“empty tRNA”
C:
tRNA charged with an amino acid
D:
tRNA attached to a polypeptide chain

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot029

ID: 1160@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.769Z

Question:
The antibiotic erythromycin blocks the exit of the growing peptide chain and stops protein synthesis in bacteria. To which of the following structures does it attach?
A:
30S subunit
B:
50S subunit
C:
40S subunit
D:
60S subunit

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot030

ID: 1161@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.780Z

Question:
A tRNA is chemically modified so that the amino acid bound is different than the one specified by its anticodon. Which codon in the mRNA would the tRNA recognize: the one specified by its anticodon or the one that matches the modified amino acid it carries?
A:
The anticodon will match the codon in mRNA.
B:
The anticodon will match with the modified amino acid it carries.
C:
The anticodon will lose the specificity for the tRNA molecule.
D:
The enzyme amino acyl tRNA synthetase would lose control over the amino acid.

Tags:

apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo01 apbio-ch15-ot031

ID: 1162@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.797Z

Question:
What is the main reason that we can use antibiotics that interfere with protein synthesis in bacteria without being affected ourselves?
A:
Antibiotics bind to the ribosomal sites in the bacteria, which are different than those found in eukaryotes, to interfere with protein synthesis.
B:
Antibiotics bind to the mitochondrial sites in the bacteria to interfere with protein synthesis.
C:
Antibiotics affect both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, but prokaryotes are more sensitive to them.
D:
Antibiotics cannot bind to the eukaryotic ribosomes because they are larger.

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-lo02 apbio-ch15-ot032

ID: 1163@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.802Z

Question:
Cycloheximide is a compound that binds to eukaryotic ribosomes and inhibits their function. Which of the following events would be observed if cycloheximide is added to cells in culture?
A:
mRNA is not exported from the nucleus.
B:
mRNA is not processed to mature mRNA.
C:
Polypeptides are not synthesized.
D:
Proteins are not modified after synthesis

Tags:

apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-aplo-3-4 apbio-ch15-ot033

ID: 1164@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.819Z

Question:
A mutation in the promoter region of the gene for the clotting factor IX is the cause of hemophilia B, which results in insufficient clotting. What is the likely reason for hemophilia?
A:
Less of the polypeptide is produced because less mRNA is transcribed.
B:
The polypeptide produced is too long.
C:
The polypeptide chain is interrupted.
D:
The polypeptide is misfolded

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch15 apbio-ch15-s05 apbio-ch15-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch15-ot034

ID: 1165@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.824Z

Question:
Control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells occurs at which level(s)?
A:
only the transcriptional level
B:
epigenetic and transcriptional levels
C:
epigenetic and transcriptional and translational levels
D:
epigenetic and transcriptional, translational, and post-translational levels

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s01 apbio-ch16-s01-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex001

ID: 1166@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.836Z

Question:
In Figure X on the left is a figure showing DNA in the cytoplasm surrounded by a plasma membrane. mRNA is produced from the DNA and multiple ribosomes producing proteins are on the mRNA. In Figure Y on the right is a figure showing DNA surrounded by the nuclear membrane. Pre-mRNA is produced from the DNA, leading to mature mRNA, which is exported to the cytoplasm. Multiple ribosomes with proteins are on the exported mRNA. What do figures X and Y in the graphic illustrate?
A:
Transcription and translation in a eukaryotic cell (figure X) and a prokaryotic cell (figure Y).
B:
Transcription and translation in a prokaryotic cell (figure X) and a eukaryotic cell (figure Y).
C:
Transcription in a eukaryotic cell (figure X) and translation in a prokaryotic cell (figure Y).
D:
Transcription in a prokaryotic cell (figure X) and translation in a eukaryotic cell (figure Y)

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review blooms-2 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s01 apbio-ch16-s01-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex002

ID: 1167@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.847Z

Question:
Which best distinguishes prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A:
Prokaryotes possess a nucleus whereas eukaryotes do not, but eukaryotes show greater compartmentalization that allows for greater regulation of gene expression.
B:
Eukaryotic cells contain a nucleus whereas prokaryotes do not, and eukaryotes show greater compartmentalization that allows for greater regulation of gene expression.
C:
Prokaryotic cells are less complex and perform highly-regulated gene expression whereas eukaryotes perform less-regulated gene expression.
D:
Eukaryotic cells are more complex and perform less-regulated gene expression whereas prokaryotic cells perform highly-regulated gene expression.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s01 apbio-ch16-s01-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex003

ID: 1168@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.864Z

Question:
Which of the following is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A:
3’ poly-A tails
B:
5’ caps
C:
promoters
D:
introns

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s01 apbio-ch16-s01-aplo-3-18 apbio-ch16-ex004

ID: 1169@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.876Z

Question:
The enzyme ployadenylate polymerase catalyzes the addition of adenosine monophosphate to the 3’ ends of mRNAs to form a poly-A tail. If the enzyme was blocked so that it could not function, the result would be:
A:
increased mRNA stability in eukaryotes, and decreased mRNA stability in prokaryotes
B:
decreased mRNA stability in eukaryotes, and no effect in prokaryotes
C:
no effect in eukaryotes, and increased mRNA stability in prokaryotes
D:
no effect in eukaryotes, and decreased mRNA stability in prokaryotes

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s01 apbio-ch16-s01-aplo-3-18 apbio-ch16-ex005

ID: 1170@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.882Z

Question:
Cytochrome c oxidase is a highly conserved protein found in bacteria and in the mitochondria of eukaryotes. Based on your knowledge of evolutionary relationships, which of the following statements would you expect to be true of the cytochrome c oxidase protein sequence?
A:
The bacterial protein will be more similar to the human protein than the yeast protein.
B:
The yeast protein will be more similar to the human protein than the bacterial protein.
C:
The bacterial protein will be more similar to the yeast protein than the human protein.
D:
The bacterial and yeast proteins will share a similar sequence, but the human protein will be unrelated.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc evolution apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s01 apbio-ch16-s01-lo01 apbio-ch16-s01-aplo-3-18 apbio-ch16-ex006

ID: 1171@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.894Z

Question:
In E. coli , the trp operon is on by default, while the lac operon is off. Why do you think that this is the case?
A:
The trp operon is inducible and is positively regulated. Therefore it is ON by default whereas the lac operon is repressible and is OFF by default.
B:
The trp operon synthesizes tryptophan which is essential for the cell and therefore remains ON, whereas the lac operon synthesizes enzymes for the breakdown of a sugar that is not always available and remains OFF by default.
C:
The trp operon is constitutive and remains ON by default, whereas the lac operon is repressible and therefore is OFF by default.
D:
The lac operon undergoes transcriptional attenuation and therefore is OFF by default, whereas the trp operon is not regulated by any such mechanism and is ON by default.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok4 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s02 apbio-ch16-s02-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex007

ID: 1172@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.912Z

Question:
If glucose is absent but lactose is present, the lac operon will be:
A:
activated
B:
repressed
C:
partially activated
D:
mutated

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s02 apbio-ch16-s02-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex008

ID: 1173@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.923Z

Question:
What would happen if the operator sequence of the lac operon contained a mutation that prevented the repressor protein from binding the operator?
A:
In the presence of lactose, the lac operon will not be transcribed.
B:
In the absence of lactose, the lac operon will be transcribed.
C:
The cAMP-CAP complex will not increase RNA synthesis.
D:
The RNA polymerase will not bind the promoter.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s02 apbio-ch16-s02-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex009

ID: 1174@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.929Z

Question:
Which of the following statements describes prokaryotic transcription of the lac operon?
A:
When lactose and glucose are present in the medium, transcription of the lac operon is induced.
B:
When lactose is present but glucose is absent, the lac operon is repressed.
C:
Lactose acts as an inducer of the lac operon when glucose is absent.
D:
Lactose acts as an inducer of the lac operon when glucose is present.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s02 apbio-ch16-s02-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex010

ID: 1175@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.941Z

Question:
Lactose digestion in E. coli begins with its hydrolysis by the enzyme ${\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}} {\!}$ -galactosidase. The gene encoding ${\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}} {\!}$ -galactosidase, lacZ, is part of a coordinately regulated operon containing other genes required for lactose utilization. Which of the following figures correctly depicts the interactions at the lac operon when lactose is not being utilized?
A:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_7a1c6096405518ca0e6078521c6c1cc6f2f812a050de808c7cacffb74fbc5f29.png" alt="RNA polymerase on promoter and repressor protein bound to lactose, not bound to DNA">
B:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_a02c000e7760dd25edfc3ba5745eec0ba701b5f6d6dbf4ab86e710a8bfff03a7.png" alt="Repressor protein bound to lactose bound to DNA">
C:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_d73dfd96fae870623480380eb9d80d3be96979652578a32001118348faa054f5.png" alt="RNA polymerase on operator">
D:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_f2f7a88a1e2badf943d58c59229d95cc67ae705ff0f9cc7f8b2df41e43977869.png" alt="Repressor protein on operator">

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s02 apbio-ch16-s02-aplo-3-21 apbio-ch16-ex011

ID: 1176@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.952Z

Question:
What would be the result of a mutation in the repressor protein that prevented it from binding lactose?
A:
The repressor will bind to lactose when it is removed from the operator.
B:
The repressor will bind the operator in the presence of lactose.
C:
The repressor will not bind the operator in the presence of lactose.
D:
The repressor will not bind the operator in the absence of lactose.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s02 apbio-ch16-s02-aplo-3-21 apbio-ch16-ex012

ID: 1177@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.963Z

Question:
What would happen if bacteria did not have trp R?
A:
The cell would not be able to break down tryptophan.
B:
The cell will gradually produce more tryptophan over time.
C:
The cell would not be able to make tryptophan.
D:
The cell would make tryptophan when it was not needed.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s02 apbio-ch16-s02-lo01 apbio-ch16-s02-aplo-3-21 apbio-ch16-ex013

ID: 1178@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.974Z

Question:
In females, one of the two X chromosomes is inactivated during embryonic development because of epigenetic changes to the chromatin. What impact do you think these changes would have on nucleosome packing?
A:
Methylation of DNA and hypo-acetylation of histones causes the nucleosomes to pack loosely together, inactivating one of the X chromosomes.
B:
Methylation of histones and hyper-acetylation of DNA causes the nucleosomes to pack tightly together, inactivating one of the X chromosome due to transcriptional repression.
C:
Methylation of DNA and hypo-acetylation of histones causes the nucleosomes to pack tightly together, inactivating one of the X chromosomes.
D:
Acetylation of DNA and hyper-methylation of histones causes the nucleosomes to pack tightly together, inactivating one of the X chromosomes.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-2 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s03 apbio-ch16-s03-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex014

ID: 1179@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.985Z

Question:
Explain how the study of epigenetics can lead to improved treatment of cancer.
A:
Epigenetics would allow new body parts to be synthesized that could replace those damaged by cancer.
B:
Epigenetics could change the genetic code of all cells in the body to prevent them from becoming cancerous.
C:
New therapies could be made that changes the genetic code of harmful cancer genes.
D:
New therapies could be made that do not require altering the cancer cell’s DNA.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s03 apbio-ch16-s03-lo01 apbio-ch16-s03-aplo-3-19 apbio-ch16-s03-aplo-3-21 apbio-ch16-ex015

ID: 1180@1

2015-08-20T13:03:46.997Z

Question:
What are epigenetic modifications?
A:
the addition of reversible changes to histone proteins and DNA
B:
the removal of nucleosomes from the DNA
C:
the addition of more nucleosomes to the DNA
D:
mutation of the DNA sequence

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s03 apbio-ch16-s03-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex016

ID: 1181@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.008Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about epigenetic regulation is false?
A:
Histone protein charge becomes more positive when acetyl groups are added.
B:
DNA molecules are modified within CpG islands.
C:
Methylation of DNA and histones causes nucleosomes to pack tightly together.
D:
Histone acetylation results in the loose packing of nucleosomes.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s03 apbio-ch16-s03-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex017

ID: 1182@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.029Z

Question:
In normal cells, genes are expressed, whereas in cancerous cells the normally expressed genes are turned off by epigenetic modifications. How could you reverse the epigenetic modifications to turn the genes back on?
A:
treatment with drugs that cause acetylation of histones and demethylation of DNA
B:
treatment with drugs that cause acetylation of DNA and histones
C:
treatment with drugs that cause the methylation of histones and the acetylation of DNA
D:
treatment with drugs that cause methylation of histones and acetylation of DNA

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking dok4 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s03 apbio-ch16-s03-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex018

ID: 1183@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.040Z

Question:
The binding of what is required for transcription start?
A:
a protein
B:
DNA polymerase
C:
RNA polymerase
D:
a transcription factor

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s04 apbio-ch16-s04-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex019

ID: 1184@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.057Z

Question:
What would be the outcome of a mutation that prevented DNA binding proteins from being produced?
A:
decreased transcription because transcription factors would not bind to transcription binding sites
B:
decreased transcription because enhancers would not be able to bind to transcription factors
C:
increased transcription because repressors would not be able to bind to promoter regions
D:
increased transcription because RNA polymerase would be able to increase binding to promoter regions

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s04 apbio-ch16-s04-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex020

ID: 1185@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.069Z

Question:
A mutation within the promoter region can alter gene transcription. Describe how this can happen.
A:
Mutated promoters decrease the rate of transcription by altering the binding site for the transcription factor.
B:
Mutated promoters increase the rate of transcription by altering the binding site for the transcription factor.
C:
Mutated promoters alter the binding site for transcription factors to increase or decrease the rate of transcription.
D:
Mutated promoters alter the binding site for transcription factors and thereby cease transcription of the adjacent gene.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s04 apbio-ch16-s04-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex021

ID: 1186@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.080Z

Question:
What type of modification might be observed in the GR gene in all newborn rats?
A:
The DNA will have many methyl molecules.
B:
The DNA will have many acetyl molecules.
C:
The DNA will have few methyl groups.
D:
The histones will have many acetyl groups.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s04 apbio-ch16-s04-aplo-3-19 apbio-ch16-ex022

ID: 1187@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.086Z

Question:
What type of modification will be observed in the GR gene in the highly nurtured rats?
A:
The DNA will have many methyl molecules.
B:
The DNA will have many acetyl molecules.
C:
The DNA will have few methyl groups.
D:
The histones will have few acetyl groups.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s04 apbio-ch16-s04-aplo-3-19 apbio-ch16-ex023

ID: 1188@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.098Z

Question:
The figure shows a normal gene with segments 1 through 4, a 5' UTR, and a 3'UTR. This gene has ++ expression. Below, deletion 1 is in the 5' UTR. This mutant has +++ expression. Below that, deletion 2 is in the very 5' end of the 5' UTR. This mutant has ++ expression. Below that, deletion 3 is in segment 2. This mutant has + expression. Below that, deletion 4 is in the 3' UTR. This mutant has ++ expression The level of transcription of a gene is tested by creating deletions in the gene as shown in the illustration. These modified genes are tested for their level of transcription: (++) normal transcription levels; (+) low transcription levels; (+++) high transcription levels. Which deletion is in an enhancer involved in regulating the gene?
A:
deletion 1
B:
deletion 2
C:
deletion 3
D:
deletion 4

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s04 apbio-ch16-s04-aplo-3-20 apbio-ch16-ex024

ID: 1189@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.109Z

Question:
The figure shows a normal gene with segments 1 through 4, a 5' UTR, and a 3'UTR. This gene has ++ expression. Below, deletion 1 is in the 5' UTR. This mutant has +++ expression. Below that, deletion 2 is in the very 5' end of the 5' UTR. This mutant has ++ expression. Below that, deletion 3 is in segment 2. This mutant has + expression. Below that, deletion 4 is in the 3' UTR. This mutant has ++ expression Which deletion is in a repressor involved in regulating the gene?
A:
deletion 1
B:
deletion 2
C:
deletion 3
D:
deletion 4

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s04 apbio-ch16-s04-aplo-3-20 apbio-ch16-ex025

ID: 1190@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.120Z

Question:
Describe the major events that occur during eukaryotic transcription.
A:
DNA unwinds, transcription factors bind, the termination complex forms, and DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the mRNA.
B:
DNA unwinds, transcription factors bind, and DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the mRNA.
C:
The transcription complex forms, transcription factors add nucleotides to the forming mRNA, and the mRNA disconnects from the DNA.
D:
Elongation occurs, followed by the formation of the transcription initiation complex and the disconnection of the mRNA strand from DNA.

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ID: 1191@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.132Z

Question:
Hybridization between mature mRNA and DNA can identify introns in eukaryotic genes. When mature mRNA produced by the glycogen gene is hybridized with denatured DNA, which of the following is most likely to be observed?
A:
no hybridization of mRNA and DNA
B:
hybridization of mRNA and DNA, with the two molecules being equal in length
C:
hybridization of mRNA and DNA with single-stranded loops of DNA
D:
hybridization of mRNA and DNA with single-stranded loops of RNA

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apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch16-ex028

ID: 1192@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.142Z

Question:
Which of the following are involved in post-transcriptional control?
A:
control of RNA splicing
B:
ubiquitination
C:
proteolytic cleavage
D:
phosphorylation

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex029

ID: 1193@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.159Z

Question:
Gene A is thought to be associated with color blindness. The protein corresponding to gene A is isolated. Analysis of the protein recovered shows there are actually two different proteins that differ in molecular weight that correspond to gene A. What is one reason why there may be two proteins corresponding to the gene?
A:
One protein had a 5’ cap and a poly-A tail in its mRNA, and the other protein did not.
B:
One protein had a 5’ UTR and a 3’ UTR in its RNA, and the other protein did not.
C:
The gene was alternatively spliced.
D:
The gene produced mRNA molecules with differing stability.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex030

ID: 1194@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.170Z

Question:
Describe how RBPs can prevent miRNAs from degrading an RNA molecule.
A:
RBPs can bind first to the RNA, thus preventing the binding of miRNA, which degrades RNA.
B:
RBPs bind the miRNA, thereby protecting the mRNA from degradation.
C:
RBPs methylate miRNA to inhibit its function and thus stop mRNA degradation.
D:
RBPs direct miRNA degradation with the help of a DICER protein complex.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex031

ID: 1195@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.176Z

Question:
Figure showing pre-mRNA containing sections 1 through 5, mature mRNA containing sections 1, 2, 4, and 5, and protein containing sections 2 and 4 The diagram provided shows different regions (1-5) of a pre-mRNA molecule, a mature-mRNA molecule, and the protein corresponding to the mRNA. A mutation in which region is most likely to be damaging to the cell?
A:
<span data-math="1">1</span>
B:
<span data-math="2">2</span>
C:
<span data-math="3">3</span>
D:
<span data-math="5">5</span>

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch16-ex032

ID: 1196@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.193Z

Question:
Figure showing pre-mRNA containing sections 1 through 5, mature mRNA containing sections 1, 2, 4, and 5, and protein containing sections 2 and 4 What do regions 1 and 5 correspond to?
A:
exons
B:
introns
C:
promoters
D:
untranslated regions

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch16-ex033

ID: 1197@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.199Z

Question:
Figure showing pre-mRNA containing a 5'UTR, segments 1 through 5, and a 3'UTR. Below, mature mRNA showing a 5' cap, 5'UTR, segments 1, 3, and 5, a 3'UTR, and a poly-A tail. Third, a mutated mature mRNA showing a 5' cap, a 5'UTR, segments 1 and 5, a 3'UTR, and a poly-A tail. What are regions 1 through 5 in the diagram?
A:
1, 3, and 5 are exons; 2 and 4 are introns.
B:
2 and 4 are exons; 1,3, and 5 are introns.
C:
1 and 5 are exons; 2, 3, and 4 are introns.
D:
2, 3, and 4 are exons; 1 and 5 are introns.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch16-ex034

ID: 1198@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.210Z

Question:
Figure showing pre-mRNA containing a 5'UTR, segments 1 through 5, and a 3'UTR. Below, mature mRNA showing a 5' cap, 5'UTR, segments 1, 3, and 5, a 3'UTR, and a poly-A tail. Third, a mutated mature mRNA showing a 5' cap, a 5'UTR, segments 1 and 5, a 3'UTR, and a poly-A tail. A mutation results in the formation of the mutated mature-mRNA as indicated in the diagram. Describe what type of mutation occurred and what the likely outcome of the mutation is.
A:
Mutation in the GU-AG sites of introns produced a non-functional protein.
B:
A transversion mutation in the introns led to alternative splicing, producing a functional protein.
C:
A transversion mutation in the GU-AG site mutated this mRNA, producing a non-functional protein.
D:
Transition mutations in the introns could produce a functional protein.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 dok4 ap-test-prep apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch16-ex035

ID: 1199@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.221Z

Question:
Does alternative gene splicing increase or decrease the flexibility of gene expression? Explain your answer.
A:
Flexibility increases because mRNA can be altered after transcription is completed.
B:
Flexibility increases because genes can be divided and recombined into new genes.
C:
Flexibility decreases because the mRNA molecule becomes smaller.
D:
Flexibility decreases because DNA is degraded during alternative splicing.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 evolution apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-lo01 apbio-ch16-s05-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch16-ex036

ID: 1200@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.232Z

Question:
Several human diseases are caused by an error in mRNA splicing. Explain why this occurs.
A:
Once an mRNA is spliced, the original mRNA cannot be created again.
B:
Spliced RNA cannot produce proper proteins.
C:
Splicing does not occur at all.
D:
Splicing occurs in the wrong location on mRNA.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-aplo-3-6 apbio-ch16-s05-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex037

ID: 1201@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.243Z

Question:
An increase in phosphorylation levels of eIF-2 has been observed in patients with neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s and Huntington’s. What impact do you think this might have on protein synthesis?
A:
It will increase the rate of translation.
B:
It will not affect the translation process.
C:
It will block the translation of certain proteins.
D:
It will produce multiple fragments of polypeptides.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s06 apbio-ch16-s06-lo01 apbio-ch16-s06-aplo-4-7 apbio-ch16-ex038

ID: 1202@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.255Z

Question:
Post-translational modifications of proteins can affect which of the following?
A:
mRNA splicing
B:
5’capping
C:
3’polyadenylation
D:
chemical modifications

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s06 apbio-ch16-s06-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex039

ID: 1203@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.266Z

Question:
A mutation is found in eIF-2 that impairs the initiation of translation. The mutation could affect all of the following functions of eIF-2 except:
A:
The mutation prevents eIF-2 from binding to RNA.
B:
The mutation prevents eIF-2 from being phosphorylated.
C:
The mutation prevents eIF-2 from binding to GTP.
D:
The mutation prevents eIF-2 from binding to the 40S ribosomal subunit.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s06 apbio-ch16-s06-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex040

ID: 1204@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.277Z

Question:
Protein modifications can alter gene expression in many ways. Describe how phosphorylation of proteins can alter gene expression.
A:
Phosphorylation of proteins can alter translation, RNA shuttling, RNA stability or post transcriptional modification.
B:
Phosphorylation of proteins can alter DNA replication, cell division, pathogen recognition and RNA stability.
C:
Phosphorylated proteins affect only translation and can cause cancer by altering the p53 function.
D:
Phosphorylated proteins affect only RNA shuttling, RNA stability, and post-translational modifications.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s06 apbio-ch16-s06-lo01 apbio-ch16-ex041

ID: 1205@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.288Z

Question:
What are cancer-causing genes called?
A:
transformation genes
B:
tumor suppressor genes
C:
oncogenes
D:
protooncogenes

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ID: 1206@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.299Z

Question:
Targeted therapies are used in patients with a certain gene expression pattern. A targeted therapy that prevents the activation of the estrogen receptor in breast cancer would be beneficial to what type of patient?
A:
patients who express the EGFR receptor in normal cells
B:
patients with a mutation that inactivates the estrogen receptor
C:
patients with over-expression of ER alpha in their tumor cells
D:
patients with over-expression of VEGF, which helps in tumor angiogenesis

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ID: 1207@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.311Z

Question:
In a new cancer treatment, a cold virus is genetically modified so that it binds to, enters, and is replicated in cells, causing them to burst. The modified cold virus cannot replicate when wildtype p53 protein is present in the cell. How does this treatment treat cancer without harming healthy cells?
A:
The modified virus only infects and enters cancer cells.
B:
The modified virus replicates in normal and cancer cells.
C:
The modified virus only infects and enters normal cells.
D:
The modified virus replicates only in cancer cells.

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ID: 1208@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.322Z

Question:
A drug designed to switch silenced genes back on in cancer cells would:
A:
prevent methylation of DNA and deacetylation of histones
B:
prevent methylation of DNA and acetylation of histones
C:
prevent deacetylation of DNA and methylation of histones
D:
prevent acetylation of DNA and demethylation of histones

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ID: 1209@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.339Z

Question:
New drugs are being developed that decrease DNA methylation and prevent the removal of acetyl groups from histone proteins. Explain how these drugs could affect gene expression to help kill tumor cells.
A:
These drugs maintain the demethylated and the acetylated forms of the DNA to keep transcription of necessary genes “on”.
B:
The demethylated and the acetylated forms of the DNA are reversed when the silenced gene is expressed.
C:
The drug methylates and acetylates the silenced genes to turn them back “on”.
D:
Drugs maintain DNA methylation and acetylation to silence unimportant genes in cancer cells.

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ID: 1210@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.350Z

Question:
How can understanding the gene expression pattern in a cancer cell tell you something about that specific form of cancer?
A:
Understanding gene expression patterns in cancer cells will identify the faulty genes, which is helpful in providing the relevant drug treatment.
B:
Understanding gene expression will help diagnose tumor cells for antigen therapy.
C:
Gene profiling would identify the target genes of the cancer-causing pathogens.
D:
Breast cancer patients who do not express EGFR can respond to anti-EGFR therapy.

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ID: 1211@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.361Z

Question:
Diagram showing arrows from UV light to skin exposure to damage to DNA to p53 activated to p21 activated to apoptosis to skin peels. The following diagram illustrates the role of p53 in response to UV exposure. What would be the result of a mutation in the p53 gene that inactivates it?
A:
Skin will peel in response to UV exposure.
B:
Apoptosis will occur in response to UV exposure.
C:
No DNA damage will occur in response to UV exposure.
D:
No peeling of skin will occur in response to UV exposure.

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ID: 1212@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.367Z

Question:

Which of the following will not occur in response to UV exposure if a p53 mutation inactivates the p53 protein?

  1. Damage to DNA
  2. p53 activation
  3. p21 activation
  4. Apoptosis
A:
1, 2, and 3
B:
3 and 4
C:
p21 activation
D:
2, 3, and 4

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ID: 1213@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.378Z

Question:
Operon showing in a line: promoter, operator, trpE, trpD, trpC, trpB, and trpA What happens when tryptophan is present?
A:
The repressor binds to the operator, and RNA synthesis is blocked.
B:
RNA polymerase binds to the operator, and RNA synthesis is blocked.
C:
Tryptophan binds to the repressor, and RNA synthesis proceeds.
D:
Tryptophan binds to RNA polymerase, and RNA synthesis proceeds.

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ID: 1214@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.389Z

Question:
Operon showing in a line: promoter, operator, trpE, trpD, trpC, trpB, and trpA What happens in the absence of tryptophan?
A:
RNA polymerase binds to the repressor
B:
the repressor binds to the promoter
C:
the repressor dissociates from the operator
D:
RNA polymerase dissociates from the promoter

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ID: 1215@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.400Z

Question:
The figure shows Low Fixed Nitrogen with an arrow pointing to the right to a box containing Increased free calcium and -oxglutarate. Another arrow points to the right to a box containing NtcA, HetR. From this box, an arrow points to heterocyst development and PatS. PatS points to Inhibit additional heterocyst development Anabaena is a simple multicellular photosynthetic cyanobacterium. In the absence of fixed nitrogen, certain newly developing cells along a filament express genes that code for nitrogen-fixing enzymes and become non-photosynthetic heterocysts. The specialization is advantageous because some nitrogen-fixing enzymes function best in the absence of oxygen. Heterocysts do not carry out photosynthesis but instead provides adjacent cells with fixed nitrogen and receives fixed carbon and reduced energy carriers in return. As shown in the diagram above, when there is low fixed nitrogen in the environment, an increase in the concentration of free calcium ions and 2-oxyglutarate stimulates the expression of genes that produce two transcription factors (NtcA and HetR) that promote the expression of genes responsible for heterocyst development. HetR also causes production of a signal, PatS, that prevents adjacent cells from developing as heterocysts. Based on your understanding of the ways in which signal transmission mediates cell function, which of the following predictions is most consistent with the information given above?
A:
In an environment with low fixed nitrogen, treating the <em>Anabaena</em> cells with a calcium-binding compound should prevent heterocyst differentiation.
B:
A strain that overexpresses the patS gene should develop many more heterocysts in a low nitrogen environment.
C:
In an environment with abundant fixed nitrogen, free calcium levels should be high in all cells, preventing heterocysts from developing.
D:
In environments with abundant fixed nitrogen, loss of the hetR gene should induce heterocyst development.

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ID: 1216@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.411Z

Question:
The figure shows Low Fixed Nitrogen with an arrow pointing to the right to a box containing Increased free calcium and -oxglutarate. Another arrow points to the right to a box containing NtcA, HetR. From this box, an arrow points to heterocyst development and PatS. PatS points to Inhibit additional heterocyst development Which of the following statements about Anabaena is false?
A:
Decreasing the concentration of free calcium ions will prevent heterocyst development.
B:
In the presence of fixed nitrogen, NtcA will not be expressed.
C:
Low fixed nitrogen levels result in increased PatS levels.
D:
A mutation in NtcA that makes it nonfunctional will also allow adjacent cells to develop as heterocysts.

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ID: 1217@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.422Z

Question:
Treatment of cancer is often called a “fight against biology.” Explain why the use of p53 supports this statement.
A:
because normal cells are often negatively affected by cancer treatments, including p53
B:
because cancer cells often aren’t affected by cancer treatments, including p53
C:
because normal cells are often negatively affected by cancer treatments, with the exception of p53
D:
because cancer cells often aren’t affected by cancer treatments, with the exception of p53

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ID: 1218@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.439Z

Question:
The E. coli bacteria can have several mutations that affect the lac operon system. One mutation inhibits the ability of the RNA polymerase to bind to the lac operon. How would this affect the cell?
A:
The cell would make more lactose.
B:
There would be no lactose outside of the cell.
C:
The cell would not be able to process tryptophan.
D:
The cell would not be able to process lactose.

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ID: 1219@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.449Z

Question:
What is the normal function of p53 and why might a mutation in p53 lead to skin cancer in response to UV exposure?
A:
p53 normally checks uncontrolled cell growth. Mutated p53 in cells would not initiate apoptosis in cells with DNA damage, which could cause skin cancer.
B:
p53 inhibits apoptosis. Mutated p53 would lead to apoptosis even in the normal cells.
C:
p53 inactivates apoptosis of cell and a mutation in it would increase apoptosis, thus leading to skin cancer.
D:
p53 phosphorylates the DNA when the DNA is damaged by UV and causes skin cancer.

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ID: 1220@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.455Z

Question:
Post-translational control refers to:
A:
regulation of gene expression after transcription
B:
regulation of gene expression after translation
C:
control of epigenetic activation
D:
the period between transcription and translation

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ID: 1221@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.466Z

Question:
Which of the following statements about gene regulation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes is false?
A:
In prokaryotes, gene regulation is primarily controlled at the transcriptional level.
B:
In eukaryotes, translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
C:
In eukaryotes, gene regulation is controlled at the transcriptional, post-transcriptional, translational, and post-translational phases.
D:
In prokaryotes, transcription occurs first, followed by transport and translation of the RNA.

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ID: 1222@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.484Z

Question:
Describe how controlling gene expression will alter the overall protein levels in the cell.
A:
Prokaryotes regulate gene expression at the level of transcription whereas eukaryotes regulate at multiple levels including epigenetic, transcriptional and translational.
B:
Prokaryotes regulate gene expression at the level of translation whereas eukaryotes regulate at the level of transcription to manipulate protein levels.
C:
Prokaryotes regulate gene expression with the help of repressors and activators whereas eukaryotes regulate expression by degrading mRNA transcripts, thereby controlling protein levels.
D:
Prokaryotes control protein levels using epigenetic modifications whereas eukaryotes control protein levels by regulating the rate of transcription and translation.

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ID: 1223@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.499Z

Question:
Describe two ways in which gene regulation differs and two ways in which it is similar in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
A:
Prokaryotes show co-transcriptional translation, regulated during transcription whereas Eukaryotes perform transcription prior to translation, regulated at multiple levels. In both domains, regulation occurs by the binding of transcription factors, activators and repressors.
B:
Prokaryotes perform transcription prior to translation regulated during transcription whereas eukaryotes show co-transcriptional translation regulated at multiple levels. The processes in both take place in the same organelle.
C:
Prokaryotes perform co-transcriptional translation regulated at multiple levels whereas eukaryotes perform transcription prior to translation, regulated at the level of transcription. In both domains, transcription factors, activators and repressors provide regulation.
D:
Prokaryotes show co-transcriptional translation which occurs in the nucleus whereas eukaryotes show transcription prior to translation. Regulation occurs using transcription factors, activators and repressors in both domains.

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ID: 1224@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.504Z

Question:
Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus. Therefore, the genes in prokaryotic cells are:
A:
all expressed, all of the time
B:
transcribed and translated almost simultaneously
C:
some expressed, some of the time
D:
regulated at transcriptional and translational levels

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ID: 1225@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.515Z

Question:
What would happen if the operator sequence of the trp operon contained a mutation that prevented the repressor protein from binding the operator?
A:
In the absence of tryptophan, the genes trpA-E will not be transcribed.
B:
In the absence of tryptophan, only genes trpE and trpD will be transcribed.
C:
In the presence of tryptophan, the genes trpA-E will be transcribed.
D:
In the presence of tryptophan, the trpE gene will not be transcribed.

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ID: 1226@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.527Z

Question:
The lac operon consists of regulatory regions such as the promoter as well as the structural genes lacZ, lacY, and lacA, which code for proteins involved in lactose metabolism. What would be the outcome of a mutation in one of the structural genes of the lac operon?
A:
Mutation in structural gene will stop transcription.
B:
Mutated lacY will produce an abnormal <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span> galactosidase protein.
C:
Mutated lacA will produce a protein that will transfer an acetyl group to <span data-math="\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}">\unicode[Arial]{x3B2}</span> galactosidase.
D:
Transcription will continue but lactose will not be metabolized properly.

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ID: 1227@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.542Z

Question:
A mutation is discovered in a strain of E.coli where transcription of the lac operon only proceeds at a slow rate in the presence of lactose. There is no transcription of the lac operon in the absence of lactose. Explain what complex of the lac operon is not functioning properly in this mutant strain.
A:
RNA polymerase or the cAMP-CAP complex
B:
a promoter or RNA polymerase
C:
the cAMP-CAP complex or a promoter
D:
the cAMP-CAP complex or an operator

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ID: 1228@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.557Z

Question:
Which of the following is true of epigenetic changes?
A:
They only allow gene expression.
B:
They allow movement of histones.
C:
They change the DNA sequence.
D:
They are always heritable.

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ID: 1229@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.569Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is true of a gene that is active (expressed)?
A:
The DNA corresponding to the gene is tightly wound around histones.
B:
There are many methyl molecules attached to the histones associated with the gene.
C:
There are few mRNA transcripts corresponding to the gene.
D:
There are many acetyl molecules attached to the histones associated with the gene.

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ID: 1230@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.580Z

Question:
Flowering Locus C (FLC) is a gene that is responsible for flowering in certain plants. FLC is expressed in new seedlings, which prevents flowering. Upon exposure to cold temperatures, FLC expression decreases and the plant flowers. FLC is regulated through epigenetic modifications. What type of epigenetic modifications are present in new seedlings and after cold exposure?
A:
In new seedlings, histone acetylations are present; upon cold exposure methylation occurs.
B:
In new seedlings, histone deacetylations are present; upon cold exposure methylation occurs.
C:
In new seedlings, histone methylations are present; upon cold exposure acetylation occurs.
D:
In new seedlings, histone methylations are present; upon cold exposure deacetylation occurs.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s03 apbio-ch16-s03-lo01 apbio-ch16-ot011

ID: 1231@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.596Z

Question:
What will result from the binding of a transcription factor to an enhancer region?
A:
decreased transcription of an adjacent gene
B:
increased transcription of a distant gene
C:
alteration of the translation of an adjacent gene
D:
initiation of the recruitment of RNA polymerase

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ID: 1232@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.608Z

Question:
How do promoters and enhancers differ?
A:
Promoters are located at a distance from the genes they control and enhancers are located adjacent to the gene they control.
B:
RNA polymerase binds to enhancers, transcription factors bind to promoters.
C:
DNA-binding protein is required for the promoter to increase transcription, while it is not required for the enhancer to increase transcription.
D:
Promoters determine whether or not transcription can occur, enhancers increase transcription rates.

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ID: 1233@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.613Z

Question:
What could happen if a cell had too much of an activating transcription factor present?
A:
The transcription rate would increase, altering cell function.
B:
The transcription rate would decrease, inhibiting cell functions.
C:
The transcription rate decreases due to clogging of the transcription factors.
D:
The transcription rate increases due to clogging of the transcription factors.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s04 apbio-ch16-s04-lo01 apbio-ch16-ot014

ID: 1234@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.625Z

Question:
Explain what type of modifications will be observed in the GR gene of anxious rats who received little nurturing. Theoretically, how could this modification be reversed and what would be the result of this theoretical treatment?
A:
Acetylation will be observed and histone deacetylase can be injected into the brains, enhancing the expression of the GR gene.
B:
Acetylation will be observed and injecting trimethysilane into the brains would repress the expression of GR proteins.
C:
Methylation is observed and azacitidine is injected into their brains, enhancing the expression of the GR gene.
D:
Methylation is observed and demethylase is injected to repress the expression of the GR gene.

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ID: 1235@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.642Z

Question:
Explain what an enhancer is and how an enhancer that is located thousands of nucleotides away from the gene it controls can still affect that gene.
A:
Enhancers are transcription factors, as they bind the DNA at specific sequences to enhance transcription.
B:
Enhancers are the specific sites that bind transcription factors and allow for the interaction of activators.
C:
Enhancers are the insulators, as they restrict the interaction of activators and transcription factors.
D:
Enhancers are regions of DNA which allow for normal levels of transcription among the essential genes.

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ID: 1236@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.647Z

Question:
Binding of an RNA binding protein will change the stability of the RNA molecule in what way?
A:
increase
B:
decrease
C:
neither increase nor decrease
D:
either increase or decrease

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ID: 1237@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.659Z

Question:
A mutation in the 5’UTR that prevents any proteins from binding to the region will:
A:
increase or decrease the stability of the RNA molecule
B:
prevent translation of the RNA molecule
C:
prevent splicing of the RNA molecule
D:
increase or decrease the length of the poly-A tail

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ID: 1238@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.670Z

Question:
How can external stimuli alter post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
A:
UV rays can alter methylation and acetylation of proteins.
B:
RNA binding proteins are modified through phosphorylation.
C:
External stimuli can cause deacetylation and demethylation of the transcript.
D:
UV rays can cause dimerization of the RNA binding proteins.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s05 apbio-ch16-s05-lo01 apbio-ch16-ot019

ID: 1239@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.682Z

Question:
Describe the function of four parts of an mRNA molecule that are not translated into a protein.
A:
Introns show no function, the 5’ and 3’ UTR possess RNA binding sites and maintain mRNA stability, and the 5’ cap and 3’ poly-A tail prevent mRNA from degrading.
B:
Introns code for a gene, the 5’ and 3’ UTR are responsible for GU-AG splicing whereas capping and tailing protect the mRNA.
C:
Introns help in alternative splicing, the 5’ and 3’ UTR help in GU-AG splicing, and the cap and tail help in the movement of the mRNA.
D:
Intron function is unknown, the 5’ and 3’ UTR help in post translational regulation and 5’ cap and 3’ poly-A tail are responsible for alternative splicing and mRNA stability.

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ID: 1240@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.693Z

Question:
The addition of a ubiquitin group to a protein does what?
A:
increases the stability of the protein
B:
decreases translation of the protein
C:
increases translation of the protein
D:
marks the protein for degradation

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ID: 1241@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.704Z

Question:
An increase in phosphorylation levels of eIF-2 has been observed in patients with neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s, and Huntington’s. What impact will this have?
A:
decreased overall transcription
B:
increased binding of eIF-2 to GTP
C:
decreased overall translation
D:
increased mRNA stability

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s06 apbio-ch16-s06-lo01 apbio-ch16-ot022

ID: 1242@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.732Z

Question:
Changes in epigenetic modifications alter the accessibility and transcription of DNA. Describe how environmental stimuli, such as ultraviolet light exposure, could modify gene expression.
A:
UV rays could cause methylation and deacetylation of the genes that could alter the accessibility and transcription of DNA.
B:
The UV rays could cause phosphorylation and acetylation of the DNA and histones which could alter the transcriptional capabilities of the DNA.
C:
UV rays could cause methylation and phosphorylation of the DNA bases which could become dimerized rendering no accessibility of DNA.
D:
The UV rays can cause methylation and acetylation of histones making the DNA more tightly packed and leading to inaccessibility.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s06 apbio-ch16-s06-lo01 apbio-ch16-ot023

ID: 1243@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.744Z

Question:
What are positive cell-cycle regulators that can cause cancer when mutated called?
A:
transformation genes
B:
tumor suppressor genes
C:
oncogenes
D:
mutated genes

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s07 apbio-ch16-s07-lo01 apbio-ch16-ot024

ID: 1244@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.755Z

Question:
In a new cancer treatment, a cold virus is genetically modified so that it binds to and enters cells, where it replicates in the cells and causes the cell to burst. The modified cold virus cannot replicate when the normal p53 protein is present in the cell. Why does this treatment work?
A:
Both cancer cells and normal cells produce p53.
B:
Neither cancer cells nor normal cells produce p53.
C:
Only normal cells produce p53.
D:
Only cancer cells produce p53.

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s07 apbio-ch16-s07-lo01 apbio-ch16-ot025

ID: 1245@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.766Z

Question:
Approximately 75% of all breast cancers grow in response to the hormone estrogen. An additional 65% of cancers also grow in response to the hormone progesterone. A targeted therapy that prevents activation of estrogen and progesterone receptors in breast cancer would be beneficial to which type of patient?
A:
patients with many estrogen and few progesterone receptors expressed in their tumor
B:
patients with mutations that inactivate estrogen and progesterone receptors in tumors
C:
patients with normal levels of estrogen and progesterone receptors in their tumor
D:
patients with many estrogen and progesterone receptors expressed in their tumor

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s07 apbio-ch16-s07-lo02 apbio-ch16-ot026

ID: 1246@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.771Z

Question:
A gene that has been silenced in a cancer cell has which of the following modifications?
A:
DNA in the promoter region is acetylated and surrounding histones are methylated.
B:
DNA in the promoter region is methylated and surrounding histones are deacetylated.
C:
DNA in the promoter region is demethylated and surrounding histones are acetylated.
D:
DNA in the promoter region is methylated and surrounding histones are demethylated.

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apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s07 apbio-ch16-s07-lo02 apbio-ch16-ot027

ID: 1247@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.788Z

Question:
Explain what personalized medicine is and how it can be used to treat cancer.
A:
Personalized medicines would vary based on the type of mutations and the gene’s expression pattern.
B:
The medicines are given based on the type of tumor found in the body of an individual.
C:
The personalized medicines are provided based only on the symptoms of the patient.
D:
The medicines tend to vary depending on the severity and the stage of the cancer.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s07 apbio-ch16-s07-lo01 apbio-ch16-ot028

ID: 1248@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.794Z

Question:
Explain how epigenetic changes can lead to cancer and what treatments would be required to reverse these changes.
A:
Methylation in the promoter and deacetylation of histone leads to cancer that can be reversed by administering demethylase or histone acetylase enzymes.
B:
Methylation of the promoter and deacetylation of the histones leads to cancer that can be treated by preventing the action of histone deacetylase or DNA methyl transferase.
C:
The acetylated promoters and methylated histones cause cancer and can be treated by preventing the action of histone deacetylase or DNA methyl transferase.
D:
The acetylated promoters and methylated histones cause cancer and can be treated by demethylase or acetyl transferase enzymes.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s07 apbio-ch16-s07-lo02 apbio-ch16-ot029

ID: 1249@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.804Z

Question:
Explain what the result would be of a mutation in the repressor that prevented it from binding to tryptophan.
A:
In a mutated cell, tryptophan will be synthesized even when it is present in the cell because the repressor will not bind to the operator. The transcription will not be blocked.
B:
In a mutated cell, tryptophan will not be synthesized. The repressor will bind to the operator and transcription will be blocked.
C:
In a mutated cell, tryptophan will not be synthesized and the repressor will not bind to the operator. Thus, the transcription will keep on going.
D:
The mutated repressor, behaving as a repressor, would bind to the operator and restrict RNA synthesis.

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apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 dok4 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s07 apbio-ch16-s07-aplo-3-23 apbio-ch16-ot030

ID: 1250@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.821Z

Question:
Describe what will happen if there is a mutation in the transcription factors NtcA and HetR that results in them being constitutively expressed.
A:
If NtcA and HetR are constitutively expressed, then heterocysts will develop. Heterocysts will also develop in an environment with high fixed nitrogen levels. The organisms would be at a disadvantage because nitrogen-fixing enzymes function best in absence of oxygen. Thus, nitrogen will not be fixed optimally and the heterocysts will not carry out photosynthesis.
B:
In a high fixed nitrogen environment, these mutated genes would undergo negative feedback regulation, which would eventually stop their expression.
C:
Expressing mutated genes in high fixed nitrogen would promote the capacity of the cells to fix nitrogen optimally, along with promoting photosynthesis in all of the cells.
D:
In a high fixed nitrogen environment, these mutated genes would promote the expression of the PatS gene which would restrict the development of heterocysts.

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apbio time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 dok4 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch16 apbio-ch16-s07 apbio-ch16-s07-aplo-4-7 apbio-ch16-ot031

ID: 1251@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.833Z

Question:
Explain two advantages the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has for DNA research.
A:
The process of PCR can isolate a particular piece of DNA for copying. Also it allows scientists to copy millions of strands of DNA in a short amount of time.
B:
The process of PCR can purify a particular piece of DNA. Also very small amounts of DNA can be used for purification.
C:
This is the process of separation and analysis of DNA and its fragments. Very little DNA is required for this.
D:
This is the process in which single stranded DNA molecules anneal to complementary DNA strands. The amount of DNA remains the same.

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ID: 1252@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.838Z

Question:
You are working in a molecular biology lab and, unbeknownst to you, your lab partner left the foreign genomic DNA you are planning to clone on the lab bench overnight instead of storing it in the freezer. As a result, it was degraded by nucleases, but still used in the experiment. The plasmid, on the other hand, is fine. What results would you expect from your molecular cloning experiment?
A:
There will be no colonies on the bacterial plate.
B:
There will be blue colonies only.
C:
There will be blue and white colonies.
D:
The will be white colonies only.

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apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-5 apbio-ch17-ex002

ID: 1253@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.854Z

Question:
What are the functions of the restriction enzymes and DNA ligase in recombination?
A:
Restriction enzymes restrict the recombination process. DNA ligase ligates the products of recombination with each other.
B:
DNA ligase splices DNA at a specific point, so the new piece of DNA can be inserted. Restriction enzymes stitch together the new gene to the existing piece of DNA.
C:
Restriction enzymes splice DNA at a specific point, so the new piece of DNA can be inserted. DNA ligase stitches together the new foreign gene to the existing piece of DNA.
D:
Restriction enzymes splice the existing piece of DNA only to accommodate the new piece of DNA. DNA ligase ligates the new DNA with the existing DNA.

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apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-5 apbio-ch17-s01-lo02 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-24 apbio-ch17-ex003

ID: 1254@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.866Z

Question:
Do you think Dolly was a Finn- Dorset or a Scottish Blackface sheep?
A:
Dolly was a Scottish blackface; it follows the phenomenon of cytoplasmic inheritance.
B:
Dolly was a Finn-Dorset sheep; the nucleus in the process was taken from a Finn-Dorset mother.
C:
Dolly was a Finn-Dorset; it follows the phenomenon of cytoplasmic inheritance.
D:
Dolly the sheep was a Scottish blackface due to epigenetic inheritance.

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apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-5 apbio-ch17-s01-lo02 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-24 apbio-ch17-ex004

ID: 1255@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.878Z

Question:
How are GMOs created?
A:
introducing recombinant DNA into an organism by any means
B:
in vitro fertilization methods
C:
mutagenesis
D:
plant breeding techniques

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo01 apbio-ch17-ex005

ID: 1256@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.890Z

Question:
Which technique used to manipulate genetic material results in a significant increase in DNA or RNA fragments?
A:
gel electrophoresis
B:
nucleic acid extraction
C:
nuclear hybridization
D:
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo01 apbio-ch17-ex006

ID: 1257@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.902Z

Question:
What is the role of the plasmid in molecular cloning?
A:
They are used to create clones.
B:
They are used as vectors to insert genes into bacteria.
C:
They are a functional part of binary fission.
D:
They contain the circular chromosome of prokaryotic organisms.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex007

ID: 1258@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.913Z

Question:
What is meant by a recombinant DNA molecule?
A:
chimeric molecules
B:
bacteria transformed into another species
C:
molecules that have been through the PCR process
D:
the result of crossing over during cell reproduction

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex008

ID: 1259@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.925Z

Question:
Bt toxin is considered to be what?
A:
a gene for modifying insect DNA
B:
an organic insecticide produced by bacteria
C:
useful for humans to fight against insects
D:
recombinant protein

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo03 apbio-ch17-ex009

ID: 1260@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.938Z

Question:
What is one trait of the Flavr Savr Tomato?
A:
has a better shelf life
B:
is not a variety of vine-ripened tomato in the supermarket
C:
was not created to have better flavor
D:
undergoes soft rot

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo03 apbio-ch17-ex010

ID: 1261@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.950Z

Question:
Describe the process of Southern blotting.
A:
Southern Blotting is used to find DNA sequences. Fragments are separated on gel, incubated with probes to check for the sequence of interest, and transferred to a nylon membrane.
B:
Southern blotting is used to find DNA sequences. Fragments are separated on gel, transferred to a nylon membrane, and incubated with probes to check for the sequence of interest.
C:
Southern blotting is used to find RNA sequences. Fragments are separated on gel, transferred to a nylon membrane and incubated with probes to check for thesequence of interest.
D:
Southern blotting is used to find RNA sequences. Fragments are separated on gel, incubated with probes to check for the sequence of interest, and transferred to a nylon membrane.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo01 apbio-ch17-ex011

ID: 1262@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.962Z

Question:
A researcher wants to study cancer cells from a patient with breast cancer. Is cloning the cancer cells an option?
A:
The cancer cells should be cloned along with a biomarker for better detection and study.
B:
The cells should be screened first in order to assure their carcinogenic nature.
C:
The cancer cells, being clones of each other already, should directly be grown in a culture media and then studied.
D:
The cancer cells should be extracted using the specific antibodies.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex012

ID: 1263@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.968Z

Question:
Explain how gene therapy works.
A:
Gene therapy uses the administration of antibiotics to counter the effect of a faulty gene.
B:
The faulty gene is extracted out of the patient and the patient is exogenously asked to take medicines.
C:
The correct allele is introduced into the patient’s cell using a virus as a vector.
D:
The correct gene is inserted into a patient’s cell using non-viral methods like bacteria as a vector.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo03 apbio-ch17-ex013

ID: 1264@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.986Z

Question:
In separating DNA for genomic analysis, it is important to consider RNA contaminating the sample during the cell lysis step of a DNA extraction, which is likely to cause what to occur?
A:
DNA separates into the supernatant.
B:
DNA is destroyed by the protease.
C:
DNA is unaffected by the RNA.
D:
DNA combines with the RNA.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short ap-test-prep apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch17-ex014

ID: 1265@1

2015-08-20T13:03:47.999Z

Question:
There are many techniques for investigating human genomic disorders. Western blotting looks for protein, Eastern blotting looks for post-translational changes, Northern blotting looks at mRNA, and Southern blotting looks at DNA. If you were to look at sickle cell anemia, a disorder affecting hemoglobin produced in red blood cells, which technique would be the most useful in detecting polymorphism in a sample?
A:
Northern blotting
B:
Southern blotting
C:
Western blotting
D:
Eastern blotting

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-5 apbio-ch17-ex015

ID: 1266@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.012Z

Question:
A population of insects were formally distinguished by a mix of colors on their thorax and legs. This population now appears to be split into 2 sub-groups, purple and orange-legged. Researchers hypothesize that the purple-legged group may be increasingly resistant to the Bt ( Bacillus thuringiensis ) toxin. Which idea supports this observation?
A:
transgenesis
B:
natural selection
C:
hybridization
D:
recombination

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-24 apbio-ch17-ex017

ID: 1267@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.024Z

Question:
For a disease that is passed down between generations, which of the following would be an ideal target for gene therapy?
A:
red blood cells
B:
white blood cells
C:
somatic cells
D:
germline cells

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-24 apbio-ch17-ex018

ID: 1268@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.036Z

Question:
Describe the process of molecular cloning.
A:
The foreign DNA and plasmid are cut with the same restriction enzyme and DNA is inserted within the lacZ gene, whose product metabolizes lactose. The foreign DNA and vector are allowed to anneal. The vector is transferred to a bacterial host that is ampicillin sensitive and those with a disrupted lacZ gene show inability to metabolize X-gal.
B:
The foreign DNA and plasmid are denatured using high heat, and DNA is inserted within the lacZ gene, whose product metabolizes glucose. The foreign DNA and vector are allowed to anneal. The vector is transferred to a bacterial host that is ampicillin sensitive and disrupted lacZ gene will metabolize X-gal
C:
The foreign DNA and plasmid are cut with the same restriction enzyme and DNA is inserted randomly in the plasmid. The foreign DNA and vector are allowed to anneal. The vector is transferred to a bacterial host that is ampicillin sensitive and the disrupted lacZ gene shows inability to synthesize X-gal.
D:
The foreign DNA and plasmid are cut with the same restriction enzyme and DNA is inserted within the lacZ gene, whose product metabolizes lactose. The foreign DNA and vector are allowed to anneal. The vector is transformed into a viral host that is ampicillin sensitive and the disrupted lacZ gene show inability to synthesize X-gal.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-5 apbio-ch17-ex019

ID: 1269@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.048Z

Question:
How can this database help to support and guide research for rare genetic conditions, like progeria?
A:
Database provides information related to the prevention of a genetic disease.
B:
Database provides all the information about genes for genetic diseases, their inheritance and their expression. It also provides suggestions for some treatments.
C:
Database provides information about the symptoms of the disease.
D:
Database provides information only about the early reported cases.

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apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo02 apbio-ch17-s02-aplo-3-5 apbio-ch17-ex020

ID: 1270@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.060Z

Question:
What is genomics?
A:
Genomics is the study of entire genomes, including the complete set of genes, their nucleotide sequence and organization, and their interactions within a species and with other species.
B:
Genomics is the process of finding the locations of genes on each chromosome.
C:
Genomics is an illustration that lists genes and their location on a chromosome.
D:
Genomics is a genetic marker, a gene or sequence on a chromosome that co-segregates (shows genetic linkage) with a specific trait.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo01 apbio-ch17-ex021

ID: 1271@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.071Z

Question:
What is required in addition to a genetic linkage map to build a complete picture of the genome?
A:
a genetic marker
B:
a physical map
C:
linkage analysis of chromosomes
D:
plasmids

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo01 apbio-ch17-ex022

ID: 1272@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.083Z

Question:
Genetic recombination occurs by which process?
A:
crossing over
B:
chromosome segregation
C:
independent assortment
D:
sister chromatids

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex023

ID: 1273@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.089Z

Question:
Individual genetic maps in a given species are:
A:
genetically similar
B:
genetically identical
C:
genetically dissimilar
D:
not useful in species analysis

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex024

ID: 1274@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.107Z

Question:
Information obtained by microscopic analysis of stained chromosomes is used in what procedure?
A:
cytogenetic mapping
B:
radiation hybrid mapping
C:
RFLP mapping
D:
sequence mapping

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo03 apbio-ch17-ex025

ID: 1275@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.118Z

Question:
Which of the following is true about linkage analysis?
A:
It is used to create a physical map.
B:
It is based on the natural recombination process.
C:
It involves the breaking and re-joining of DNA artificially.
D:
It requires radiation hybrid mapping.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo03 apbio-ch17-ex026

ID: 1276@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.130Z

Question:
Discuss the uses of genome mapping.
A:
Genome mapping is useful in identifying human disease-causing genes, developing microbes to clean up pollutants, and increasing crop yield.
B:
Genome mapping is directly required to produce recombinants, in FISH detection, and detecting the methylated parts of genetic material.
C:
Genome mapping is useful for knowing the pedigree of diseases in humans and tracing the movement of transposons in plants.
D:
Genome mapping identifies human disease-causing genes only.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo01 apbio-ch17-ex027

ID: 1277@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.135Z

Question:
If you had a chance to get your genome sequenced, what are some questions you might be able to have answered about yourself?
A:
One can determine the drugs that can rectify a disease, symptoms of the disease and its severity.
B:
One can determine the ancestry and genetic origin of diseases and their susceptibility to drugs.
C:
One can predict the symptoms of a disease, the vectors to be used in gene therapy and the causal organism of the disease.
D:
One can determine the pedigree of a disease, produce recombinants and detect the presence of extracellular genes using FISH.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex028

ID: 1278@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.254Z

Question:
Describe an example of a genomic mapping method
A:
The radiation mapping method is an example which uses radiation to break the DNA and is affected by changes in recombination frequency.
B:
Cytogenetic mapping obtains information from microscopic analysis of stained chromosomes. It can estimate the approximate distance between markers.
C:
In restriction mapping, the DNA fragments are cut by using the restriction enzymes and then stained fragments are viewed on gel.
D:
Cytogenetic mapping obtains information from microscopic analysis of stained chromosomes. It can estimate the exact base pair distance between markers.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo03 apbio-ch17-ex029

ID: 1279@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.268Z

Question:
There are 3 methods of creating maps to evaluate genomes: cytogenetic (staining chromosomes); radiation hybrid maps (fragments with x-rays); and sequence maps (comparing DNA sequences). Which of the following accurately describes the 3 methods?
A:
Cytogenetic mapping - stained sections of chromosomes are analyzed using microscope, the distance between genetic markers can be found; Radiation hybrid mapping - breaks DNA using radiation and is affected by recombination frequency; Sequence mapping - DNA sequencing technology used to create physical maps
B:
Cytogenetic mapping - stained sections of chromosomes are analyzed using microscope, the approximate distance between genetic markers can be found; Radiation hybrid mapping - breaks DNA using radiation and is unaffected by recombination frequency; Sequence mapping - DNA sequencing technology used to create physical maps
C:
Cytogenetic mapping - stained sections of chromosomes are analyzed using microscope, the distance in base pairs between genetic markers can be found; Radiation hybrid mapping - breaks DNA using radiation and is unaffected by recombination frequency; Sequence mapping - DNA sequencing technology used to create physical maps.
D:
Cytogenetic mapping - stained sections of chromosomes are analyzed using a telescope, the distance between genetic markers can be found; Radiation hybrid mapping - breaks DNA using radiation and is affected by recombination frequency; Sequence mapping - DNA sequencing technology used to create physical maps.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-aplo-3-1 apbio-ch17-ex032

ID: 1280@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.280Z

Question:
Cytochrome c oxidase is a highly conserved protein found in bacteria and in the mitochondria of eukaryotes. Based on your knowledge of evolutionary relationships, which of the following statements would you expect to be true of the cytochrome c oxidase protein sequence?
A:
The bacterial protein will be more similar to the human protein than the yeast protein.
B:
The yeast protein will be more similar to the human protein than the bacterial protein.
C:
The bacterial protein will be more similar to the yeast protein than the human protein.
D:
The bacterial and yeast protein will share a similar sequence, but the human protein will be unrelated.

Tags:

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ID: 1281@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.291Z

Question:
How is deep sequencing an improvement on Sanger sequencing?
A:
Deep sequencing allows for much faster sequencing of short strands of DNA as compared to Sanger sequencing which reads only short sequences of DNA at a slow rate. Also, there is a high risk of chain termination and problems with separation during Sanger sequencing.
B:
Sequence coverage is higher in Sanger sequencing as compared to deep sequencing.
C:
Sanger sequencing is suitable when there is only one nucleotide different between chains whereas deep sequencing is suitable when there is one or more than one nucleotide different between chains.
D:
Sanger sequencing reads and sequences a genome multiple times whereas deep sequencing accurately sequences the whole genome in a single time.

Tags:

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ID: 1282@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.302Z

Question:
The chain termination method of sequencing uses what?
A:
labeled ddNTPs
B:
only dideoxynucleotides
C:
only deoxynucleotides
D:
labeled dNTPs

Tags:

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ID: 1283@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.314Z

Question:
What sequencing technique is used to identify regions of similarity between cell types or species?
A:
dideoxy chain termination
B:
proteins, DNA, or RNA sequence alignment
C:
shotgun sequencing
D:
whole-exome sequencing

Tags:

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ID: 1284@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.326Z

Question:
Whole-genome sequencing can be used for advances in what field?
A:
bioinformatics
B:
iron industry
C:
multimedia
D:
the medical field

Tags:

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ID: 1285@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.338Z

Question:
Sequencing an individual person’s genome:
A:
is currently impossible
B:
helps in predicting faulty genes in diseases
C:
will not lead to legal issues regarding discrimination and privacy
D:
will not help make informed choices about medical treatment

Tags:

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ID: 1286@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.350Z

Question:
Describe three methods of gene sequencing.
A:
Chain termination method - automated sequencers are used to generate sequences of short fragments; Shotgun sequencing method - incorporation of ddNTP during DNA replication; Next-generation sequencing - cutting DNA into random fragments, sequencing using chain termination, and assembling overlapping sequences
B:
Chain termination method - incorporation of ddNTP during DNA replication; Shotgun sequencing method - cutting DNA into random fragments, sequencing using chain termination, and assembling overlapping sequences; Next-generation sequencing - automated sequencers are used to generate sequences of short fragments
C:
Chain termination method - incorporation of ddNTP during DNA replication; Shotgun sequencing method - automated sequencers are used to generate sequences of short fragments; Next-generation sequencing - cutting DNA into random fragments, sequencing using chain termination, and assembling overlapping sequences
D:
Chain termination method - automated sequencers are used to generate sequences of short fragments; Shotgun sequencing method - cutting DNA into random fragments, sequencing using chain termination, and assembling overlapping sequences; Next-generation sequencing - incorporation of ddNTP during DNA replication

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s03 apbio-ch17-s03-lo01 apbio-ch17-ex039

ID: 1287@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.362Z

Question:
What is the greatest challenge facing genome sequencing?
A:
the lack of resources and use of chemicals for the sequencing of the DNA fragments
B:
the ethical issues such as discrimination based on person’s genetics
C:
the use of chemicals during the sequencing methods that could incorporate mutations
D:
the scientific issues, like conserving the human genome sequences

Tags:

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ID: 1288@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.373Z

Question:
In 2011, the United States Preventative Services Task Force recommended against using the PSA test to screen healthy men for prostate cancer. Their recommendation is based on evidence that screening does not reduce the risk of death from prostate cancer. Prostate cancer often develops very slowly and does not cause problems, while the cancer treatment can have severe side effects. The PCA3 test is considered to be more accurate, but screening may still result in men who would not have been harmed by the cancer itself suffering side effects from treatment. What do you think? Should all healthy men be screened for prostate cancer using the PCA3 or PSA test? Should people in general be screened to find out if they have a genetic risk for cancer or other diseases?
A:
All men should be screened as it is necessary to take the risk.
B:
All men should be given treatment irrespective of the presence or absence of cancer symptoms.
C:
Only men suspecting cancer should be screened.
D:
There is no requirement of any screening, as cancer shows no problems.

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ID: 1289@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.384Z

Question:
Genomics can be used in agriculture to do what?
A:
generate new hybrid strains
B:
improve disease resistance
C:
improve yield
D:
improve yield and resistance and generate hybrids

Tags:

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ID: 1290@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.390Z

Question:
What are the uses of metagenomics?
A:
identification of biofuels
B:
testing for multiple drug susceptibility in a population
C:
use in increasing agricultural yields
D:
identifying new species more rapidly and analyzing the effect of pollutants on the environment

Tags:

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ID: 1291@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.408Z

Question:
Genomics can be used on a personal level to do what?
A:
determine the risks of genetic diseases for an individual’s children
B:
increase transplant rejection
C:
predict protein profile of a person
D:
produce antibodies for an antigen

Tags:

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ID: 1292@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.419Z

Question:
What is the percentage of single gene defects causing disease in developed countries?
A:
<span data-math="0.05">0.05</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.1">0.1</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.2">0.2</span>
D:
<span data-math="0.4">0.4</span>

Tags:

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ID: 1293@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.430Z

Question:
Coumadin is a drug frequently given to prevent excessive blood clotting in stroke or heart attack patients, which could lead to another stroke or heart attack. Administration of the drug also can result in an overdose in some patients, depending on the liver function of a patient. How could pharmacogenomics be used to assist these patients?
A:
Pharmacogenomics will be able to provide a counter-acting drug to decrease the effect of Coumadin.
B:
Pharmacogenomics will test every patient for their sensitivity to the drug.
C:
Pharmacogenomics will not be able to provide any help to patients highly sensitive to the drug.
D:
Pharmacogenomics will provide an overdose to each patient to test for the symptoms of the drug.

Tags:

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ID: 1294@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.442Z

Question:
Why is so much effort being poured into genome mapping applications?
A:
Genome mapping is necessary to know the base pair difference between the markers.
B:
The mapping would help scientists understand the role of proteins in specific organelles.
C:
The mapping technique identifies the role of transposons.
D:
Genome mapping helps identify faulty alleles, which could cause diseases.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s04 apbio-ch17-s04-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex047

ID: 1295@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.454Z

Question:
What is a biomarker?
A:
the color coding of different genes
B:
a protein uniquely produced in a diseased state
C:
a molecule in the genome or proteome
D:
a marker that is genetically inherited

Tags:

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ID: 1296@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.465Z

Question:
What is a metabolome?
A:
a provisional listing of the genome of a species
B:
a unique metabolite used to identify an individual
C:
a method used for protein analysis
D:
the complete set of metabolites related to the genetic makeup of an organism

Tags:

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ID: 1297@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.477Z

Question:
How would you describe a set of proteins with altered expression levels?
A:
a group of biomarkers
B:
a protein signature
C:
the result of a defect in mRNA transcription
D:
the results of crossing over during cell replication

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s05 apbio-ch17-s05-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex050

ID: 1298@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.489Z

Question:
What is a protein signature?
A:
a protein expressed on the cell surface
B:
a unique set of proteins present in a diseased state
C:
the path followed by a protein after it is synthesized in the nucleus
D:
the path followed by a protein in the cytoplasm

Tags:

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ID: 1299@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.500Z

Question:
How can proteomics complement genomics?
A:
The genes are responsible to produce proteins and this implies that proteomics complements genomics.
B:
Genomics is responsible to decide the structure of the proteins, and, thereby, the result of proteomic studies.
C:
The genome is constant but the proteome is dynamic as different tissues possess the same genes but express different genes, thereby complementing genomics.
D:
The study of genes is incomplete without the study of their respective proteins and thus they complement each other.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s05 apbio-ch17-s05-lo01 apbio-ch17-ex052

ID: 1300@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.512Z

Question:
How could a proteomic map of the human genome help find a cure for cancer?
A:
A genetic map could help in identifying genes that could counteract the cause of cancer.
B:
Metabolomics can be used to study the genes producing metabolites during cancer.
C:
Proteomics detects biomarkers whose expression is affected by the disease process.
D:
The mapping helps in analyzing the inheritance of cancer-causing genes.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s05 apbio-ch17-s05-lo02 apbio-ch17-ex053

ID: 1301@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.518Z

Question:
What is the first step in isolating DNA?
A:
generating genomic DNA fragments with restriction endonucleases
B:
introducing recombinant DNA into an organism by any means
C:
overexpressing proteins in <em>E. coli</em>
D:
lysing the cells in the sample

Tags:

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ID: 1302@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.536Z

Question:
Which technique used to manipulate genetic material results in a separation of the DNA fragments?
A:
nucleic acid extraction
B:
gel electrophoresis
C:
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D:
nuclear hybridization

Tags:

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ID: 1303@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.548Z

Question:
What is used as a vector to insert genes into bacteria?
A:
clones
B:
chromosome fragments
C:
viruses
D:
plasmids

Tags:

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ID: 1304@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.560Z

Question:
What is a chimeric molecule?
A:
a recombinant DNA molecule
B:
a nucleic acid with both DNA and RNA
C:
a chromosome after replication
D:
a molecule to be inserted into another gene

Tags:

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ID: 1305@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.572Z

Question:
What is an example of a recombinant protein used therapeutically?
A:
Bt toxin
B:
insulin
C:
growth hormone
D:
all the above

Tags:

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ID: 1306@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.583Z

Question:
What product has been genetically altered so that it does not undergo soft rot?
A:
cabbage
B:
Flavr Savr Tomatoes
C:
MacIntosh apples
D:
hybrid corn

Tags:

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ID: 1307@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.595Z

Question:
Discuss the uses of Southern and Northern blotting techniques.
A:
Northern blotting finds specific DNA sequences and Western blotting finds RNA sequences.
B:
Northern blotting finds specific DNA sequences and Southern blotting finds RNA sequences.
C:
Southern blotting finds specific DNA sequences and Northern blotting finds RNA sequences.
D:
Southern blotting finds specific DNA sequences and Western blotting finds RNA sequences.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo01 apbio-ch17-ot007

ID: 1308@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.607Z

Question:
A cell line called HeLa cells has been used in cell research for over 70 years. These cells were taken from a patient with cervical cancer. Why have they survived so long?
A:
These cells have a capability to extract the nutrients for survival from neighboring cells.
B:
These cells divide rapidly and die rapidly, keeping their concentration in cell cultures constant.
C:
These cells secrete a substance that provides them with constant life.
D:
These cells are not normal and theoretically remain alive forever.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo02 apbio-ch17-ot008

ID: 1309@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.619Z

Question:
What is the role of viruses in gene therapy?
A:
The virus helps deliver the drug into a patient’s body.
B:
Viruses induce the production of antibodies when injected into a patient.
C:
The virus works as vector to insert the target gene into a patient.
D:
The virus integrates its genome next to the faulty gene in the patient’s body.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-lo03 apbio-ch17-ot009

ID: 1310@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.631Z

Question:
PCR methods have many applications in the analysis and utilization of nucleic acids. Explain the steps involved in this process.
A:
Denaturation - separates DNA strands; Annealing - cooling of samples so that DNA primer can bind to the strands; DNA synthesis - RNA polymerase is added to synthesize the new strands
B:
Denaturation - separates DNA strands; DNA synthesis - primer binding occurs and Taq polymerase is added to synthesize the new strands; Annealing - cooling of samples so that DNA strands can bind
C:
Denaturation - separates DNA strands: Annealing - cooling of samples so that primer can bind to the DNA strands; DNA synthesis - Taq polymerase is added to synthesize the new strands
D:
Denaturation - separates DNA strands; DNA synthesis - Taq polymerase is added to synthesize the new strands; Annealing - primer binding occurs and the cooling of samples so that DNA strands can bind

Tags:

apbio dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s01 apbio-ch17-s01-aplo-3-5 apbio-ch17-ot010

ID: 1311@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.643Z

Question:
What is described as the study of entire genomes, including the complete set of genes, their nucleotide sequence and organization, and their interactions within a species and with other species?
A:
genomics
B:
DNA sequencing
C:
karyotype
D:
GMOs

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo01 apbio-ch17-ot011

ID: 1312@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.655Z

Question:
What is the contribution of a genetic physical map to a picture of a genome?
A:
It illustrates a gene or sequence on a chromosome that co-segregates (shows genetic linkage) with a specific trait.
B:
It provides detail of the actual physical distance between genetic markers, as well as the number of nucleotides.
C:
It lists genes and their location on a chromosome.
D:
It is an individual’s DNA “fingerprint.”

Tags:

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ID: 1313@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.679Z

Question:
What is accomplished by the crossing over of chromosomes?
A:
independent assortment
B:
chromosome segregation
C:
genetic recombination
D:
tetrad formation

Tags:

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ID: 1314@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.691Z

Question:
Genetically similar maps would be found in what sets of organisms?
A:
between related species
B:
within the same species
C:
between some unrelated species
D:
within the same genus

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo02 apbio-ch17-ot014

ID: 1315@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.703Z

Question:
Methods used in cytogenetic mapping include what?
A:
radiation hybrid mapping
B:
sequence mapping
C:
RFLP mapping
D:
chromosome staining

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo03 apbio-ch17-ot015

ID: 1316@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.709Z

Question:
What method is based on the natural process of recombination?
A:
radiation hybrid mapping
B:
sequence mapping
C:
linkage analysis
D:
RFLP mapping

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo03 apbio-ch17-ot016

ID: 1317@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.726Z

Question:
How is a genetic marker used in genome mapping?
A:
A genetic marker is a gene that shows polymorphism.
B:
A genetic marker co-segregates with a specific trait and is helpful in linkage analysis.
C:
During gel electrophoresis, the genetic marker helps in proper segregation of DNA.
D:
A genetic marker, when expressed, shows a change in color and thus identifies the location of a linked gene.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo01 apbio-ch17-ot017

ID: 1318@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.739Z

Question:
How is a DNA “fingerprint” determined?
A:
DNA is cut and incubated with the radiolabelled probes to show banding patterns known as the DNA fingerprint.
B:
DNA is broken using radiations like x-rays and gamma rays, showing certain regions of banding patterns and this is known as a DNA fingerprint.
C:
DNA is denatured using high heat conditions and is stained. The stained chromosomes show specific bands called DNA fingerprints.
D:
When DNA is cut with restriction endonucleases, certain regions show polymorphism and a unique banding pattern which is called a DNA fingerprint.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo02 apbio-ch17-ot018

ID: 1319@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.759Z

Question:
What does linkage analysis determine?
A:
Linkage analysis is essential to locate the VNTR for DNA fingerprinting.
B:
Linkage analysis determines the recombination frequency between two genes.
C:
Linkage analysis is essential for genome sequencing.
D:
Linkage analysis is required to insert the DNA fragment in molecular cloning.

Tags:

apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s02 apbio-ch17-s02-lo03 apbio-ch17-ot019

ID: 1320@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.770Z

Question:
How many cells with different genetic variations are possible after a single round of meiosis?
A:
two
B:
three
C:
four
D:
eight

Tags:

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ID: 1321@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.781Z

Question:
What is the role of dideoxynucleotides in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing?
A:
They label ddNTPs.
B:
They terminate the chain.
C:
They are converted to deoxynucleotides.
D:
They create hybrid mapping.

Tags:

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ID: 1322@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.793Z

Question:
What does the sequence alignment of proteins, DNA, or RNA help to identify?
A:
the regions of similarity between cell types or species
B:
the strands that are easily replicated
C:
the regions used in shotgun sequencing
D:
the genes involved in whole-exome sequencing

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ID: 1323@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.804Z

Question:
Advances in medicine have come about as a result of research in which of the following?
A:
shotgun sequencing
B:
DNA or RNA sequence alignment
C:
whole-genome sequencing
D:
genetically modified foods

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ID: 1324@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.810Z

Question:
A person’s genetic background going back generations can be identified through what process?
A:
the generation of hybrid strains
B:
sequencing the person’s genome
C:
genetic mapping
D:
linkage analysis

Tags:

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ID: 1325@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.826Z

Question:
How is shotgun sequencing performed?
A:
The DNA is cut into fragments, sequencing is done using the chain termination method, fragments are analyzed to see the overlapping sequences, and the entire fragment is reformed.
B:
The DNA is cut into fragments, overlapping sequences are analyzed using a computer, sequencing is done using the chain termination method, and the DNA fragment is reformed.
C:
The DNA is cut into fragments, stained with fluorescent dye, sequenced using the chain termination method, fragments are analyzed to see the overlapping sequences, and the entire DNA fragment is reformed.
D:
The DNA is cut into fragments, sequencing is done using the chain termination method, the DNA is stained with fluorescent dye, and a computer is used to analyze and reform the entire DNA fragment.

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ID: 1326@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.832Z

Question:
What could be the hazards of widespread personal genome sequencing?
A:
The authorities can deny life insurance; the person will not be allowed to enter hospitals and other public places.
B:
The person could be denied health insurance, rejected from treatment, and have difficulty finding a job if anybody had access to their information.
C:
The person could face legal issues regarding health and privacy and could be asked to move from one country to another.
D:
People could be asked to surrender their life.

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ID: 1327@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.843Z

Question:
Improving agricultural yields can be a function of what?
A:
genetic mapping
B:
linkage analysis
C:
genomics
D:
RFLP mapping

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ID: 1328@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.861Z

Question:
The rapid identification of new species and the analysis of the effect of pollutants on the environment is a function of what?
A:
metagenomics
B:
linkage analysis
C:
genomics
D:
shotgun sequencing

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ID: 1329@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.872Z

Question:
The risks of genetic diseases for an individual’s children can be determined through:
A:
metagenomics
B:
linkage analysis
C:
genomics
D:
shotgun sequencing

Tags:

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ID: 1330@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.883Z

Question:
Which common genetic defect often causes heart disease in developed countries?
A:
single gene defect
B:
poly gene defect
C:
sex-linked gene defect
D:
somatic gene defect

Tags:

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ID: 1331@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.895Z

Question:
Why is mitochondrial genomics important?
A:
Mitochondria evolved from bacteria; therefore, their genome is important to study.
B:
Mitochondria undergo rapid mutation and it is essential that this pattern be studied.
C:
Mitochondria contain DNA, and it is passed on from mother to offspring, which renders it helpful in tracing genealogy.
D:
Mitochondria are the only ATP-producing organelles of the cell, thus their genome is important.

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ID: 1332@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.907Z

Question:
Discuss the use of the PCA3 gene in screening for prostate cancer.
A:
The PCA3 test measures the levels of PSA in the urine. If it shows a low level, the person may have cancer.
B:
The PCA3 test measures the levels of PSA in the urine. If it shows higher levels, the person may have cancer.
C:
The PCA3 test measures the ratio of PCA3 and PSA levels. If PCA3 levels are high, the person may have cancer.
D:
The PCA3 test measures the ratio of PCA3 and PSA levels. If PCA3 levels are low, the person has cancer.

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ID: 1333@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.920Z

Question:
What word describes a protein that is uniquely produced in a diseased state?
A:
a genomic protein
B:
a genetic defect
C:
a chimeric molecule
D:
a biomarker

Tags:

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ID: 1334@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.932Z

Question:
The metabolites that results from the anabolic and catabolic reactions of an organisms is called what?
A:
genetic metabolic profile
B:
metabolic signature
C:
metabolome
D:
metagenomics

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ID: 1335@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.945Z

Question:
What is a protein signature?
A:
a set of proteins with altered expression levels
B:
a group of biomarkers
C:
the result of a defect in mRNA transcription
D:
the results of crossing over during cell replication

Tags:

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ID: 1336@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.957Z

Question:
You have received a negative result of a diagnostic test for prostate cancer. A short time later you discover that you really have this cancer. Obviously the test should have been positive. What is the most likely reason that the test was negative?
A:
You were really negative at the time.
B:
The test was done correctly, but gave a false negative.
C:
The wrong sample was tested.
D:
A delay in testing affected the results.

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ID: 1337@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.968Z

Question:
What contributions have been made through the use of microbial genomics?
A:
Microbial genomics has provided various tools to study the psychological behaviors of organisms.
B:
Microbial genomics has been useful in producing antibiotics, enzymes, improved vaccines, disease treatments and advanced cleanup techniques.
C:
Microbial genomics has contributed resistance in other bacteria by horizontal and lateral gene transfer mechanisms.
D:
Microbial genomics has contributed to fighting global warming.

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ID: 1338@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.974Z

Question:
Identify three programs developed by the National Cancer Institute to improve the detection and treatment of cancer.
A:
Clinical Proteomic Technologies, Early Detection Research Network and The Biomedical Proteomics Program
B:
Clinical Proteomic Technologies, Early Detection Research Network and Protein signature Program.
C:
Early Detection Research Network, Biomarker analysis program and The Biomedical Proteomics Program.
D:
Early Detection Research Network, the Biomedical Proteomics Program and Clinical Assessment Technologies.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch17 apbio-ch17-s05 apbio-ch17-s05-lo02 apbio-ch17-ot038

ID: 1339@1

2015-08-20T13:03:48.986Z

Question:
What is the basic difference between things that are homologous and things that are analogous?
A:
Things that are analogous look similar and things that are homologous do not.
B:
Things that are analogous have the same function and things that are homologous have different functions.
C:
Things that are analogous are not a result of evolution, whereas things that are homologous are.
D:
hings that are analogous result from convergence and things that are homologous result from common ancestry

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ID: 1340@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.000Z

Question:
Select one misconception about evolution and explain what you might say to someone to dispel it.
A:
Misconception: Evolution is not a well-founded theory. Correction: Although evolution cannot be observed occurring today, there is strong evidence in the fossil record and in shared DNA sequences to support the theory
B:
Misconception: Humans are not currently evolving. Correction: The environmental pressures humans face are different than the ones they faced several thousands of years ago, but they are still there, and they are still producing (slowly!) evolutionary change.
C:
isconception: Evolution produces individuals that are perfectly fit to their environment. Correction: Evolution produces random changes in the genetic code that sometimes lead to adaptations
D:
isconception: Evolution is a random process. Correction: evolution is a force that makes animals adapt to perfectly fit the environment they are living in

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ID: 1341@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.012Z

Question:
Which scientific concept did Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace independently discover?
A:
Mutation
B:
natural selection
C:
overbreeding
D:
sexual reproduction

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ID: 1342@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.025Z

Question:
Which of these statements about a natural principle that points to the inevitability of natural selection is false?
A:
Most characteristics of organisms are inherited.
B:
Offspring vary among each other in regard to their characteristics.
C:
Some generations of offspring do not need to compete for resources.
D:
Certain traits will be better represented in the next generation.

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ID: 1343@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.037Z

Question:
Which is the best definition of adaptation?
A:
A trait or behavior that aids an organism’s survival and reproduction
B:
a heritable trait or behavior that aids an organism’s survival and reproduction
C:
a trait or behavior that aids a population’s survival and reproduction
D:
a heritable trait or behavior that aids a population’s survival and reproduction

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ID: 1344@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.051Z

Question:
Which is an example of an adaptation?
A:
The better nutrition of a human helps her grow taller.
B:
The webbed feet of a duck helps it swim.
C:
The urban location of a raccoon helps it find food.
D:
The large leaves of a desert plant require more water.

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ID: 1345@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.062Z

Question:
Which of the processes described is divergent evolution?
A:
Groups of organisms evolve in different directions from a common point.
B:
A new species develops rapidly when an event cuts off a portion of a population.
C:
Groups of organisms independently evolve to similar forms.
D:
A species evolves when a few members move to a new geographical area.

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ID: 1346@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.084Z

Question:
Which situation is most likely an example of convergent evolution?
A:
Some fish that live in total darkness have eyes.
B:
Hawks and other birds have feathers.
C:
Worms and snakes both move without legs.
D:
Flowers that look very different have the same reproductive organs.

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ID: 1347@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.090Z

Question:
What are homologous structures?
A:
physical structures that have no apparent function
B:
parallel structures in diverse organisms
C:
physical structures that are used only occasionally
D:
similar structures in diverse organisms

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ID: 1348@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.103Z

Question:
Which of the following are two examples of vestigial structures?
A:
Gills in fish and parts of the throat in humans
B:
butterfly wings and dragonfly wings
C:
hind leg bones in whales and leaves on some cacti
D:
shark fins and dolphin fins

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ID: 1349@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.115Z

Question:
Which statement best describes the relationship between the theory of evolution and the origin of life?
A:
The theory includes an explanation of life’s origins.
B:
The theory cannot explain the origin of life.
C:
The theory does not try to explain the origin of life.
D:
The theory does not contribute understanding to pre-life processes.

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ID: 1350@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.126Z

Question:
Which best describes what happens when an antibiotic is applied to a population of bacteria?
A:
The bacteria develops resistance to the antibiotic in direct response to its application.
B:
The bacteria’s genetic material mutates in response to the antibiotic, resulting in resistance.
C:
A gene for resistance, already present in the population, decreases in frequency.
D:
A gene for resistance, already present in the population, increases in frequency.

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ID: 1351@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.144Z

Question:
What conclusions can you draw about the relationship between the way in which the present-day theory of evolution developed and the credibility of the theory? Explain your thinking.
A:
t is meaningful that two naturalists working independently from each other offered the same explanation for the same set of phenomena. When two people independently look at the same evidence and come to the same conclusion, this reinforces the credibility of that conclusion
B:
When the theory of evolution was first proposed, it met with a lot of criticism and disbelief, but it is widely supported today. Theories that have withstood a larger amount of criticism are more credible than those that are accepted easily
C:
The theory of evolution has its foundation in both biological and geological observations, making it a more credible theory because it can explain more about the world
D:
The theory of evolution relies on the heritability of traits, but the mechanism of this inheritance was not understood when the theory was developed. This reduces the credibility of the theory because the people who created it did not understand how it worked

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ID: 1352@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.156Z

Question:
Describe how an adaptation, such as better running speed, relates to natural selection.
A:
Natural selection produces beneficial adaptations, such as better running speed, in individuals that run more frequently
B:
Natural selection randomly mutates individuals’ genetic code until it produces beneficial adaptations, such as better running speed
C:
Natural selection produces adaptations, such as better running speed, to help individuals survive and reproduce
D:
Natural selection reproduces individuals with favorable genetic traits-such as the adaptation of better running speed-over time.

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ID: 1353@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.162Z

Question:
Give an example of convergent evolution, and explain how it supports the theory of evolution by natural selection.
A:
An example of convergent evolution is the development of the same function, swimming, in organisms that live in different parts of the globe, such as Arctic beluga whales and Antarctic leopard seals. The fact that organisms that do not come in contact with each other have developed the same traits suggests that natural selection can produce similar adaptations in organisms who share a similar environment
B:
An example of convergent evolution is the set of adaptations, such as better running speed or more efficient hunting, developed by a species in response to competition with a new species that moves into the same region. The fact that a species adapts after it comes into contact with a competitor suggests that natural selection works more quickly with higher selective pressures.
C:
An example of convergent evolution is the development of an ancestral structure, a limb, into two different modern structures, such as a hand and a flipper. The fact that natural selection can cause a structure to develop down two different pathways due to different environmental conditions supports the theory of evolution
D:
An example of convergent evolution is the development of the same function, flying, in organisms that do not share a recent common ancestry, such as insects and birds. The fact that wings that allow flight have developed from very different original structures suggests that the process of natural selection can produce similar adaptations in two very different types of organisms who share a similar environment

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ID: 1354@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.173Z

Question:
Why do scientists consider vestigial structures evidence for evolution?
A:
Vestigial structures are the result of convergent evolution, so they are good evidence that natural selection act similarly in similar environmental conditions.
B:
Vestigial structures are the result of common ancestry, so they are good evidence that different populations of organisms evolved from a common point.
C:
Vestigial structures are the result of convergent evolution, so they are good evidence for an end goal to evolution.
D:
Vestigial structures are the result of common ancestry, so they are good evidence for a common origin of all life.

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apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch18 apbio-ch18-s01 apbio-ch18-s01-lo04 apbio-ch18-ex016

ID: 1355@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.186Z

Question:
How does the scientific meaning of “theory” differ from the common vernacular meaning?
A:
Free response
B:
Free response

Tags:

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ID: 1356@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.198Z

Question:

Prior to 1800 in England, the typical moth of the species Biston betularia (peppered moth) had a light pattern. Dark colored moths were rare. By the late 19th century, the light-colored moths were rare, and the moths with dark patterns were abundant. The cause of this change was hypothesized to be selective predation by birds (JW Tutt, 1896). During the industrial revolution, soot and other wastes from industrial processes killed tree lichens and darkened tree trunks. Thus, prior to the pollution of the industrial revolution, dark moths stood out on light-colored trees and were vulnerable to predators. With the rise of pollution, however, the coloring of moths vulnerable to predators changed to light.

Which of the following aspects of Darwin’s theory of evolution does the story of the peppered moth most clearly illustrate?

A:
There is competition for resources in an overbred population.
B:
There is great variability among members of a population.
C:
There is differential reproduction of individuals with favorable traits.
D:
The majority of characteristics of organisms are inherited.

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ID: 1357@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.209Z

Question:

Prior to 1800 in England, the typical moth of the species Biston betularia (peppered moth) had a light pattern. Dark colored moths were rare. By the late 19th century, the light-colored moths were rare, and the moths with dark patterns were abundant. The cause of this change was hypothesized to be selective predation by birds (JW Tutt, 1896). During the industrial revolution, soot and other wastes from industrial processes killed tree lichens and darkened tree trunks. Thus, prior to the pollution of the industrial revolution, dark moths stood out on light-colored trees and were vulnerable to predators. With the rise of pollution, however, the coloring of moths vulnerable to predators changed to light.

In the late 1900s, England cleaned up its air, and pollution decreased. The bark of trees went from dark to light.

Which of the following outcomes to the populations of peppered moth would you expect given this environmental change?

A:
An increase in the number of dark moths and a decrease in the number of light moths
B:
an increase in the number of moths overall
C:
an approximately equal number of light moths and dark moths
D:
an increase in the number of light moths and a decrease in the number of dark moths

Tags:

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ID: 1358@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.220Z

Question:

Prior to 1800 in England, the typical moth of the species Biston betularia (peppered moth) had a light pattern. Dark colored moths were rare. By the late 19th century, the light-colored moths were rare, and the moths with dark patterns were abundant. The cause of this change was hypothesized to be selective predation by birds (JW Tutt, 1896). During the industrial revolution, soot and other wastes from industrial processes killed tree lichens and darkened tree trunks. Thus, prior to the pollution of the industrial revolution, dark moths stood out on light-colored trees and were vulnerable to predators. With the rise of pollution, however, the coloring of moths vulnerable to predators changed to light.

Commonly used in biology text books, the peppered moth is a classic example of evolutionary change in action. The example describes changes in a population’s allele frequencies-a small scale change, evolutionarily speaking. The presence of both light and dark forms within the gene pool is demonstrated by the story, but the peppered moth stays a peppered moth.

Which scenario, if it were to occur, would be a model for large scale evolutionary change?

A:
Conditions change such that the dark form of the moth is favored and the light form is diminished in the population due to predation. Conditions change again, the dark form is vulnerable, and the light form returns to prevalence.
B:
Conditions change such that the dark form of the moth is favored and the light form is eradicated in the population due to predation. Conditions change again, the dark form is vulnerable, and the dark form is eradicated due to predation.
C:
Conditions change such that dark form of the moth is favored and the light form is diminished in the population due to predation. Conditions change again, and both forms have equal prevalence.
D:
Conditions change such that dark form of the moth is favored and the light form is eradicated in the population due to predation. Conditions change again, the dark form is vulnerable. It develops an adaptation that shields it from predation.

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ID: 1359@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.232Z

Question:
Given your understanding of evolutionary theory and the relationship between evolution and the genetic makeup of populations, which statement is false?
A:
Homologous characteristics that have evolved more recently are shared only within smaller groups of organisms.
B:
The genetic code is a homologous characteristic shared by all species because they share a common ancestor in the deep past.
C:
DNA sequence data would likely support any evolutionary tree drawn from anatomical data sets.
D:
The degree of relatedness between groups of organisms is only sometimes reflected in the similarity of their DNA sequences.

Tags:

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ID: 1360@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.243Z

Question:
Each of the following observations comes from a different scientific discipline. Which is the best support for Darwin’s concept of descent with modification?
A:
Geologists provide evidence that earthquakes reshape life by causing mass extinctions.
B:
Botanists provide evidence that South American temperate plants have more in common with South American tropical plants than temperate plants from Europe.
C:
Zoologists provide evidence that fewer animal species live on islands than on nearby mainlands.
D:
Ecologists provide evidence that species diversity increases closer to the equator.

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ID: 1361@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.257Z

Question:
Paleontologists have recovered a fossil for an organisms named Archaeopteryx . It has many features in common with reptiles, but, like birds, shows evidence of feathers. For what aspect of evolutionary theory does this piece of evidence suggest support?
A:
Modern species are distinct natural entities.
B:
Modern species are not currently evolving.
C:
Modern species share a common ancestor.
D:
Modern species have both convergent and divergent traits.

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ID: 1362@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.273Z

Question:
Which of the following pieces of evidence illustrates evolution as an ongoing process?
A:
Some genes from the bacterium E. coli have sequences that are similar to genes found in humans.
B:
Marsupial mammals live in just a few places in the world today-Australia, South America, and part of North America.
C:
The fossil record shows that Rodhocetus, an aquatic mammal related to whales, had a type of ankle bone that is otherwise unique to a group of land animals.
D:
In the 1940s, infections by the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus could be treated with penicillin; today populations exist that are completely resistant.

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ID: 1363@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.279Z

Question:
The process of mutation, which generates genetic variation, is random. Thus, life has evolved, and continues to evolve, randomly. Which statement is an appropriately evidence-based refinement of the above?
A:
The process of mutation, which generates genetic variation, is random. However, the process of natural selection, which results in adaptations like the fit between a flower and its pollinator, favors variants which are better able to survive and reproduce. Natural selection is not random, so the overall process of evolution is not random, either.
B:
The process of mutation, which generates genetic variation, is random. However, the process of migration, which results in gene flow between populations, also generates genetic variation. Migration is not random, so the overall process of evolution is not random, either.
C:
The process of mutation, which generates genetic variation, is random. However, the process of sexual reproduction, which also introduces genetic variance, is not random. Since sexual reproduction is not random, the overall process of evolution is not random, either.
D:
The process of mutation, which generates genetic variation, is random. Whether mutations have a positive, negative, or neutral effect in terms of selective advantage is also random. Mutations and their effects are random, so the overall process of evolution is random.

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ID: 1364@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.308Z

Question:
The selective breeding of plants and animals that possess desired traits is a process called artificial selection. For example, broccoli, cabbage, and kale are all vegetables that have been selected from one species of wild mustard. How is artificial selection both similar to and different from Darwin’s conception of natural selection? Does artificial selection provide evidence for evolution by natural selection? Explain.
A:
oth artificial selection and natural selection are processes that cause organisms to be better adapted over time. In artificial selection, humans have trained animals to be more successful in completing tasks that the humans want completed. In natural selection, organisms train the functions that they will need to survive and reproduce
B:
oth artificial selection and natural selection are processes that result in better-adapted individuals within a species. In artificial selection, humans have actively modified plants and animals by selecting beneficial genes from other organisms and inserting them into the target organisms. In natural selection, natural processes such as mutations and viruses introduce new genes to a population
C:
oth artificial selection and natural selection are the differential reproduction of individual organisms with favored traits. In artificial selection, humans have actively modified plants and animals by selecting and breeding individuals with traits deemed desirable. In natural selection, individuals are selected naturally as its traits deem it more fit for survival and reproduction
D:
oth artificial selection and natural selection are the differential reproduction of individual organisms with favored traits. In artificial selection, humans have actively modified plants and animals by selecting and breeding individuals with traits deemed desirable. In natural selection, the most successful individuals in a species are selected by the species to reproduce

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ID: 1365@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.320Z

Question:
Genes important in the embryonic development of animals have been relatively well conserved during evolution. This means they are more similar among different species than many other genes. What explains this genetic conservation across animal species?
A:
hanges in the genes that are important to embryonic development have been relatively minor because mutational tweaking in the embryo has magnified consequences in the adult
B:
hanges in the genes that are important to embryonic development have been relatively minor because early embryos are very fragile and even small mutations can result in death
C:
Changes in the genes that are important to embryonic development have been relatively minor because not much time has elapsed since the divergence of the various animal taxa.
D:
hanges in the genes that are important to embryonic development have been relatively minor because there are no selective pressures on an individual before it is born

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ID: 1366@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.331Z

Question:
The upper forelimbs of humans and cats have fairly similar structures. In contrast, the upper forelimbs of whales (their flippers) have bones with a different shape and proportion from both cats and humans. Interestingly, genetic data suggests that all three organisms have a common ancestor from about the same point in time. What is a likely explanation for these data?
A:
Cats and humans are more closely related to each other than either are to whales.
B:
The whale flipper is an adaptive characteristic unique to its water environment.
C:
he shape of the whale forelimb arose a result of disadvantageous mutations
D:
The whale flipper is a vestigial structure.

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ID: 1367@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.342Z

Question:
Biogeography is the study of biological species as they relate to geographical space and geological time. The fossil record shows that dinosaurs originated about 200 to 250 million years ago. Would you expect the geographic distribution of early dinosaur fossils to be broad (on many continents) or narrow (on one or a few continents)? Explain.
A:
broad because dinosaurs originated before the breakup of Pangaea
B:
broad because some dinosaurs could fly between continents
C:
narrow because they went extinct too quickly to disperse very far
D:
narrow because they lived so long ago that the fossils have mostly broken down or disappeared

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ID: 1368@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.354Z

Question:

The term microevolution describes evolution on its smallest scale: the change in allele frequencies in a population over generations. DDT is a pesticide that was widely in use in the United States from the 1940s until 1972. The table below summarizes a particular allele frequency in laboratory strains of the common fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster .

  Strains collected from flies in the wild in the 1930s Strains collected from flies in the wild in the 1960s
Frequency of allele conferring DDT resistance 0% 40%

Using this information, describe a model in which natural selection improved the match between D. mealanogaster and its environment through microevolution.

A:
DT killed off a large proportion of the population, and the alleles present in the surviving fruit flies differed from those in the original population
B:
Mutations from the application of DDT caused the allele conferring DDT resistance to appear in the population.
C:
Female mosquitoes chose to mate with male mosquitoes that had the allele conferring DDT resistance because it would make their offspring more fit.
D:
The wide use of DDT meant that fruit flies with DDT resistance were more evolutionarily fit than their counterparts without DDT resistance.

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ID: 1369@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.365Z

Question:

In 1795, a Scottish geologist named Charles Hutton suggested that Earth’s geologic features could be explained by gradual processes that were still operating. This was in direct contrast to other scientific thought at the time, which included well-accepted proposals that geologic layers were representative of catastrophic events caused by processes no longer operating in the present time. Hutton proposed geologic features as the result of slow and consistent change, such as valleys formed by rivers wearing through rock. Hutton’s ideas were incorporated in the work of Charles Lyell, a geologist working in Darwin’s time. Lyell advocated a principle called uniformitarianism, the consistency of mechanisms of change over time. In other words, Lyell argued that the same geologic processes operating in the present had operated in the past, and at the same rate.

The ideas of Hutton and Lyell influenced the work of Charles Darwin. How do Hutton’s and Lyell’s ideas connect to and provide support for Darwin’s theory of evolutionary change?

A:
he idea that the same processes that operate in the present also operated in the past, and at the same rate, connects to Darwin’s hypothesis of natural selection because he had observed it happening in the present
B:
The idea that the same processes that operate in the present also operated in the past, and at the same rate, supported Darwin’s hypothesis of natural selection because humans could select for desirable traits and produce change very rapidly, so natural selection would also be fast enough to produce the full range of diversity in living organisms.
C:
The idea that geologic change is the result of slow, continuous processes rather than sudden, substantial change connects directly to Darwin’s hypothesis that, given enough time, slow and subtle processes could produce substantial biological change.
D:
The idea that geologic change is the result of slow, continuous processes rather than sudden, substantial change connects to Darwin’s support of gradualism rather than punctuated equilibrium as the process that guided evolution.

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ID: 1370@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.376Z

Question:
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) reproduces very quickly. A single virus can replicate itself a billion times in one 24-hour period. In a hypothetical treatment situation, a patient’s HIV population consists entirely of drug-resistant viruses after just a few weeks of treatment. How can this treatment result best be explained? How does this explanation illustrate that evolution is an ongoing process?
A:
The resistant viruses passed their genes to the non-resistant viruses so that 100% of the viruses became resistant. This illustrates evolution as an ongoing process because the genes of the population changed in real time.
B:
The non-resistant viruses died, and the resistant ones survived and rapidly reproduced. This illustrates evolution as an ongoing process because the change in the HIV population is the result of natural selection.
C:
The viruses developed resistance to the drug after repeated exposure to it. This illustrates evolution as an ongoing process because the viruses were able to adapt to changing conditions.
D:
The drug-resistant viruses were more fit than their non-resistant counterparts to begin with, and over time they dominated the population. This illustrates evolution as an ongoing process because natural selection favored one phenotype over another.

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ID: 1371@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.387Z

Question:

A friend says: “Natural selection is about the survival of the very fittest in a population. The fittest are those that are strongest, largest, fastest.”

Would you agree with that statement? Explain. What evidence from scientific disciplines can you offer to support your agreement or your disagreement?

A:
The statement is true. If an organism is not strong and fast, it will not survive long enough to reproduce and pass on its genes, and if it is not large and fitter than the other individuals around it then it will not be able to compete for a mate. Many seal species, for example, have only a single male who gets to mate. He must be the very fittest seal to win all the females.
B:
The very fittest organisms are not necessarily the ones that survive. Sometimes it is the least fit organisms that survive and reproduce. For example, in one generation the mice who are bad at foraging for seeds may reproduce prolifically and dominate the mice who are good at foraging. In this case, natural selection will select for the less-fit phenotype and spread it in the population.
C:
The definition of fitness is not correct. The strongest and fastest organisms are more fit than the weaker and slower ones, but large individuals are often at a disadvantage to smaller ones because they are easily spotted by predators. For example, a large rabbit will stick out on a field more than a small one and will get eaten by a hawk.
D:
What is meant by “fittest” is not necessarily strong, large, and fast. Fitness, as defined in evolutionary terms, has to do with survival and the reproduction of genetic material. For example, a small but showy male bird may be selected by female birds to reproduce, while a large but less colorful one is not.

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ID: 1372@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.398Z

Question:
Name three examples of adaptive radiation, and provide a brief statement about each one.
A:
Domestic dogs – There are over 300 distinct dog breeds. Cows – There are over 800 cow breeds recognized worldwide. Domestic cats – Cats have changed drastically in just a few thousand years.
B:
Whales and fish – Although it has been roughly 400 million years since fish and mammals diverged, whales and fish are morphologically similar. Birds and butterflies – Although the common ancestor between vertebrates and insects lived even longer ago than the common ancestor between whales and fish, birds and butterflies both developed flight. Rabbits and kangaroos – Although it has been over 150 million years since their divergence, rabbits and kangaroos both developed powerful jumping legs.
C:
Hawaiian silverswords-There are about 30 species evolved from one parent species. Madagascar lemurs-Their common ancestor likely arrived to Madagascar over 60 million years ago. Hawaiian fruit fly-There are 500 species of fruit fly from one parent species.
D:
Beetles – There are about 350,000 species of beetles that we know of. Birds – There are almost 10,000 species of birds in existence. Frogs – There are almost 5,000 species of frogs worldwide.

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ID: 1373@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.415Z

Question:
In your own words, define aneuploidy.
A:
Aneuploidy is a mutation that causes the genome of a cell to break down.
B:
neuploidy is the condition of having too many or too few chromosomes as a result of an error during cell division
C:
Aneuploidy is the condition of having an extra copy of every chromosome in the genome.
D:
Aneuploidy is a prezygotic barrier in which the gametes of two distinct species will not fertilize each other.

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ID: 1374@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.421Z

Question:
Which is the best definition of species?
A:
A group of individual organisms with significant genetic similarities
B:
a group of individual organisms with significant genetic similarities that share external and internal characteristics
C:
a group of individual organisms that interbreed
D:
a group of individual organisms that interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring

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ID: 1375@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.432Z

Question:
What do scientists focus on to distinguish between species?
A:
ecological niches
B:
morphological differences
C:
reproductive barriers
D:
genetic changes

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ID: 1376@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.449Z

Question:
Which are two primary sources of genetic variation?
A:
mutations and sexual reproduction
B:
isolation and sexual reproduction
C:
sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction
D:
migration and sexual reproduction

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ID: 1377@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.455Z

Question:
Which statement best describes the relationship between genetic variation and speciation?
A:
Without genetic variation, speciation would occur more slowly.
B:
Without genetic variation, speciation would not be possible.
C:
Genetic variation influences sympatric speciation, but not allopatric speciation.
D:
There is no relationship between genetic variation and any form of speciation.

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ID: 1378@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.476Z

Question:
Which statement about postzygotic barriers is false?
A:
They occur after fertilization.
B:
They include hybrids that are sterile.
C:
They include hybrid organisms that don’t survive the embryonic stage.
D:
They include reproductive organ incompatibility.

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ID: 1379@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.488Z

Question:
Which situation is an example of a prezygotic barrier?
A:
Two species of fish produce sterile offspring.
B:
Two species of flowers attract different pollinators.
C:
Two species of insects mate, but the zygote does not survive.
D:
Two species of lizards mate, but the offspring dies before reproducing.

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ID: 1380@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.494Z

Question:
Which situation would most likely lead to allopatric speciation?
A:
A flood causes the formation of a new lake
B:
A storm causes several large trees to fall down.
C:
A mutation causes a new trait to develop.
D:
An injury causes an organism to seek out a new food source.

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ID: 1381@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.506Z

Question:
What is the main difference between an autopolyploid individual and a allopolyploid individual?
A:
number of extra chromosomes
B:
functionality of extra chromosomes
C:
source of extra chromosomes
D:
number of mutations in the extra chromosomes

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ID: 1382@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.517Z

Question:
What is unique about speciation due to adaptive radiation?
A:
It leads to multiple species forming from one parent species.
B:
It only occurs on or around island archipelagos.
C:
It requires a population to disperse from its parent species.
D:
It is a special kind of sympatric speciation.

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ID: 1383@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.528Z

Question:
Which is least likely to be a factor that increases the probability of speciation by adaptive radiation?
A:
There are vacant ecological niches nearby.
B:
Genetic drift in a population increases.
C:
There are isolated regions with suitable habitats.
D:
There are few competitor species.

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ID: 1384@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.539Z

Question:
Why is having a way of defining species and distinguishing between them important for the study of evolution?
A:
A distinction between species allows scientists to understand the common origin of all species.
B:
A common definition of species allows scientists to agree on all aspects of the theory of evolution.
C:
Divergence can only occur at the species level: it does not occur to larger taxa. Therefore it is important to know which groups are distinct species.
D:
In the study of evolution, the species is the unit over which change is measured.

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ID: 1385@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.553Z

Question:
If a population stopped reproducing sexually, but still reproduced asexually, how would its genetic variation be affected over time? Could speciation occur in this situation? Explain your ideas.
A:
enetic variation would increase and speciation would be possible
B:
Genetic variation would increase and speciation would not be possible.
C:
Genetic variation would decrease and speciation would be possible.
D:
Genetic variation would decrease and speciation would not be possible.

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ID: 1386@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.565Z

Question:
What role do prezygotic and postzygotic barriers play in speciation?
A:
Prezygotic and postzygotic barriers allow for the formation of less-fit hybrids that reinforces speciation.
B:
Prezygotic and postzygotic barriers prevent interbreeding of species such that there is no gene flow between them.
C:
Prezygotic and postzygotic barriers prevent migration of the two species, causing them to remain in contact with each other and begin to interbreed.
D:
Prezygotic and postzygotic barriers are present only in newly-formed species, allowing scientists to identify the time of divergence of the species.

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ID: 1387@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.582Z

Question:
Which type of speciation, allopatric or sympatric, is more common? Why?
A:
Allopatric speciation is more common because it prevents gene flow between the species.
B:
Allopatric speciation is more common because it involves stronger prezygotic barriers.
C:
Sympatric speciation is more common because it prevents gene flow between the species.
D:
Sympatric speciation is more common because it involves stronger prezygotic barriers.

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ID: 1388@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.588Z

Question:
Use adaptive radiation to explain the diversification of the finches Darwin observed in the Galapagos.
A:
The finches likely shared a common ancestor when they came to the island, but exhibited different traits. Each species of finch settled the island where its particular traits would be the most adaptive.
B:
The finches likely originated as one parent species, but over time mutations caused them to develop reproductive barriers and separate into different species. To reduce competition, the species then radiated out to inhabit different islands.
C:
The finches likely dispersed from one parent species, and natural selection based on different food sources in differing habitats led to adaptive changes, evidenced in the different beak shapes of the different species-each suited to a different food type.
D:
It is likely that a series of cataclysmic events caused an original finch species to diverge into the many finch species that inhabited the islands when Darwin observed them. The different species then radiated out to the different islands and adapted to the different conditions on each.

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ID: 1389@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.599Z

Question:

A student placed 20 tobacco seeds of the same species on moist paper towels in each of two petri dishes. Dish A was wrapped completely in an opaque cover to exclude all light. Dish B was not wrapped. The dishes were placed equidistant from a light source set to a cycle of 14 hours of light and 10 hours of dark. All other conditions were the same for both dishes. The dishes were examined after 7 days, and the opaque cover was permanently removed from dish A. Both dishes were returned to the light and examined again at 14 days. The following data were obtained:

alt text

Which of the following best supports the hypothesis that the difference in leaf color is genetically controlled?

A:
the number of yellow-leaved seedlings in dish A on day 7
B:
The number of germinated seeds in dish A on days 7 and 14
C:
the death of all the yellow-leaved seedings
D:
the existence of yellow-leaved seedlings as well as green-leaved ones on day 14 in dish B

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ID: 1390@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.610Z

Question:

A student placed 20 tobacco seeds of the same species on moist paper towels in each of two petri dishes. Dish A was wrapped completely in an opaque cover to exclude all light. Dish B was not wrapped. The dishes were placed equidistant from a light source set to a cycle of 14 hours of light and 10 hours of dark. All other conditions were the same for both dishes. The dishes were examined after 7 days, and the opaque cover was permanently removed from dish A. Both dishes were returned to the light and examined again at 14 days. The following data were obtained:

alt text Which best describes the usefulness of the yellow-leaved phenotype as a variation subject to natural selection?

A:
The yellow-leaved phenotype can germinate in environments without light.
B:
The germination of the yellow-leaved phenotype is unaffected by light intensity.
C:
The germination of the yellow-leaved phenotype is accelerated as compared to the green-leaved phenotype.
D:
The yellow-leaved phenotype cannot germinate in environments with light.

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ID: 1391@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.622Z

Question:

A student placed 20 tobacco seeds of the same species on moist paper towels in each of two petri dishes. Dish A was wrapped completely in an opaque cover to exclude all light. Dish B was not wrapped. The dishes were placed equidistant from a light source set to a cycle of 14 hours of light and 10 hours of dark. All other conditions were the same for both dishes. The dishes were examined after 7 days, and the opaque cover was permanently removed from dish A. Both dishes were returned to the light and examined again at 14 days. The following data were obtained:

alt text Yellow-leaved seedlings are unable to convert light energy to chemical energy. Which observation is most likely to be made on day 21?

A:
a few yellow-leaved seedlings alive in dish A, but none in dish B
B:
a few yellow-leaved seedlings alive in dish B, but none in dish A
C:
no yellow-leaved seedlings alive in dish A or dish B
D:
a few yellow-leaved seedlings alive in dish A and dish B

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ID: 1392@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.633Z

Question:
Populations of a nocturnal toad live along a long river. On the other side of a band of territory that is about 10 kilometers wide, there are populations of a toad that appear similar. Which of the following data would provide compelling evidence that the two populations represent different species?
A:
The populations of toads on the other side of the banded territory are not completely nocturnal.
B:
Fertile hybrid populations of toads are found between the two other populations.
C:
There appear to be some hybrid toads between the two populations, but they are few and frail.
D:
The two populations of toads enact very different mating behaviors.

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ID: 1393@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.645Z

Question:
alt text A group of students summarized information on five great extinction events. The students are sampling a site in search of fossils from the Devonian period. Based on the chart, which of the following would be the most reasonable plan for the students to follow?
A:
searching horizontal rock layers in any class of rock and trying to find those that contain the greatest number of fossils
B:
collecting fossils from rock layers deposited prior to the Permian period that contain some early vertebrate bones
C:
looking in sedimentary layers next to bodies of water in order to find marine fossils of bivalves and trilobites
D:
using relative dating techniques to determine the geological ages of the fossils found so they can calculate the rate of speciation of early organisms

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ID: 1394@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.656Z

Question:

Populations of a plant species have been found growing in the mountains at altitudes above 2,500 meters. Populations of a plant that appears similar, with slight differences, have been found in the same mountains at altitudes below 2,300 meters.

Describe a plan for collecting two kinds of data that could provide a direct answer to the question: do the populations growing above 2,500 meters and the populations growing below 2,300 meters represent a single species?

A:
Scientists could take the genetic code of a plant from each altitude and determine whether the two sets of DNA are identical. They could also insert genes from one plant into the cells from the other and see if the cells survive
B:
Scientists could look in the fossil record to find the plants’ most recent common ancestor. They could also check the surrounding mountains to determine if the most recent common ancestor is still living.
C:
Scientists could breed the two groups in the same environment and observe whether, over several generations, they begin to look more similar. They could also switch the groups, growing the high-altitude plants at low altitude and the low-altitude plants at high altitude, and observe whether the former begin to look like low-altitude plants and the latter begin to look like high-altitude plants.
D:
Scientists could collect seeds and test whether they might be cross-pollinated to produce fertile offspring. They could also investigate the area between 2,500 meters and 2,300 meters to see if fertile hybrid populations might be found living between the two other populations of plants.

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ID: 1395@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.668Z

Question:

Populations of a plant species have been found growing in the mountains at altitudes above 2,500 meters. Populations of a plant that appears similar, with slight differences, have been found in the same mountains at altitudes below 2,300 meters.

Explain how the two types of data you suggested provide a direct answer to the question of whether speciation has taken place.

A:
If the plants become more similar when grown in the same environment, or if the high-altitude plants respond to low altitude in the same way that low-altitude plants have, and low-altitude plants respond to high altitude the same way that high-altitude plants have, then the two groups have the same underlying genetic structure and belong to one species.
B:
If the seeds from the plants can be cross fertilized and developed into fertile offspring, the two populations are not yet reproductively isolated and remain one species. If hybrid forms are found, the two populations are not reproductively isolated and hybrids are both viable and successful.
C:
If the genetic codes of the two plants are identical, then they must belong to the same species. Also, if genes transplanted between the plants function successfully, then the plants must be similar enough to each other to belong to the same species.
D:
If scientists are able to find the common ancestor of the two groups in the fossil record or in neighboring communities, then they can determine whether the plants have diverged into separate species or remain a single species.

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ID: 1396@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.681Z

Question:

Assuming a population that has genetic variation and is under the influence of natural selection, place the following events in the order in which they would occur:

  • Genetic frequencies within the population change.
  • A change occurs in the population’s environment.
  • Phenotypic variations shift.
  • Individuals who are well-adapted leave more offspring than individuals who are poorly adapted.
  • Individuals who are poorly adapted do not survive at the same rate as individuals who are well adapted.
A:
<ol> <li>A change occurs in the population’s environment.</li> <li>Individuals who are poorly adapted do not survive at the same rate as individuals who are well adapted.</li> <li>Individuals who are well-adapted leave more offspring than individuals who are poorly adapted.</li> <li>Genetic frequencies within the population change.</li> <li>Phenotypic variations shift.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>A change occurs in the population’s environment.</li> <li>Genetic frequencies within the population change.</li> <li>Phenotypic variations shift.</li> <li>Individuals who are poorly adapted do not survive at the same rate as individuals who are well adapted.</li> <li>Individuals who are well-adapted leave more offspring than individuals who are poorly adapted.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>Phenotypic variations shift.</li> <li>A change occurs in the population’s environment.</li> <li>Genetic frequencies within the population change.</li> <li>Individuals who are poorly adapted do not survive at the same rate as individuals who are well adapted.</li> <li>Individuals who are well-adapted leave more offspring than individuals who are poorly adapted.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>Individuals who are well-adapted leave more offspring than individuals who are poorly adapted.</li> <li>Individuals who are poorly adapted do not survive at the same rate as individuals who are well adapted.</li> <li>Phenotypic variations shift.</li> <li>Genetic frequencies within the population change.</li> <li>A change occurs in the population’s environment.</li> </ol>

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ID: 1397@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.693Z

Question:
A biologist studies a population of voles for 20 years. During almost the entire research period, the population stays between 50 and 75 individuals. Additionally, less than half of the voles born do not survive to reproduce, due to predation and competition for food. Then, in one generation, 80% of the voles born live to reproduce. The population increases to 110 individuals. What inferences about food and predation can you make for the singular generation in which 80% of offspring survived? What prediction can you make about the genetic and phenotypic variation of future populations for this group of voles?
A:
Either there was less food available or the degree of predation increased. The future generations of this group of voles should evidence less genetic variation.
B:
Either there was less food available or the degree of predation increased. The future generations of this group of voles should evidence greater genetic variation.
C:
Either there was more food available or the degree of predation decreased. The future generations of this group of voles should evidence less genetic variation.
D:
Either there was more food available or the degree of predation decreased. The future generations of this group of voles should evidence greater genetic variation.

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ID: 1398@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.705Z

Question:
There are years of drought in a small, relatively isolated community. During the drought, small seeds with thin shells become rare. Large seeds with hard cases become increasingly common. The large, tough seeds are successfully eaten by birds with large and broad beaks. Assuming that the drought continues and the population of birds in the community stays isolated, what predictions for the population can you make under the influence of natural selection?
A:
The birds with small, thin beaks will grow larger, broader beaks to be able to eat the larger seeds. This will result in subsequent generations having a higher percentage of birds with large, broad beaks.
B:
There will be more birds with small, thin beaks dying and more birds with large, broad beaks surviving. Differential reproduction of birds with large, broad beaks will result in subsequent generations having a higher percentage of birds with large, broad beaks.
C:
The species will diverge into two species, one with small, thin beaks and one with large, broad beaks. The two species will then compete for resources.
D:
There will be neither phenotypic nor genotypic changes in the population.

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ID: 1399@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.723Z

Question:
What are three different pathways that species evolution may take in hybrid zones?
A:
stability, fusion, reinforcement
B:
allopatric speciation, sympatric speciation, fusion
C:
convergent evolution, divergent evolution, no evolution
D:
natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow

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ID: 1400@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.728Z

Question:
Describe a situation in which punctuated equilibrium is more likely to take place.
A:
There is a significant change in the environment over time, such as the breakup of a supercontinent due to tectonic activity.
B:
A species that has a competitor outcompetes it and drives it to extinction, freeing up more resources.
C:
There is a sudden and significant change in the environment, such as a volcanic eruption that divides a population that once shared a habitat.
D:
There is a stable and unchanging environment in which a species can flourish.

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ID: 1401@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.745Z

Question:
In a hybrid zone, in addition to interacting, what else do two closely related species do?
A:
compete
B:
reproduce
C:
transition
D:
fuse

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ID: 1402@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.751Z

Question:
Which situation means reinforcement is more likely to occur in the hybrid zone?
A:
The hybrid offspring are more fit than the parent species.
B:
Reproductive barriers weaken.
C:
The hybrid offspring are about as fit as the parent species.
D:
Reproductive barriers strengthen.

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ID: 1403@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.762Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is false?
A:
Graudal speciation and punctuated equilibrium both result in the divergence of species.
B:
Punctuated equilibrium is most likely to occur in a large population in a stable environment.
C:
In the punctuated equilibrium model, gradualism is excluded.
D:
In the gradual speciation model, traits change incrementally.

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ID: 1404@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.773Z

Question:
Which component of speciation would be least likely to be a part of punctuated equilibrium?
A:
a division in populations
B:
a change in environmental conditions
C:
ongoing gene flow
D:
a number of mutations occuring at once

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ID: 1405@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.784Z

Question:
Describe a situation where hybrid reproduction would cause two species to fuse into one.
A:
eparate species cannot interbreed, so hybrid reproduction does not occur in nature
B:
f the hybrid offspring are more fit than the parents, reproduction would likely continue between both species and the hybrids, eventually bringing all organisms under the umbrella of one species
C:
Two species that have recently diverged from each other can reproduce with each other, creating hybrid individuals that belong to the species of the parents’ common ancestor.
D:
f two species occupy the same niche in the same area, they can either compete or they can collaborate and reproduce with each other, eventually fusing into a single species

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ID: 1406@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.795Z

Question:
What do both rate of speciation models have in common? Explain.
A:
Both models ignore the influence of gene flow for simplicity’s sake.
B:
Both models apply only to island chains.
C:
oth models require the influence of cataclysmic events which precipitate rapid adaptation and speciation
D:
oth models conform to the rules of natural selection and the influences of gene flow, genetic drift, and mutation

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ID: 1407@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.806Z

Question:
At one time, avian researchers in the Sulawesi region of Indonesia described the Flowerpecker populations on the mainland and the Wakatobi archipelago as one species. A recent reassessment of the Wakatobi populations resulted in the suggested reclassification of these populations as a distinct species, the Wakatobi Flowerpecker. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would be cause for this reclassification?
A:
The populations have become dependent on the island food sources.
B:
The populations have become morphologically distinct from the mainland species.
C:
The populations have become adapted to the island habitat.
D:
The populations have become reproductively isolated from the mainland species.

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ID: 1408@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.817Z

Question:
What pattern in the fossil record would you expect to see to support the model of gradual speciation? How would you expect this pattern to differ from a pattern in the fossil record that supports the model of punctuated equilibrium? Explain.
A:
In the case of gradual speciation, the fossil record would show only a few hybrid individuals, followed by individuals of the two distinct species. For the case of punctuated equilibrium, the fossil record would show many hybrid individuals persisting through several geological layers.
B:
In the case of gradual speciation, the fossil record would show the parent species in a single location, such that the newly diverged species remained in contact with each other. For the case of punctuated equilibrium, the fossil record would show a geographic divide within the parent species that caused it to diverge into multiple new species.
C:
In the case of gradual speciation, the fossil record would show many intermediate forms. For the case of punctuated equilibrium, the fossil record would show new forms that persist essentially unchanged through several geological layers, then disappear just as a new form appears.
D:
Gradual speciation would be undetectable in the fossil record. For the case of punctuated equilibrium, the fossil record would show a steady progression of distinct forms.

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ID: 1409@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.828Z

Question:
Until recently, these three species of short-tailed pythons, Python curtus , Python brongersmai (middle), and Python breitensteini were considered one species. However, due to the different locations in which they are found, they have become three distinct species. What is this an example of?
A:
divergent evolution
B:
sympatric speciation
C:
allopatric speciation
D:
variation

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ID: 1410@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.839Z

Question:
Which of these statements about scientific arguments at the time of Darwin’s and Wallace’s work was central to the development of the theory of evolution?
A:
Species are static and unchanging.
B:
Most variations among offspring are due to the environment.
C:
Severe changes in weather patterns produce extinctions.
D:
The capacity for reproduction in humans exceeds available resources.

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ID: 1411@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.850Z

Question:
What is an adaptation?
A:
A heritable trait or behavior in an organism
B:
a learned trait or behavior in an organism
C:
a heritable trait or behavior present in a population
D:
a trait or behavior present in a population

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ID: 1412@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.867Z

Question:
A gardener scatters radish seeds in the ground. Which describes survival due to an adaptation?
A:
Seeds that the gardener waters more grow more stronger.
B:
Seeds that fall on richer soil grow faster.
C:
Seeds that are more efficient at nutrient intake grow stronger.
D:
Seeds that settle on poorer soil do not germinate.

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ID: 1413@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.872Z

Question:
Which of the processes described is convergent evolution?
A:
Geographic separation results in the development of a new species.
B:
A species gradually changes over time in small steps.
C:
Groups of organisms that share a common point evolve in diverse directions.
D:
Similar traits evolve independently in species that do not share a recent common ancestry

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ID: 1414@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.883Z

Question:
Which situation is most likely an example of divergent evolution?
A:
Squid and humans have eyes similar in structure.
B:
The appendages of cats and bats have the same basic skeletal arrangement.
C:
Some flightless birds have wings.
D:
Sharks and dolphins have very similar body plans.

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ID: 1415@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.900Z

Question:
Which is the best definition of vestigial structures?
A:
Structures of marginal, if any, importance to an organism
B:
similar structures in diverse organisms
C:
structures that have been adapted differently, but retain the same general layout
D:
synonymous structures in diverse organisms

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ID: 1416@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.906Z

Question:
Which are homolgous structures?
A:
Pelvic bones in snakes and tails in humans
B:
wings of sugar gliders and wings of flying squirrels
C:
grasshopper legs and sea star arms
D:
beaver teeth and elephant tusks

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ID: 1417@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.918Z

Question:
Which statement best describes the relationship between evolution and species development?
A:
Species evolve in a completely non-directional way.
B:
Species evolve into more complex organisms.
C:
Species evolve directionally by adapting to a changing environment.
D:
Species evolve into more intelligent organisms.

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ID: 1418@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.929Z

Question:
Each statement describes a scenario to explain an evolutionary change: an increase in average bill size in a population of birds over the period of several years. Which explanation evidences a misconception of evolution?
A:
Individual birds that were young at the first measurement point have grown larger, and bill size has increased accordingly.
B:
The number of birds in the population with a larger bill size has increased, so the overall average measurement has increased, as well.
C:
The population of birds has developed different eating habits in response to environmental changes, and bill size in the population has increased accordingly.
D:
The number of birds in the population with a smaller bill size has decreased, so the overall average measurement has increased.

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ID: 1419@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.940Z

Question:
Compare the way in which the present-day theory of evolution developed with the basic principles of the scientific method. What parallels do you see? Explain.
A:
oth Darwin and Wallace made observations, formulated a testable hypothesis, and conducted reproducible tests of that hypothesis
B:
oth Darwin and Wallace did repeated trials, controlled for extraneous factors, and had their results reviewed by peers in their field
C:
Both Darwin and Wallace made reproducible observations, drew conclusions based on these observations, and communicated their results.
D:
oth Darwin and Wallace built upon existing knowledge as well as new observations and refuted past claims that turned out to be false

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ID: 1420@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.950Z

Question:
How do environmental conditions affect the selection of particular adaptations? Cite evidence to support your ideas.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1421@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.961Z

Question:
Give an example of divergent evolution, and explain how it supports the theory of evolution by natural selection.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1422@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.972Z

Question:
Why do scientists consider homologous structures evidence for evolution?
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1423@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.983Z

Question:
Explain why the statement that a monkey is more evolved than a mouse is incorrect.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1424@1

2015-08-20T13:03:49.999Z

Question:
A species of walking stick insect, Timema cristinae , which lives in the hills of California, has two color patterns: solid green, and green with a singular white stripe. Scientists studying the insects found that they live on two species of bush. One type of bush has thick green leaves. The other type has thin green leaves. The scientists’ research revealed that solid green insects tend to live on bushes whose appearance corresponds with their own: thick green leaves for the insects with solid green bodies and thin green leaves for the insects with the singular white stripe. The scientists hypothesized that camouflage from predators drove the bush-body correspondence. To study their hypothesis, they placed 200 insects on each type of bush. To some bushes they added well-matched insects. To others, they added mismatched insects. After one month, the mismatched populations were half that of the matched populations. Which of the following evolutionary concepts does the walking stick research most clearly illustrate?
A:
Natural selection due to predation
B:
Free response only
C:
inherited variability within populations
D:
overreproduction of species

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ID: 1425@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.005Z

Question:

A species of walking stick insect, Timema cristinae , which lives in the hills of California, has two color patterns: solid green, and green with a singular white stripe. Scientists studying the insects found that they live on two species of bush. One type of bush has thick green leaves. The other type has thin green leaves. The scientists’ research revealed that solid green insects tend to live on bushes whose appearance corresponds with their own: thick green leaves for the insects with solid green bodies and thin green leaves for the insects with the singular white stripe. The scientists hypothesized that camouflage from predators drove the bush-body correspondence. To study their hypothesis, they placed 200 insects on each type of bush. To some bushes they added well-matched insects. To others, they added mismatched insects. After one month, the mismatched populations were half that of the matched populations.

In effect, the walking stick researchers changed the walking stick insects’ environment by setting them on a particular bush. Walking stick insects do not have wings and spend almost their entire life on a single bush. Assuming the inability to move to another bush, which of the following outcomes to the populations of walking insects that were relocated would you expect over time?

A:
A decrease in the number of matched insects on each type of bush
B:
Free response only
C:
an approximately equal number of each color of insect on each type of bush
D:
a decrease in the total number of insects living on each type of bush

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ID: 1426@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.016Z

Question:
A graph of the increase in frequency of pesticide resistance in mosquitos after being sprayed with DDT. The sample of mosquitos following 2 months showed 95 percent mortality while those surviving being sprayed following 15 months showed 22 percent mortality. Mosquitoes resistant to the pesticide DDT were first noted in India in 1959. DDT-resistant mosquitoes are now found throughout the world. The graph shows the results of a DDT spray program, in which mosquitoes were considered resistant if they did not die within 1 hour of a 4% DDT dosage. Which scenario best explains the relatively quick increase in DDT resistance among the mosquito population?
A:
The mosquitoes who are not DDT-resistant leave the area where DDT is applicated and DDT-resistant mosquitoes move into the area.
B:
Free response only
C:
A few DDT-resistant mosquitoes were present at the start of DDT application, and natural selection increased their frequency.
D:
DDT-resistant mosquitoes continue to migrate from India (transported by wind, trains, planes) and move into other parts of the world.

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ID: 1427@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.032Z

Question:
Given your understanding of evolutionary theory and the relationship between evolution and the genetic makeup of populations, which statement makes the most sense?
A:
The genome of the macaque is more similar to the mouse genome than the human genome.
B:
Free response only
C:
The genome of the macaque is equally similar to the human genome and the mouse genome.
D:
The genome of the macaque is equally divergent from the human genome and the mouse genome.

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ID: 1428@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.038Z

Question:
Compelling evidence for the theory of evolution comes from many scientific disciplines. Suppose paleontologists discovered a fossil of an extinct mammal that lived high in the Rocky Mountains. They write a scientific paper comparing the mammal to present-day mammals. Which of the following would you expect their comparison data to show?
A:
The extinct mammal more closely resembles present-day mammals that live high in Afrian mountains than the present-day mammals that live in the North American prairies.
B:
Free response only
C:
The extinct mammal closely resembles both present-day mammals from the North American prairies and present-day mammals that live high in African mountains.
D:
The extinct mammal more closely resembles present-day mammals that live in the North American prairies than present-day mammals that live high in African mountains.

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ID: 1429@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.049Z

Question:
With radioisotope dating, scientists have estimated that the rocks that contain the fossils of the earliest life forms on Earth, which look like bacteria, are 3.5 billion years old. For what aspect of evolutionary theory does this piece of evidence suggest support?
A:
Today’s diversity of life has taken many millions of years to develop.
B:
Free response only
C:
The tendency for overreproduction in populations is a long-held pattern.
D:
Events that prompted evolutionary change in the distant past were different from events that prompt such change today.

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ID: 1430@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.066Z

Question:
Which of the following pieces of evidence illustrates evolution as an ongoing process?
A:
Ethnic Tibetans are unique among humans for having physiological mechanisms that help them live in places with low oxygen levels.
B:
Free response only
C:
Snakes have a moveable bone in their upper jaw, allowing them to swallow food larger than their head.
D:
Deer mice have a heritable variation for fur coloration that ranges from light to dark.

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ID: 1431@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.071Z

Question:
Evolution occurs slowly and gradually. Which statement is an appropriately evidence-based refinement of the above?
A:
Evolution occurs slowly and gradually almost all of the time. There are many examples of slow and steady evolution-such as the gradual evolution of Equus ferus (modern horse).
B:
Free response only
C:
Evolution occurs slowly and gradually, but it can also occur rapidly. In addition to gradual evolution of species, rapid evolutions are evidenced in drug-resistant strains of bacteria and other disease-causing organisms.
D:
Evolution occurs slowly and gradually, but it is also thought to occur rapidly. While most evidence points to the gradual evolution of species, scientists feel confident that evidence of rapid evolution exists.

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ID: 1432@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.082Z

Question:
How are members of the same species united?
A:
phenotypically similar
B:
genetically similar
C:
reproductively compatible
D:
morphologically compatible

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ID: 1433@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.093Z

Question:
Which of the following describes two members of the same species?
A:
two organisms that look very different, but can interbreed to create fertile offspring
B:
two organisms that look very much alike, but cannot interbreed to produce fertile offspring
C:
two organisms that look very different, but can interbreed to create a sterile hybrid
D:
two organisms that look very much alike, and can interbreed to create a sterile hybrid

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ID: 1434@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.106Z

Question:
What are mutations and sexual reproduction?
A:
basic mechanisms of evolutionary change
B:
examples of evolution
C:
two ways speciation happens
D:
primary sources of genetic variation

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ID: 1435@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.117Z

Question:
What is genetic variation a prerequisite to?
A:
mutation
B:
speciation
C:
isolation
D:
separation

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ID: 1436@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.128Z

Question:
Which situation is an example of a postzygotic barrier?
A:
Two species of turtles breed at different times of the year.
B:
Two species of birds display different mating dances.
C:
Two species of insects produce infertile offspring.
D:
Two species of frogs live in habitats isolated from each other.

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ID: 1437@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.139Z

Question:
Which variable increases the likelihood of allopatric speciation taking place more quickly?
A:
lower rate of mutation
B:
longer distance between divided groups
C:
increased instances of hybrid formation
D:
equivalent numbers of individuals in each population

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ID: 1438@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.156Z

Question:
Which statement about adaptive radiation is false?
A:
During adaptive radiation, organisms’ adaptations allow them to fill different ecological roles.
B:
Island archipelagos are an ideal context for adaptive radiation events.
C:
The finches Darwin observed are an example of adaptive radiation.
D:
Adaptive radiation is not an example of allopatric speciation.

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ID: 1439@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.162Z

Question:
Which is most likely to be a factor that increases the probability of speciation by adaptive radiation?
A:
Gene flow between two species increases.
B:
A population moves to a larger habitat with more food.
C:
A population has the opportunity to colonize an island archipelago.
D:
Genetic drift in a population decreases.

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ID: 1440@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.178Z

Question:
What limitations do you think there are for using the definition of species for scientists working in the field? How might scientists work around these limitations?
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1441@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.183Z

Question:
Explain why genetic variation is a prerequisite for speciation.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1442@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.194Z

Question:
Two amphibian species live in a pond habitat and are not known to interbreed. In a research study, the amphibians are introduced and found capable of producing viable, fertile offspring. What type of reproductive barrier likely keeps the species separate in their natural environment? Explain.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1443@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.205Z

Question:
What is the key difference between allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation?
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1444@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.217Z

Question:
How does adaptive radiation explain the diversification of the Hawaiian honeycreeper?
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1445@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.228Z

Question:
Researchers placed males and females of two fish species together in aquarium tanks. One tank had natural light and the other had a monochromatic orange light. Under normal light, the males of the two species appear quite different. However, under the monochromatic light little difference between the males of the two species can be observed. The researchers recorded the mate choices of the females in each tank. Under normal light the females strongly preferred males of their own species. In monochromatic light, females chose mates indiscriminately. The hybrids that resulted of interspecies reproduction were both viable and fertile. Which best explains the prevalence of different coloration in the males of one species?
A:
A change in genotype of the male reveals itself in male phenotype; natural selection works through reproductive isolation.
B:
A change genotype of the male reveals itself in male phenotype; natural selection works through sexual selection.
C:
A change genotype of the female reveals itself in female phenotype; natural selection works through reproductive isolation.
D:
A change genotype of the female reveals itself in female phenotype; natural selection works through sexual selection.

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ID: 1446@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.240Z

Question:
Researchers placed males and females of two fish species together in aquarium tanks. One tank had natural light and the other had a monochromatic orange light. Under normal light, the males of the two species appear quite different. However, under the monochromatic light little difference between the males of the two species can be observed. The researchers recorded the mate choices of the females in each tank. Under normal light the females strongly preferred males of their own species. In monochromatic light, females chose mates indiscriminately. The hybrids that resulted of interspecies reproduction were both viable and fertile. Based on the data, which description of genetic and phenotypic variation in the fish populations is most likely true?
A:
Since the species can still interbreed with the prezygotic barrier is removed in the lab, the genetic divergence between the two populations is likely to be small.
B:
Since the species cannot interbreed when the prezygotic barrier is removed in the lab, the genetic divergence between the two populations is likely to be great.
C:
Since the species can still interbreed when the prezygotic barrier is removed in the lab, there is no genetic divergence between the two populations.
D:
Since the species cannot interbreed when the prezygotic barrier is removed in the lab, there is slight, but significant, genetic divergence between the two populations.

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ID: 1447@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.251Z

Question:
Researchers placed males and females of two fish species together in aquarium tanks. One tank had natural light and the other had a monochromatic orange light. Under normal light, the males of the two species appear quite different. However, under the monochromatic light little difference between the males of the two species can be observed. The researchers recorded the mate choices of the females in each tank. Under normal light the females strongly preferred males of their own species. In monochromatic light, females chose mates indiscriminately. The hybrids that resulted of interspecies reproduction were both viable and fertile. Given the data, which set of predictions makes the most sense?
A:
Speciation in nature occurred quite a while ago; if the pattern continues, stability will be maintained.
B:
Speciation in nature occurred quite a while ago; if the pattern continues, fusion will occur.
C:
Speciation in nature occurred relatively recently; if the pattern continues, speciation will be reinforced.
D:
Speciation in nature occurred relatively recently; if the pattern continues, stability will be maintained.

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ID: 1448@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.262Z

Question:
In allopatric populations of two species of bird, males of the two species look very much alike. In sympatric populations of the same two species of bird, males of the two species look very different. Which describes the best plan for collecting data that would provide evidence for reproduction barriers between different species in the populations?
A:
Observe how frequently matings occur in both allopatric and sympatric populations.
B:
Observe whether females make different choices about males from sympatric populations than they do about males from allopatric populations.
C:
Observe whether allopatric females choose allopatric males and whether sympatric females choose sympatric males.
D:
Observe whether there appears to be a hybrid zone between allopatric and sympatric populations.

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ID: 1449@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.279Z

Question:
In allopatric populations of two species of bird, males of the two species look very much alike. In sympatric populations of the same two species of bird, males of the two species look very different. If the observation is made that females choose sympatric males of their own species and allopatric males indiscriminately, what does this suggest?
A:
Reproductive barriers are stronger in allopatric populations.
B:
Reproductive barriers are not weaker or stronger in either set of populations.
C:
Reproductive barriers are stronger in sympatric populations.
D:
Reproductive barriers are weaker in sympatric populations.

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ID: 1450@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.284Z

Question:
Which is the best definition of a hybrid zone?
A:
an area where two closely related species interact and eventually fuse together
B:
an area where two closely related species interact with intense conflict
C:
an area where two closely related species interact with great stability
D:
an area where two closely related species interact and reproduce

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ID: 1451@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.300Z

Question:
The fact of hybrid zones suggests which of the following?
A:
Speciation is not an exact division.
B:
Speciation is never really complete.
C:
Speciation can be reversed at any time.
D:
Speciation is not a useful concept.

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ID: 1452@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.306Z

Question:
Of the following, what is the primary factor influencing the rate of speciation?
A:
environmental conditions
B:
population size
C:
organism type
D:
mutation rate

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ID: 1453@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.320Z

Question:
Which component of speciation would be more likely to be a part of gradual speciation than punctuated equilibrium?
A:
a high mutation rate
B:
a stark division in populations
C:
a quick change in environmental conditions
D:
a long-standing hybrid zone

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ID: 1454@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.340Z

Question:
Describe a situation where hybrid reproduction would cause two species to continue divergence.
A:
f two closely related species continue to produce hybrids, the hybrids will compete with both species, causing them to find new niches which will further their divergence
B:
If two closely related species continue to produce hybrids, they will develop reproductive barriers to prevent production of hybrids, to ensure that they remain separate species.
C:
If two closely related species continue to produce hybrids that are less fit than the parent species, there would be reinforcement of divergence.
D:
f two closely related species continue to produce hybrids they will always converge into a single species

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ID: 1455@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.345Z

Question:
What do the names of the rate of speciation models tell you about the processes they represent?
A:
he name “gradual speciation” indicates that traits change incrementally, or gradually, over time. The name “punctuated equilibrium” indicates that there is quick divergence from the parent species and then a long period of balance or stasis
B:
The name “gradual speciation” indicates that organisms that compete with each other make gains very slowly. The name “punctuated equilibrium” indicates that competing organisms are trapped in equilibrium with each other and neither can make any gains over the other
C:
The name “gradual speciation” indicates that speciation occurs too slowly to observe except through the fossil record. The name “punctuated equilibrium” indicates that speciation involves many discrete changes that can be easily observed
D:
The name “gradual speciation” indicates that over time all existing species will evolve and diverge to form new species. The name “punctuated equilibrium” indicates that many species tend to diverge into new species at the same time, followed by periods of stability

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ID: 1456@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.356Z

Question:
Consider two species of birds that diverged while separated geographically but resumed their contact before reproductive isolation was complete. Which describes the first step in what would happen over time if the two species mated extensively and their hybrid offspring survived and reproduced more poorly than offspring from intra-species matings?
A:
Natural selection would cause prezygotic barriers to reproduction between the parent species to strengthen over time.
B:
The production of unfit hybrids would increase and the speciation process would complete.
C:
The extensive mating between the species would continue to produce large numbers of hybrids.
D:
The gene pools of the parent species would fuse over time, reversing the speciation process.

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ID: 1457@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.367Z

Question:

Which of the following terms are incorrectly matched with their description?

  1. Convergent evolution is a process by which groups of organisms evolve in diverse directions from a common point.
  2. Divergent evolution is a process by which groups of organisms independently evolve to similar forms.
  3. Homologous structures are parallel structures in diverse organisms that have a common ancestor.
  4. Vestigial structures are physical structures present in organisms that have no apparent function and appear to be from a functional structure in a distant ancestor.
A:
1 and 2
B:
1 and 3
C:
1 and 4
D:
2 and 3
E:
2 and 4
F:
3 and 4

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ID: 1458@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.539Z

Question:

Classify each of the following examples as convergent or divergent evolution.

  1. Wings have evolved in a number of species including insects and bats.
  2. Bones in the appendages of a human, dog, bird, and whales have similar structures.
  3. Different species of Darwin’s finches have similar beak structures with some variations.
A:
divergent, divergent, convergent
B:
divergent, convergent, convergent
C:
convergent, divergent, divergent
D:
convergent, convergent, divergent

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ID: 1459@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.582Z

Question:

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a disease causing bacteria that has become resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillin and methicillin. Which of the following explanations explains this antibiotic resistance?

  1. When the Staph bacteria encounter antibiotics they gain a resistance to them, and this resistance is inherited.
  2. “Survival of the fittest” selected for those Staph bacteria that were most fit, and when these bacteria encounter antibiotics they were already resistant to them.
  3. Natural genetic variation within the Staph bacterial population meant that some bacteria were resistant to these antibiotics, and these bacteria survived antibiotic exposure, and this resistance was inherited.
A:
1
B:
2
C:
3
D:
1 and 2
E:
2 and 3

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ID: 1460@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.594Z

Question:

Which of the following terms are incorrectly matched with their description?

  1. Allopatric speciation is speciation that occurs in the same geographic space.
  2. Adaptive radiation is speciation when one species radiates out to form several other species.
  3. Vicariance is speciation that occurs when something in the environment separates organisms of the same species into separate groups.
A:
1
B:
2
C:
3
D:
1 and 2
E:
2 and 3

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ID: 1461@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.607Z

Question:

Madagascar, a large island in the Indian Ocean, is home to a variety of plant and animal species that are found nowhere else in the world. 170 million years ago, Madagascar was located in the middle of the supercontinent Gondwana. Due to continental drift, Madagascar eventually split from this landmass, and has been an island for the past 88 million years. Some of the species present in Madagascar were present on the landmass when it was apart of the supercontinent. Which of the following descriptions can be applied to the speciation of these species in Madagascar?

  1. Allopatric speciation
  2. Sympatric speciation
  3. Dispersal
  4. Vicariance
A:
1 and 3
B:
1 and 4
C:
2 and 3
D:
2 and 4

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ID: 1462@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.619Z

Question:

The apple maggot is a pest of hawthorn plants and apple trees. Before the introduction of apple trees 200 years ago, apple maggot flies laid their eggs only on hawthorns. After the introduction of apple trees, these flies started to lay eggs in apples or hawthorns. These flies tend to live and reproduce in the type of plants they were born in. Therefore, hawthorn flies tend to mate with other hawthorn flies and apple flies tend to mate with other apple flies. Some genetic differences are currently found between these two groups of flies. If these flies become different species in the future, this will be an example of what?

  1. Adaptive radiation
  2. Sympatric speciation
  3. Reproductive isolation
  4. Aneuploidy
A:
1 and 3
B:
1 and 4
C:
2 and 3
D:
2 and 4

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ID: 1463@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.631Z

Question:
alt text Examples 1 and 2 in the illustration show two different model of speciation. How is each type of speciation classified?
A:
Example 1 is reinforcement speciation; Example 2 is fusion speciation
B:
Example 1 is fusion speciation; Example 2 is punctuated equilibrium speciation
C:
Example 1 is punctuated equilibrium speciation; Example 2 is gradual speciation
D:
Example 1 is gradual speciation; Example 2 is punctuated equilibrium speciation.

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ID: 1464@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.648Z

Question:

Which of the following statements about changes in hybrid zones are incorrect?

  1. Reinforcement of speciation occurs if hybrids are more fit than the parents.
  2. Fusion of two species occurs if hybrids are as fit or more fit than the parents.
  3. Stability of two species occurs if the species remain separate, but also continue to interact to produce some fit hybrid individuals.
A:
1
B:
2
C:
3
D:
1 and 2
E:
2 and 3

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ID: 1465@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.655Z

Question:
What did Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace independently describe?
A:
actual mechanism for evolution
B:
capacity for reproduction in organisms
C:
beak shapes of different finch species
D:
generational competition for resources

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ID: 1466@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.667Z

Question:
Which statement about prezygotic barriers is false?
A:
They include reduced hybrid fertility.
B:
They include temporal isolation of species.
C:
They include habitat isolation of species.
D:
They include barriers that prevent fertilization.

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ID: 1467@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.679Z

Question:
Which statement about sympatric speciation is false?
A:
Sympatric speciation takes place when a new species forms within a parent species remaining in one location.
B:
Sympatric speciation can take place under the pressure of competition for food sources.
C:
Sympatric speciation is as common as allopatric speciation.
D:
Sympatric speciation results in reproductive incompatibility between the parent species and new species.

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ID: 1468@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.691Z

Question:
A mule is the offspring of a male donkey and a female horse. Horses and donkeys are different species, with different numbers of chromosomes. Mules have 63 chromosomes, a mixture of the horse’s 64 and the donkey’s 62, which results in most mules being infertile. Which of the following applies to these species?
A:
No hybridization occurs as horses and donkeys are different species.
B:
Fusion between horses and donkeys is likely to occur.
C:
Hybrid speciation is likely to occur, with mules becoming a separate species.
D:
Reinforcement is likely to occur in horse and donkeys.

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ID: 1469@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.707Z

Question:
Population genetics is the study of what?
A:
How selective forces change the allele frequencies in a population over time.
B:
The genetic basis of genetic traits within individuals.
C:
Whether traits have a genetic basis.
D:
The degree of inbreeding in a population.

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ID: 1470@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.718Z

Question:
In plants, violet flower color (V) is dominant over white (v). If $p = 0.8$ and $q = 0.2$ in a population of $500$ plants, how many individuals would you expect to be homozygous dominant (VV), heterozygous (Vv), and homozygous recessive (vv)? How many plants would you expect to have violet flowers, and how many would have white flowers?
A:
homozygous dominant: 320 heterozygous: 160 homozygous recessive: 20 violet: 480 white: 20
B:
homozygous dominant: 320 heterozygous: 80 homozygous recessive: 20 violet: 400 white: 20
C:
homozygous dominant: 400 heterozygous: 0 homozygous recessive: 100 violet: 400 white: 100
D:
homozygous dominant: 480 heterozygous: 0 homozygous recessive: 20 violet: 480 white: 20

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ID: 1471@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.730Z

Question:
What would violate the conditions of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A:
random mating
B:
mutations
C:
large population
D:
no natural selection

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ID: 1472@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.742Z

Question:
What is the ultimate source of all variation in and among populations?
A:
genetic mutations that result in viable offspring
B:
natural selection
C:
diverse habitats
D:
factors in the environment that may affect development

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ID: 1473@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.753Z

Question:
When male lions reach sexual maturity, they are thrown out of their group, or pride, and must live on their own or with other males until they can take over their own pride. This can alter the allele frequencies of the population through which of the following mechanisms?
A:
natural selection
B:
gene flow
C:
random mating
D:
genetic drift

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ID: 1474@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.764Z

Question:
Which of the following populations has violated the conditions of Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
A:
a population with 12 homozygous recessive individuals (y,y), 8 homozygous dominant individuals (Y,Y), and 4 heterozygous individuals (Yy)
B:
a population in which the allele frequencies do not change over time
C:
a population in which the Hardy-Weinberg equation is equal to 1
D:
a population undergoing natural selection

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ID: 1475@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.775Z

Question:
What is the difference between micro and macroevolution?
A:
Microevolution describes the evolution of small organisms, such as insects, while macroevolution describes the evolution of large organisms, like people and elephants.
B:
Microevolution describes the evolution of microscopic entities, such as molecules and proteins, while macroevolution describes the evolution of whole organisms.
C:
Microevolution describes the evolution of organisms in populations, while macroevolution describes the evolution of species over long periods of time.
D:
Microevolution describes the evolution of organisms over their lifetimes, while macroevolution describes the evolution of organisms over multiple generations.

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ID: 1476@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.781Z

Question:
Describe natural selection and give an example of natural selection at work in a population.
A:
The process in which genes flow from one population to another. The beak size of Darwin’s finches changing as the availability of different-sized seeds changes.
B:
The process in which genes flow from one population to another. The Founder Effect occurring among humans immigrating to a new country.
C:
The process in which better-adapted organisms are able to survive and reproduce; The beak size of Darwin’s finches changing as the availability of different-sized seeds changes.
D:
The process in which better-adapted organisms are able to survive and reproduce; The Founder Effect occurring amonghumans immigrating to a new country.

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ID: 1477@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.792Z

Question:
Imagine you are trying to test whether a population of flowers is undergoing evolution. You suspect there is selection pressure on the color of the flower: bees seem to cluster around the red flowers more often than the blue flowers. In a separate experiment, you discover blue flower color is dominant to red flower color. In a field, you count 600 blue flowers and 200 red flowers. What would you expect the genetic structure of the flowers to be?
A:
You would expect 300 homozygous blue flowers, 300 heterozygous blue flowers, and 200 red flowers.
B:
You would expect 200 homozygous blue flowers, 400 heterozygous blue flowers, and 200 red flowers.
C:
You would expect 100 homozygous red flowers, 100 heterozygous red flowers, and 600 blue flowers.
D:
You would expect 14 homozygous red flowers, 186 heterozygous red flowers, and 600 blue flowers.

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ID: 1478@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.803Z

Question:

A scientist is studying the genetics of a population of plants that she suspects is undergoing natural selection. After examining samples of the population’s DNA over several years, she finds the following data:

Year Allele A Frequency Allele B Frequency
1 0.80 0.2
2 0.72 0.28
3 0.66 0.34
4 0.52 0.48
5 0.45 0.55
6 0.39 0.61

Does this provide evidence of natural selection in this population? Why or why not?

A:
No, because the genotype frequencies, not allele frequencies, have to change for evolution to occur.
B:
No, because the allele frequencies are changing randomly, suggesting that genetic drift is occurring, not natural selection.
C:
Yes, because it shows that the previously favorable or neutral allele A is now being selected against in favor of allele B.
D:
Yes, because it is showing that the frequency of both alleles are changing over time.

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ID: 1479@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.814Z

Question:

A scientist is studying two populations of deer that are centralized in nearby forests. She takes blood samples from all of the deer in each population and records in how many individuals she finds allele A. She then computes the frequency of the alleles in each population. The frequencies observed over five years are shown in the tables below.

alt text Which forms of evolution are most likely occurring in populations A and B? Explain your answer.

A:
In population A, genetic drift is likely occurring, causing allele A to become more prevalent than allele B. In population B, mutation apparently occurred, introducing allele A to population B. Allele A also appears to be increasing due to genetic drift in population B.
B:
In population A, natural selection is likely occurring, with allele A being favored over allele B. In population B, gene flow apparently occurred, allowing allele A to become established in population B. Allele A also appears to be favored by selection in population B.
C:
In population A, gene flow apparently occurred, allowing allele B to become established in population A. Allele A also appears to be favored by selection in population A. In population B genetic drift is likely occurring, causing allele A to become more prevalent than allele B.
D:
In population A, mutation apparently occurred, introducing allele B to population A. Allele A also appears to be increasing due to genetic drift in population A. In population B natural selection is likely occurring, with allele A being favored over allele B.

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ID: 1480@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.826Z

Question:

A land manager mows a section of annual grass. Over the years, he recorded the date of flowering from the mown field as well as a similar grass field that was not mown. What is the most likely explanation for this trend?

Year Mowed field flowering date Unmowed field flowering date
2010 7/29 7/28
2011 7/20 7/26
2012 7/13 8/1
2013 7/8 7/29
2014 7/1 8/2
2015 6/29 7/26
A:
The grass population is adapting to the mowing, so it can flower for longer before being mowed.
B:
Mowing stabilizes the flowering time, which follows a steady trend in the mowed field but not in the unmowed field.
C:
The mowing is preventing the grass from reproducing, causing the mowed field to adapt by flowering earlier.
D:
The grass typically flowers earlier and earlier every year as it becomes older with each passing year.

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ID: 1481@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.844Z

Question:
A scientist observed two populations of insects for 10 years. They took data on the length, in mm, of the insect’s mouthparts. Their data is shown in the graphs below: How is this population evolving and what agent of evolution is most likely at work?
A:
Inbreeding, because the gene distributions are becoming less similar among the population.
B:
Genetic drift, as the distribution of traits has become more random.
C:
Gene flow, as the population has likely gained new mouthpart traits through immigration.
D:
Natural selection, as insects that have mid-sized mouthparts are being favored.

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ID: 1482@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.855Z

Question:
A pond is stocked with 250 fish, all of the same species. At that time, the researchers tested the fish to determine if they were genetically predisposed to a certain disease. The gene tested has two alleles, A and a. They found that 58 of the fish possessed allele A, while the rest of the fish possessed allele a. They plan to reassess the fish 5 years later. A computer model predicts that the population will likely increase to 850 fish and have 403 heterozygote (Aa) individuals. Will the future population have evolved? State how you know.
A:
Evolution has not occurred, because the frequency of the heterozygotes is different 5 years later as in the original population.
B:
Evolution has occurred, because the frequency of the heterozygotes is different 5 years later as in the original population.
C:
Evolution has not occurred, because the frequency of the heterozygotes is the same 5 years later as in the original population.
D:
Evolution has occurred, because the frequency of the heterozygotes is the same 5 years later as in the original population.

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ID: 1483@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.869Z

Question:
Heterozygote advantage is a condition in which heterozygotes are favored by natural selection. How would the value of $2pq$ likely change if the population was undergoing heterozygote advantage?
A:
It would remain in equilibrium because the value of <span data-math="p">p</span> and <span data-math="q">q</span> would remain the same.
B:
It would remain in equilibrium because the value of <span data-math="2pq">2pq</span> would remain the same.
C:
It would not remain in equilibrium because the value of <span data-math="2pq">2pq</span> would likely increase.
D:
It would not remain in equilibrium because the value of <span data-math="2pq">2pq</span> would likely decrease.

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ID: 1484@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.881Z

Question:
Explain naturalist Jean-Baptiste Lamarck’s theory on heritability.
A:
Lamarck theorized that individuals more fit to their environment would me more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on their genes.
B:
Lamarck theorized that traits that parents acquired in their lifetime could be inherited by offspring in an attempt to improve.
C:
Lamarck theorized that traits in offspring were a blend of traits from the two parents.
D:
Lamarck theorized that inbreeding would lead to higher proportions of homozygous recessive genotypes, potentially conferring recessive diseases onto offspring.

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ID: 1485@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.894Z

Question:
Explain why small populations are more vulnerable to the forces of genetic drift than large populations.
A:
The fewer individuals in a population the more room there is for new individuals to migrate into it.
B:
The more individuals in a population the more alleles are present in its gene pool.
C:
The fewer individuals in a population the more likely it is to go extinct.
D:
The more individuals in a population the larger and more stable is its gene pool.

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ID: 1486@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.906Z

Question:
Describe an example of genetic drift.
A:
Immigration of new individuals can cause genetic drift. For example, if several white rabbits migrate into a population of mostly brown rabbits, the allele for white fur will increase within the population.
B:
Introduction of new alleles through mutation can cause genetic drift. For example, if there are two alleles for fur color in a rabbit population, and a mutation in one of them produces a third allele, the gene pool changes to incorporate the new allele.
C:
Chance events such as a natural disasters can cause genetic drift. For example, if the only white rabbits in a population get killed by a storm, the allele for white fur will diminish or disappear in the population.
D:
Differential survival and reproduction can cause genetic drift. For example, if all the white rabbits in a population get eaten by wolves because their white fur stands out and is more visible, the proportion of the allele for white fur in the population will decrease.

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ID: 1487@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.918Z

Question:
Compare and contrast the bottleneck and founder effects.
A:
Both the bottleneck and founder effect are examples of gene flow. However, the bottleneck effect occurs after a cataclysmic event, whereas the founder effect occurs when mutations introduce new alleles into a population.
B:
Both the bottleneck and founder effect are examples of genetic drift. However, the bottleneck effect is a process in which a large portion of a genome is wiped out, whereas the founder effect occurs when members of a larger population migrate to establish their own population.
C:
Both the bottleneck and founder effect change the genetic structure of a population. However, the bottleneck effect reduces or eliminates alleles within a population, whereas the founder effect introduces or increases alleles.
D:
Both the bottleneck and founder effect change the genetic structure of a population. However, the bottleneck effect occurs when inbreeding depression kills off part of a population, whereas the founder effect relies on nonrandom mating.

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ID: 1488@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.932Z

Question:
Which of the following would be supported by Lamarck?
A:
Natural selection leads to changes in organisms over time
B:
The strong arms of a gorilla are the result of its parents constantly climbing, lifting and fighting.
C:
Lack of resources led to the death of three of four fox cubs.
D:
The founder effect is when a few individuals in a population are separated from the original population.

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ID: 1489@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.938Z

Question:
What is population variance influenced by?
A:
genetic structure
B:
environment
C:
diet
D:
A and B

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ID: 1490@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.950Z

Question:
What is genetic variance?
A:
the change in a population’s genetic structure
B:
the effect of chance on a population’s gene pool
C:
the diversity of alleles and genotypes within a population
D:
the magnification of genetic drift as a result of natural events or catastrophes

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ID: 1491@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.967Z

Question:
When closely related individuals mate with each other, or inbreed, the offspring are often not as fit as the offspring of two unrelated individuals. Why?
A:
Inbreeding causes normally silent alleles to be expressed.
B:
The DNA of close relatives reacts negatively in the offspring.
C:
Inbreeding can bring together rare, deleterious mutations that lead to harmful phenotypes
D:
Close relatives are genetically incompatible.

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ID: 1492@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.978Z

Question:
What could cause genetic drift to occur within a population?
A:
accidental deaths
B:
predators
C:
disease
D:
lack of gene flow

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch19 apbio-ch19-s02 apbio-ch19-s02-lo03 apbio-ch19-ex024

ID: 1493@1

2015-08-20T13:03:50.990Z

Question:
What is the evolutionary mechanism that alters allele frequencies by chance called?
A:
genetic drift
B:
natural selection
C:
inbreeding
D:
migration

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch19 apbio-ch19-s02 apbio-ch19-s02-lo03 apbio-ch19-ex025

ID: 1494@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.001Z

Question:
What is assortative mating?
A:
when individuals mate with those who are similar to themselves
B:
when individuals mate with those who are dissimilar to themselves
C:
when individuals mate with those who are most fit in the population
D:
when individuals mate with those who are least fit in the population

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ID: 1495@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.012Z

Question:
What is an example of a cline?
A:
a random fluctuation in a species gene frequencies
B:
a mutation that spreads across the ecological range of a species
C:
the females of a species preferring males that are orange in coloration instead of white
D:
a species having greater cold tolerance in the colder parts of its range than in the warmer parts of its range

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ID: 1496@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.024Z

Question:
Define and identify an example of population variation.
A:
Population variation is a description of the diversity of different forms of life. An example of population variation would be the different forms and functions of prokaryotes versus eukaryotes.
B:
Population variation is the geographic distribution of different phenotypes in a population. An example of population variation would be the fact that warm-blooded mammals that live near the poles tend to be larger than their southern counterparts to conserve heat.
C:
Population variation is the distribution of phenotypes in a population. An example of population variation would be the many different fur colors and patterns found in domestic dogs.
D:
Population variation is the distribution of genotypes in a population. An example of population variation would be Mendel’s pea plants that were homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive for various traits.

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ID: 1497@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.035Z

Question:
People who breed domesticated animals try to avoid inbreeding even though most domesticated animals are indiscriminate. Evaluate why this is a good practice.
A:
A breeder would not allow close relatives to mate because inbreeding increases the likelihood of fatal mutations in offspring.
B:
A breeder would not allow close relatives to mate because inbreeding prevents gene flow which can bring new, successful genes into the population.
C:
A breeder would not allow close relatives to mate because inbreeding causes diversifying selection, which dilutes the breeder’s desired genes in the population.
D:
A breeder would not allow close relatives to mate because inbreeding can bring together deleterious recessive mutations that can cause abnormalities and susceptibility to disease.

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ID: 1498@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.046Z

Question:
Explain the founder effect and identify the best example.
A:
The founder effect is an event that isolates part of a population, generating an allele frequency which is not typical of the original population. An example of the founder effect is the Amish population. The Amish population was established from about 200 German immigrants. Individuals of this founding population carried gene mutations that cause inherited disorders such as Ellis-van Creveld syndrome. This form of dwarfism is found in a large concentration in the Amish population today because the immigrants that established the population had a high concentration of the disorder in a very small population.
B:
The founder effect is an event that kills off a significant proportion of a population, generating an allele frequency which is not typical of the original population. An example of the founder effect is the Northern elephant seal. At one point, hunting of these seals had reduced their numbers to less than 50 individuals. The population has since rebounded, but still contains less genetic variation than the related Southern elephant seal due to the loss of some alleles.
C:
The founder effect is when only a few males within a population are selected by females to reproduce, generating an allele frequency which is different from the original population. An example of the founder effect is the reproductive pattern of mountain gorillas. Mountain gorillas tend to have a single dominant male, the silverback, who gets the vast majority of the matings in the population. This leads to the next generation expressing mainly genes from the silverback and very few genes from the other males, changing the genetic structure of the population.
D:
The founder effect occurs when the selective pressure on a trait varies depending on the alleles expressed within the population, generating varying allele frequencies based on the genetic makeup of the original population. An example of the founder effect is the cyclical dominance of three throat-color patterns in side-blotched lizards.

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ID: 1499@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.058Z

Question:
Explain what a cline is and identify an example.
A:
A cline is a type of geographic variation that is seen in populations of a given species that vary gradually across an ecological gradient. For example, warm-blooded animals tend to have larger bodies in the cooler climates closer to the earth’s poles, allowing them to better conserve heat.
B:
A cline is a change in ecological conditions over a geographic distance. For example, a latitudinal cline is the decrease in temperature towards the Earth’s poles, and an altitudinal cline is the decrease in temperature with increase in altitude.
C:
A cline is the specific set of traits in a population of a given species that have been influenced by the local environment. For example, a population of warm-blooded animals that lived in a cooler climate closer to the North Pole would have larger bodies, allowing them to better conserve heat.
D:
A cline is the specific set of ecological conditions in a geographic region. For example, towards the North Pole it is cold and there is little precipitation. This will influence the traits of the organisms that live there.

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ID: 1500@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.069Z

Question:

The graph below shows the change in gene frequency of the two alleles of a gene: A and a. The population being studies has no emigration or immigration. Which type of evolution is likely occurring here and is the allele selected for, neutral, or selected against by natural selection?

alt text

A:
non-random mating; both alleles are favored
B:
gene flow; allele A is favored
C:
genetic drift; both alleles are neutral
D:
natural selection; allele a is not favored

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ID: 1501@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.075Z

Question:

The graph below shows the change in gene frequency of the two alleles: A and B. These alleles are located on separate genes that do not influence each other in any way. The population being studied has no emigration or immigration. Which type of evolution is likely occurring here (if at all)? Explain how you know.

alt text

A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1502@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.087Z

Question:

The graph below shows the current frequencies of two genotypes of the same gene: AA and aa. What would most likely happen to the frequencies of A and a if heterozygous individuals were favored by natural selection?

alt text

A:
Both AA and aa will drop in frequency by the same amount.
B:
Both AA and aa will drop, but aa will drop more.
C:
AA will increase in frequency and aa will drop in frequency.
D:
aa will increase in frequency and AA will drop in frequency.

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ID: 1503@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.104Z

Question:

The diagram below shows the frequency of alleles on two species of wind-pollinated plants, as well as the prevailing wind direction. These frequencies have been fairly stable for around 10 years. However, climate change has created a new prevailing wind direction, as shown in the diagram. How will the two populations likely evolve in the future?

alt text

A:
Natural selection will cause the frequency of B to increase in population 1.
B:
Gene flow will cause the frequencies of A and B to drop in population 3.
C:
Genetic drift will cause the frequencies of A and C to increase in population 1 and 2.
D:
Inbreeding will reduce the frequency of allele B in population 2 and 3.

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ID: 1504@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.110Z

Question:
What is fitness the measure of?
A:
the frequency of beneficial alleles
B:
the effect of chance on a population’s gene pool
C:
successful reproduction
D:
the abnormalities in a population

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ID: 1505@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.127Z

Question:
Before the Industrial revolution light-colored moths were able to blend in with the environment and better avoid predators. Since the Industrial Revolution, dark-colored moths are better camouflaged than light-colored moths. The number of dark-colored moths has increased to be the most common color. This is an example of what?
A:
directional selection
B:
stabilizing selection
C:
frequency-dependent selection
D:
diversifying selection

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ID: 1506@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.139Z

Question:
Explain the handicap principle.
A:
The peacock’s tail is an example of the handicap principle. Only healthy, well-fed males are able to maintain pristine glossy tails: sick males or males that have been attacked by predators will have dull or missing feathers. This means that a beautiful tail is an indication of good qualities in a mate, and males with perfect tails will be selected by females to mate with more frequently than other males, giving them a reproductive advantage.
B:
The peacock’s tail is an example of the handicap principle. It appears that the tail makes the males more visible to predators and less able to escape, making it a disadvantage to the birds’ survival. However, traits cannot evolve in a population if they serve as a handicap to the individuals that express that trait. Therefore, the tail must actually be an advantage.
C:
The peacock’s tail is an example of the handicap principle. The tail makes the males more visible to predators and less able to escape, so the birds with the longest and most extravagant tails get eaten and do not reproduce. This causes the average tail length for males within the population to decrease over time due to natural selection.
D:
The peacock’s tail is an example of the handicap principle. The tail, which makes the males more visible to predators and less able to escape, is clearly a disadvantage to the birds’ survival. But because it is a disadvantage, only the most fit males should be able to survive with it. Thus, the tail serves as an honest signal of quality to the females of the population; therefore, the male will earn more matings and greater reproductive success.

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ID: 1507@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.150Z

Question:
Which type of selection results in greater genetic variance in a population?
A:
stabilizing selection
B:
directional selection
C:
diversifying selection
D:
positive frequency-dependent selection

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ID: 1508@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.161Z

Question:
What types of phenotypes does negative frequency-dependent selection favor?
A:
advantageous
B:
rare
C:
common
D:
disadvantageous

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ID: 1509@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.174Z

Question:
The good genes hypothesis is a theory that explains what?
A:
why more fit individuals are more likely to have more offspring
B:
why alleles that confer beneficial traits or behaviors are selected for by natural selection
C:
why some deleterious mutations are maintained in the population
D:
why individuals of one sex develop impressive ornament traits

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ID: 1510@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.185Z

Question:
Which of the following describes when males and females of a population look or act differently/
A:
sexual selection
B:
diversifying selection
C:
sexual dimorphism
D:
a cline

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ID: 1511@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.196Z

Question:
The large alpha male elephant seal is constantly fending off the advances of medium sized males. Small males are then able to sneak copulation with females and successfully pass on their genes. What is this an example of? Explain.
A:
This is an example of sexual selection. The females are selecting the small males over the large male.
B:
This is an example of genetic drift. Because there are so many medium-sized males to compete with the large alpha male, the small males are able to mate and cause the gene pool to shift towards smaller individuals.
C:
This is an example of positive frequency-dependent selection, selection that favors phenotypes that are either common or rare. The sneaky males (rare) are favored in this case.
D:
This is an eample of directional selection. Because only the smallest males are mating, the next generation will have a higher proportion of alleles for small size, making the seals smaller over time.

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ID: 1512@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.207Z

Question:
Explain why there is no perfect organism despite natural selection.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1513@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.219Z

Question:

The diagram below shows two populations of organisms that have been long-separated by a river which prevents interbreeding. The two populations differ in coloration, as shown in the diagram. Recent human activity has caused the river to dry, however, resulting in the two populations shown in the lower diagram. What likely occurred that allowed this evolutionary change to occur?

alt text

A:
an increase in gene flow between the two populations
B:
a decrease in gene flow between the two populations
C:
an increase in non-random mating between the two populations
D:
a decrease in non-random mating between the two populations

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ID: 1514@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.230Z

Question:
Antibiotics are medicines that are designed to kill disease-causing organisms, or pathogens. However, some pathogens evolve antibiotic resistance, where they gain traits that allow them to survive in the presence of antibiotics. The ability of bacteria to adapt to antibiotics so quickly has created a huge concern over whether antibiotics are being overused. What form of evolution is antibiotic resistance an example of, and why?
A:
Gene flow because the bacteria are passing on the resistant trait within their populations.
B:
Natural selection, because the bacteria is adapting to a new environmental condition - the presence of the antibiotic.
C:
Genetic drift because medical workers cannot follow the randomly-fluctuating gene frequencies of bacterial populations
D:
Mutation, because each bacteria must mutate to an antibody resistant form in order to survive.

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ID: 1515@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.235Z

Question:
A population of lizards on a coast range from $15\,\text{cm}$ to $21\,\text{cm}$ in length, with the majority of individuals being $18\,\text{cm}$ . On an island off the coast there exists another population of lizards, but all of these lizards are $21\,\text{cm}$ in length. What most likely explains the difference in size between the two populations?
A:
mutation
B:
sexual selection
C:
dominant genes
D:
genetic bottleneck

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ID: 1516@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.247Z

Question:
Which is an example of gene flow?
A:
a wolf remaining in the same pack
B:
a pack of wolves remaining in the same habitat
C:
a wolf leaving its pack to join a separate pack
D:
two packs of wolves remaining on distant islands

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ID: 1517@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.258Z

Question:
One of the original Amish colonies rose from a ship of colonists that came from Europe. The ship’s captain, who had polydactyly, a rare dominant trait in which individuals have 6 fingers and/or toes, was one of the original colonists. Today we see a much higher frequency of polydactyly in the Amish population. This is an example of what?
A:
natural selection
B:
genetic drift
C:
Founder Effect
D:
b and c

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ID: 1518@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.275Z

Question:
What must occur in order for a new trait to appear in a population and then reach a steady, high frequency within that population?
A:
New traits appear through gene mutations or through genetic drift. In order to reach a steady, high frequency in the population, there must be many mutagens, such as UV radiation, in the environment to produce many mutations.
B:
New traits appear through gene mutations or through genetic drift. In order to reach a steady, high frequency in the population, there must be a consistent source of immigrant individuals with the allele.
C:
New traits appear through gene mutations or through evolution. In order to reach a steady, high frequency in the population, the allele must code for a favorable adaptation.
D:
New traits appear through gene mutations or through gene flow. In order to reach a steady, high frequency in the population, the trait associated with the gene must be favored by either natural or sexual selection.

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ID: 1519@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.287Z

Question:
How can evolutionary biologists use Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium while studying populations of organisms that they suspect may be evolving?
A:
Scientists can tell a population is evolving if the allele frequencies change.
B:
Scientists can tell a population is evolving if the genotype frequencies are constant.
C:
Scientists can tell a population is evolving if the frequencies of homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive individuals are not equal.
D:
Scientists can tell a population is evolving if the frequencies of homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive individuals are equal.

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ID: 1520@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.299Z

Question:

A scientist is studying the genetics of a population of plants that she suspects is undergoing natural selection. After examining samples of the population’s DNA over several years, she finds the following data:

Year Allele A Frequency Allele B Frequency
1 0.54 0.20
2 0.48 0.52
3 0.59 0.41
4 0.58 0.42
5 0.55 0.45
6 0.49 0.61

Does this provide evidence of natural selection in this population? Why or why not?

A:
No, because the genotype frequencies, not allele frequencies, have to change for evolution to occur.
B:
No, because the allele frequencies are changing randomly, suggesting that genetic drift is occurring, not natural selection.
C:
Yes, because it shows that the previously favorable or neutral allele A is now being selected against in favor of allele B.
D:
Yes, because it is showing that the frequency of both alleles are changing over time.

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ID: 1521@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.311Z

Question:
A pond is stocked with 250 fish, all of the same species. At that time, the researchers tested the fish to determine if they were genetically predisposed to a certain disease. The gene tested has two alleles, A and a. They found that 58 of the fish possessed allele A, while the rest of the fish possessed allele a. They plan to reassess the fish 5 years later. A computer model predicts that the population will likely increase to 850 fish and have 298 heterozygote (Aa) individuals. Will the future population have evolved? How do you know?
A:
Evolution has not occurred, because the frequency of the heterozygotes is different 5 years later as in the original population.
B:
Evolution has occurred, because the frequency of the heterozygotes is the same 5 years later as in the original population.
C:
Evolution has not occurred, because the frequency of the heterozygotes is the same 5 years later as in the original population.
D:
Evolution has occurred, because the frequency of the heterozygotes is not the same 5 years later as in the original population.

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ID: 1522@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.324Z

Question:
What are polymorphsims?
A:
changes in a species over time
B:
changes in a population over time
C:
variations in phenotype within individuals of a population
D:
traits that improve an organism’s ability to survive

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ID: 1523@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.335Z

Question:
What is population variance?
A:
the distribution of phenotypes in a population
B:
selection that favors average phenotypes
C:
when individuals tend to mate with those who are phenotypically similar to themselves
D:
the flow of alleles in and out of a population

Tags:

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ID: 1524@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.346Z

Question:
What is the result of a population’s phenotypic variation increasing in hereditability?
A:
the less susceptible it is to the evolutionary forces that act on heritable variation
B:
the more susceptible it is to the evolutionary forces that act on heritable variation
C:
the more susceptible it is to natural events
D:
the less susceptible it is to diversifying selection

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ID: 1525@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.357Z

Question:
What is inbreeding depression?
A:
the fraction of population variation that can be attributed to its genetic variance
B:
the increase in abnormalities and disease in inbreeding populations
C:
the phenotypic difference between males and females of a population
D:
the mating of closely related individuals

Tags:

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ID: 1526@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.373Z

Question:
What is the bottleneck effect?
A:
the gradual geographic variation across an ecological gradient
B:
the effect of chance on a population’s gene pool
C:
the magnification of genetic drift as a result of natural events or catastrophes.
D:
a fraction of population variation that can be attributed to its genetic variance

Tags:

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ID: 1527@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.379Z

Question:
How do events such as hurricanes or tornados affect the genetic structure of a population?
A:
These events can increase the amount of space available to a population.
B:
These events can remove a large portion of alleles from a population.
C:
These events can increase a population’s chances of survival.
D:
These events can limit the amount of resources available to a population.

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ID: 1528@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.396Z

Question:
What can nonrandom mating cause?
A:
changes in a population due to the equal chances of mating
B:
changes in a population due to the mating of closely related individuals
C:
changes in a population due to heritability
D:
changes in a population due to mate choice or other forces that cause individuals to mate with certain phenotypes more than others

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ID: 1529@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.414Z

Question:
What does the term “Geographical variation” refer to?
A:
the differences in the phenotypic variation between populations that are separated geographically
B:
the diversity of alleles and genotypes in a population
C:
the distribution of phenotypes in a population
D:
gradual geographic differences across an ecological gradient

Tags:

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ID: 1530@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.420Z

Question:
What are polymorphisms? Explain how they are created, and give an example.
A:
Polymorphisms are variations in phenotype within individuals of a population. These differences are influenced by a population’s genetic structure and environment.
B:
Polymorphisms are variations in genotype within individuals of a population. These differences are influenced by gene flow and genetic mutations.
C:
Polymorphisms are variations in phenotype between individuals of different populations. These differences are influenced by different populations’ genetic structures and environments.
D:
Polymorphisms are variations in genotype between individuals of different populations. These differences are influenced by gene flow and genetic mutations.

Tags:

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ID: 1531@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.431Z

Question:
Explain why acquired traits are not usually heritable traits. Give an example.
A:
A trait is only heritable if it is passed from parent to offspring. Acquired traits, such as giraffe neck length, are not passed from parent to offspring. For example, if a giraffe stretches its neck to reach higher leaves, that does not mean its offspring will have longer necks.
B:
A trait is only heritable if it is present in the original population. Acquired traits, such as a flower color present in a nearby population, are not present in the original population. For example, if a new flower color comes into the population from a nearby population, that color will not be heritable until it has become established within the population.
C:
A trait is only heritable if it is visible in the phenotype of an organism. Acquired traits, such as blood type, are not visible in the phenotype of an organism. For example, if an organism acquires the A antigen on its red blood cells, it does not mean that its offspring will have the A blood antigen.
D:
A trait is only heritable if it is determined by the genetic makeup of an individual. Acquired traits, such as larger muscle mass, are not genetically determined. For example, if a parent is a professional bodybuilder, that does not mean that the offspring of that individual will grow to have the same strength and muscle mass.

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ID: 1532@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.448Z

Question:

Coevolution is the process by which two genes or alleles evolve together, often because the evolution of one allele affects the evolution of the other allele in some way. Based on the graph below , are Allele A and Allele B coevolving? Are they also evolving by another natural selection or genetic drift?

alt text

A:
Allele A and allele B are coevolving and both are affected by non-random mating.
B:
Allele A and allele B are coevolving and both are affected by natural selection.
C:
Allele A and allele B are not coevolving, and Allele B is likely undergoing natural selection.
D:
Allele A and allele B are not coevolving, and Allele B is likely undergoing genetic drift.

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ID: 1533@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.461Z

Question:
What is adaptive evolution?
A:
the distribution of phenotypes in a population
B:
the increase in frequency of beneficial alleles and decrease in deleterious alleles due to natural selection
C:
selection that favors average phenotypes
D:
selection that favors two or more distinct phenotypes

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ID: 1534@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.472Z

Question:
In an area there is a population of mice. The area is sandy with dark stones lying around. Mice with dark fur are able to blend with the stones. Mice with light fur blend with the sand. Any mice that have medium colored fur do not blend with either and are more likely to be eaten. This is an example of what type of selection?
A:
diversifying selection
B:
sexual selection
C:
directional selection
D:
stabilizing selection

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ID: 1535@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.484Z

Question:
What is the presence of antlers on male white-tailed deer, and their absence on females, an example of?
A:
heritability
B:
assortative mating
C:
population variance
D:
sexual dimorphism

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ID: 1536@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.495Z

Question:
Orioles typically lay 3 to 6 eggs per clutch. Large clutches may result in malnourished chicks, while small clutches may result in no viable offspring. This is an example of which of the following?
A:
directional selection
B:
stabilizing selection
C:
diversifying selection
D:
sexual selection

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ID: 1537@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.507Z

Question:

The diagram below shows two populations of organisms that have been long-separated by a river which prevents interbreeding . The two populations differ in coloration, as shown in the diagram. Recent human activity has caused the river to dry, however, resulting in the two populations shown in the lower diagram. Assuming that gene flow between the two populations has been restored, what would likely explain the coloration changes in the two populations?

alt text

A:
Genetic drift may be preventing the spread of the blue coloration to population 2.
B:
Genetic drift may be preventing the spread of the blue coloration to population 1.
C:
Non-random mating may be preventing the spread of the blue coloration to population 2.
D:
Non-random mating may be preventing the spread of the blue coloration to population 1.

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ID: 1538@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.519Z

Question:

Which of the following statements about population evolution is or are incorrect?

  1. allele frequency consists of all of the alleles carried by all of the individuals in the population
  2. microevolution is the broader scale evolutionary changes seen over paleontological time
  3. the founder effect is the event that initiates an allele frequency change in part of the population, which is not typical of the original population
A:
1
B:
2
C:
2 and 3

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ID: 1539@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.530Z

Question:
A gene has two alleles with a frequency of $0.6$ for the B allele, and a frequency of $0.4$ for the b allele. What is the corresponding Hardy-Weinberg equation for genotypic frequency?
A:
<span data-math="\text{BB}_2 + 2\text{Bb} + \text{bb}_2 = 1">\text{BB}_2 + 2\text{Bb} + \text{bb}_2 = 1</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{Bb}_2 + 2\text{BB} + \text{bb}_2 = 1">\text{Bb}_2 + 2\text{BB} + \text{bb}_2 = 1</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{bb}_2 + 2\text{BB} + \text{Bb}_2 = 100">\text{bb}_2 + 2\text{BB} + \text{Bb}_2 = 100</span>

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ID: 1540@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.536Z

Question:
A gene has two alleles with a frequency of .8 for the X allele, and a frequency of .2 for the x allele. What is the genotypic frequency for each of the corresponding genotypes?
A:
XX= 0.04; Xx= 0.32; xx= 0.64
B:
XX= 0.64; Xx= 0.32; xx= 0.04

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ID: 1541@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.547Z

Question:

alt text The population of a species shows changes as illustrated. Two possible future outcomes for the population are also shown. Which of the following can be concluded about this population from the illustration?

  1. Gene flow in this population has changed the allele frequencies in this population.
  2. Natural selection has selected against individuals that are not fit, and selected for individuals that are more fit.
  3. Genetic drift is likely to occur as a result of a bottleneck effect in this population. Genetic structure of the survivors will become the genetic structure of the entire population in outcome 1.
  4. Genetic drift is likely to occur as a result of inbreeding depression in this population. Genetic structure of the survivors will become the genetic structure of the entire population in outcome 2.
A:
1
B:
2

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ID: 1542@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.563Z

Question:

Staph bacterial strains can be classified based on their resistance or susceptibility to antibiotics. Strains unable to resist beta-lactam antibiotics are classified as methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus, or MSSA. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a fairly new strain of the Staph bacteria that carries extra-chromosomal genetic elements containing antibiotic resistance genes. These genes can be transferred between bacteria by horizontal gene transfer. Currently, beta-lactam antibiotics are the primary treatment option for Staph infections. Which of the following conclusions can be made about Staph bacteria?

  1. Gene flow within MSSA and MRSA populations is likely to lead to a change in the gene structure of the MSSA population.
  2. Gene flow within MSSA and MRSA populations is likely to lead to a change in the gene structure of the MRSA population.
  3. Gene structures of the MSSA and MRSA populations are likely to remain stable with both populations maintaining their gene structures.
  4. Selection pressure is likely to change the gene structure in the MRSA population.
A:
1
B:
2

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ID: 1543@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.576Z

Question:

The apple maggot is a pest of hawthorn plants and apple trees. Before the introduction of apple trees 200 years ago, apple maggot flies laid their eggs only on hawthorns. After the introduction of apple trees, these flies started to lay eggs in apples or hawthorns. These flies tend to live and reproduce in the type of plants they were born in. Therefore, hawthorn flies tend to mate with other hawthorn flies and apple flies tend to mate with other apple flies. Which of the following terms is/are applicable to these flies?

  1. Assortative mating
  2. Bottleneck effect
  3. Inbreeding depression
A:
1
B:
2
C:
2 and 3

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ID: 1544@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.587Z

Question:

Which of the following statements about evolution is or are incorrect?

  1. Adaptive evolution is individual’s ability to survive and reproduce relative to the rest of the population.
  2. Evolutionary fitness is an individual’s ability to survive and reproduce.
  3. Sexual dimorphism is the phenotypic difference between the males and females of a population.
A:
1
B:
2
C:
2 and 3

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ID: 1545@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.598Z

Question:

Which of the following statements about adaptive evolution are false?

  1. If natural selection favors an average phenotype, selecting against extreme variation, the population will undergo stabilizing selection.
  2. When the environment changes, populations will often undergo directional selection, which selects for phenotypes at one end of the spectrum of existing variation.
  3. Diversifying selection favors phenotypes that are either common or rare.
  4. Frequency-dependent selection occurs when two or more distinct phenotypes are selected for by natural selection, while the intermediate phenotypes are selected against.
A:
1 and 2
B:
1 and 3
C:
3 and 4

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ID: 1546@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.609Z

Question:

Which of the following is an example, or are examples, of stabilizing selection?

  1. Through artificial breeding, strawberry plants produce larger plants.
  2. In humans, infants with very low and very high birth weight suffer higher mortality.
  3. Hummingbirds are moved to a new habitat with long length flower. Hummingbirds with longer bills are more successful than birds with short and medium-length bills.
A:
1
B:
2
C:
2 and 3

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ID: 1547@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.620Z

Question:
Explain how genetic drift can lead to the elimination of an allele.
A:
A new allele that is introduced to a population by an individual from another population could confer greater fitness than the existing allele, causing individuals with the original allele to reproduce less successfully. Over time, the original allele can be eliminated entirely.
B:
A new allele that is introduced to a population through mutation could confer greater fitness than the existing allele, causing individuals with the original allele to reproduce less successfully. Over time, the original allele can be eliminated entirely.
C:
Chance events such as a premature death or illness could make it impossible for individuals carrying recessive alleles to survive and reproduce. This would remove those alleles from the gene pool.
D:
Mutation within an allele could make it nonfunctional, causing it to lead to the death of any fetuses with that allele. This would remove the allele from the gene pool.

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ID: 1548@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.635Z

Question:
Population variation is not only influenced by genes. Give an example of variation caused by environment factors.
A:
Fish and whales have similar body shapes because of their aquatic environment, despite not sharing a recent common ancestor.
B:
In organisms such as alligators and other reptiles, the gender of the individuals is determined by the temperature at which the eggs are incubated.
C:
In a certain species of moth, black wing color was selected for over speckled wing color because an increase in smoke from coal-burning factories made the environment darker over a very short period of time.
D:
Human skin cells often become cancerous upon exposure to UV radiation from the environment.

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ID: 1549@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.646Z

Question:
In the past, it is thought that wolves used to be attracted to human settlements, where they could scavenge for food remains. At some point, humans may have attempted to feed the wolves. The more docile members of the pack may have accepted this food, and maintained a close association with humans, as the humans offered them food and safety. However, the more ferocious members of the pack would be driven away and would not receive any of these benefits. How would the wolves that were allowed to live with humans evolve and what form of evolution is this an example of?
A:
The wolves living with humans will likely continue to be selected by humans to be more tame and docile. This is an example of natural selection.
B:
The wolves living with humans will likely continue to be selected by humans to be more tame and docile. This is an example of artificial selection.
C:
The wolves living with humans will likely start to be selected by humans to be more ferocious. This is an example of natural selection.
D:
The wolves living with humans will likely start to be selected by humans to be more ferocious. This is an example of artificial selection.

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ID: 1550@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.659Z

Question:
A scientist observed two populations of insects for 10 years. They took data on the length, in mm, of the insect’s mouthparts. Their data is shown in the graphs below: How is this population evolving and what agent of evolution is most likely at work?
A:
Inbreeding, because the gene distributions are becoming less similar among the population.
B:
Genetic drift, as the distribution of traits has become more random.
C:
Gene flow, as the population has likely gained new mouthpart traits through immigration.
D:
Natural selection, as insects that do not have average-sized mouthparts are being favored.

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ID: 1551@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.671Z

Question:
Trout inhabit a pond and are the main food for birds of prey in an area. The trout come in two colors: pink and silver. The pink are the brightest and easiest to see in the winter and are quickly picked off by the birds, allowing the number of silver trout to increase. When summer comes and the sun is out, the scales of the silver trout shine. The birds then begin to target the silver trout allowing the number of pink trout to increase. What type of selection is this? Explain.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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ID: 1552@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.676Z

Question:
Which evolutionary forces can introduce new genetic variation into a population?
A:
natural selectiona and genetic drift
B:
mutation and gene flow
C:
natural selection and nonrandom mating
D:
mutation and genetic drift

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ID: 1553@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.707Z

Question:
What is the main function of the ITOL (Interactive Tree of Life) website?
A:
iTOL is a website that provides the history about the Tree of Life.
B:
iTOL is a website that provides guidelines for researching data to create a phylogenetic tree.
C:
iTOL is an online tool that provides the display and manipulation of pre-computed phylogenetic trees, and you can upload and display your own trees and data.
D:
iTOL is a website that explains the evolutionary relationships among species.

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ID: 1554@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.719Z

Question:
At what levels are cats and dogs considered to be part of the same group?
A:
Cats and dogs first appear in the same group at the Domain level.
B:
Cats and dogs are in the same group beginning at the Domain level and including the sublevels Kingdom, Phylum, Class, and Order.
C:
Cats and dogs are in the same group beginning at the Family level.
D:
Cats and dogs are part of the same group beginning with the Order: Carnivora level.

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ID: 1555@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.730Z

Question:
Using the taxonomic classification system, which Kingdom category best describes a bear?
A:
Plantae: Organisms that get their energy through photosynthesis. Commonly multi-celled.
B:
Animalia: Organisms that get their energy by ingesting other organisms. Commonly multi-celled.
C:
Protoctista: Multi-celled organisms that are not animals, plants, or fungi.
D:
Fungi: Single-celled and multi-celled organisms that get their energy mainly by absorbing nutrients from their surroundings and not through photosynthesis.

Tags:

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ID: 1556@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.741Z

Question:
Who developed the taxonomic classification system?
A:
Carl Linnaeus
B:
Darwin
C:
Plato
D:
Aristotle

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ID: 1557@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.752Z

Question:
Which of the following uses a hierarchial model to classify organisms?
A:
analogy
B:
taxonomic classification system
C:
Order
D:
systematics

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ID: 1558@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.764Z

Question:
Correctly list the hierarchy of taxonomy.
A:
Kingdom, Domain, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, species
B:
Domain, Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, species
C:
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, species
D:
Domain, Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, species

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ID: 1559@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.775Z

Question:
Which of category, below the level of Kingdom, would have the next largest number of organisms?
A:
Order
B:
Phylum
C:
Family
D:
Class

Tags:

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ID: 1560@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.786Z

Question:
How is systematics related to phylogeny?
A:
Systematics provides guidelines that scientists use to describe the relationships of organisms.
B:
Scientists use systematics programs to put together the phylogeny of an organism.
C:
Scientists use combined data based on evolutionary relationships from many sources to put together the phylogeny of an organism.
D:
Systematics is a process used to put together the phylogeny of an organism.

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ID: 1561@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.797Z

Question:
What do scientists in the field of systematics accomplish?
A:
Scientists in the field of systematics organize organisms by characteristics.
B:
Scientists in the field of systematics provide information on how organisms are similar or different.
C:
Scientists in the field of systematics contribute to building, updating, and maintaining the “tree of life.”
D:
Scientists in the field of systematics collect data from fossils.

Tags:

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ID: 1562@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.808Z

Question:
What is the purpose of a phylogenetic tree?
A:
to organize and name organisms into specific categories
B:
The taxonomy is used to organize and name organisms into specific categories.
C:
to show the evolutionary pathways and connections among organisms
D:
to show geographic or behavioral factors

Tags:

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ID: 1563@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.820Z

Question:
What does the term “rooted” mean on a phylogenetic tree diagram?
A:
relationships among species do not show
B:
all organisms represented in the diagram relate to a single ancestral lineage
C:
a single lineage evolved into a distinct new one
D:
A lineage evolved early from the root and remains unbranched.

Tags:

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ID: 1564@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.832Z

Question:
Describe how organisms are classified in the taxonomic classification system.
A:
The taxonomic classification system uses a hierarchical model to organize living organisms. At each sublevel, the organisms are more similar.
B:
The taxonomic classification system uses a hierarchical model to organize living organisms. At each sublevel, the number of organisms increases.
C:
The categories in the taxonomic classification system are organized from smaller, more specific categories to larger categories.
D:
In the hierarchal model for the taxonomic classification system, from the point of origin, the groups become less specific.

Tags:

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ID: 1565@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.846Z

Question:
What is the correct way to format a two-word scientific name?
A:
Italicize both words. Both words are lower case.
B:
Italicize both words. The first word should be capitalized. The second word should be lower case.
C:
Italicize both words. Capitalize both words.
D:
Underline both words. Capitalize both words.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-lo02 apbio-ch20-ex013

ID: 1566@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.858Z

Question:
Some organisms that appear very closely related on a phylogenetic tree may not actually be closely related. Why is this?
A:
There are cases where organisms used to be closely related but diverged from each other and no longer look closely related.
B:
There are cases where organisms can interbreed making them look like a single species, when in fact they are not closely related at all.
C:
There are cases where organisms evolved through convergence and appear closely related but are not.
D:
There are cases when extremely distant taxa can recombine into a single group.

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ID: 1567@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.869Z

Question:
How does a phylogenetic tree relate to the passing of time?
A:
A phylogenetic tree relates to the passing of time because species branch off from each other at regular time intervals.
B:
A phylogenetic tree is not related to the passing of time because speciation is based on geographic changes.
C:
The phylogenetic tree only shows the order in which things took place.
D:
A phylogenetic tree relates to the passing of time when the diagram also shows how long ago the divergence from the common ancestor occurred.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-lo04 apbio-ch20-ex015

ID: 1568@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.880Z

Question:

a) alt text

b) alt text

What evolutionary question is better addressed by the fig-shaped evolutionary tree (a) as opposed to the more typical, single-trunk phylogenetic tree (b)?

A:
What was the single organism from which all other forms of life on Earth arose?
B:
Did animals evolve from fungi?
C:
In which species of eukaryote did chloroplasts first appear?
D:
Were chloroplasts and mitochondria transferred to eukaryotic cells through horizontal gene transfer?

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-aplo-1-14 apbio-ch20-ex016

ID: 1569@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.896Z

Question:
alt text Which question, relating to the endosymbiotic hypothesis and the evolution of eukaryotes, is not answered by the eukaryote-first hypothesis, based on the figures below?
A:
Which evolved first, the nucleus or prokaryotes?
B:
Which evolved first, mitochondria or prokaryotes?
C:
How and when did the nucleus evolve in eukaryotes?
D:
How and when did prokaryotes evolve?

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-aplo-1-14 apbio-ch20-ex017

ID: 1570@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.914Z

Question:
alt text The phylogeny above shows the evolution of traits in vertebrates. Based on this phylogeny, a student asks “Does this mean that lizards, frogs and rabbits all possessed and an egg with amnion at some point in their evolution?” Based on the phylogeny, how should you respond to the student?
A:
Hair is possessed by all three species and the amniotic egg is also possessed by all three species.
B:
“Hair” is only possessed by the rabbit. The amniotic egg is possessed by both the rabbit and lizard, but not frogs.
C:
Hair is only possessed by the rabbit. The amniotic egg is possessed by all three species.
D:
Hair is possessed by all three species and the amniotic egg is possessed by both the lizard and frog, but not the rabbit.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-aplo-1-17 apbio-ch20-ex018

ID: 1571@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.934Z

Question:
alt text The tree above shows the phylogenetic relationships between four species. A scientist wishes to perform a genetic analysis on all four species in which she determines the number of genetic similarities between all four species. What would she likely find regarding the genetic similarities between species A, B, D and E?
A:
Species A and B would share more genetic similarities with each other than with species D and E, and vice versa.
B:
Species A and E would share more genetic similarities with each other than with species B and D, and vice versa.
C:
Species D and A would share more genetic similarities with each other than with species A and B, and vice versa.
D:
Species D and B would share more genetic similarities with each other than with species A and E.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-aplo-1-17 apbio-ch20-ex019

ID: 1572@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.945Z

Question:
James Lake of the UCLA/NASA Astrobiology Institute presented new evidence regarding the evolution of eukaryotic cells. He hypothesized that eukaryotes developed from an endosymbiotic gene fusion between the two other domains of life. What kind of genetic evidence would best support this hypothesis?
A:
Their mitochondrial DNA resembles that of other eukaryotes.
B:
The chloroplasts of eukaryotes contain a double cell layer.
C:
All eukaryotic genes are identical to either Archaea or Bacteria.
D:
Some eukaryotic genes resemble those of Archaea, while some resemble those of Bacteria and some are unlike the genes of either domain.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch20-ex020

ID: 1573@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.956Z

Question:
alt text The following shows a hypothetical model of the evolution of the cell membrane of gram-negative bacteria, which has a double membrane. If this hypothesis is true, what does it suggest about the evolution of mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells and why?
A:
Chloroplasts and mitochondria did not come about through endosymbiosis with gram-negative bacteria because these organelles have a single membrane.
B:
Chloroplasts and mitochondria likely evolved later in eukaryotic cells, as these organelles show no similarities to prokaryotes.
C:
Chloroplasts and mitochondria came about through endosymbiosis with Archaea and gram positive bacteria because these organelles have prokaryote-like DNA.
D:
Chloroplasts and mitochondria came about through endosymbiosis with gram-negative bacteria because these organelles have a double membrane.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-aplo-1-15 apbio-ch20-ex021

ID: 1574@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.969Z

Question:
Eukaryotic mitochondria contain their own DNA, known as mitochondrial DNA, or mtDNA. Nuclear and mitochondrial DNA are thought to be of different (separate) evolutionary origin, with the mitochondrial DNA being derived from the circular chromosomes of bacteria that were engulfed by ancient prokaryotic cells. Does the presence of mitochondrial DNA suggest that organisms share many conserved core processes and features that evolved and are widely distributed among organisms today? Why or why not?
A:
Yes, because it shows the prokaryotes and eukaryotes use similar organelles, namely, mitochondria.
B:
Yes, because it suggests the eukaryotes possess traits that were likely conserved from prokaryotic ancestors.
C:
No, because mitochondrial DNA is very different from the DNA within a eukaryote’s nucleus.
D:
No, because mitochondrial DNA is not used by the eukaryotic cells.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-aplo-1-16 apbio-ch20-ex022

ID: 1575@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.980Z

Question:
Glycolysis, or the breakdown of glucose, is a process used by almost all organisms as a way to release energy stored within glucose molecules. This energy can then be stored in cells as ATP, which powers cell processes when needed. What does this show, in terms of the evolutionary history of cells using glycolysis?
A:
Glycolysis has been conserved despite the independent evolution of the three domains of life.
B:
Prokaryotes would likely not benefit from the Krebs cycle or the ETC.
C:
Prokaryotes likely evolved after eukaryotes.
D:
Glycolysis is the only way in which living things can break down glucose.

Tags:

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ID: 1576@1

2015-08-20T13:03:51.992Z

Question:
What do phylogenetic relationships refer to?
A:
the similarities among organisms
B:
the differences among organisms
C:
the evolution of the shape, size and number of body parts
D:
the relative times in the past that species shared common ancestors

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 interactive apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo01 apbio-ch20-ex024

ID: 1577@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.002Z

Question:
Phylogeny is important to everyday life in human society. How did the research team in China use phylogeny as a guide to discover new plants that can be used to benefit people?
A:
The research team used DNA to uncover phylogenetic relationships in the legume family, and they found a compound in the plant that is effective in treating cancer.
B:
The research team used DNA to uncover phylogenetic relationships in the legume family, and then they identified a newly discovered plant as Dalbergia sissoo.
C:
The research team used DNA to uncover phylogenetic relationships in the legume family, and they found a DNA marker that can be used to screen for plants with potential medicinal properties.
D:
The research team searched all the relatives of the newly discovered plant Dlabergia sissoo to find antifungal properties.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 evolution apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo01 apbio-ch20-ex025

ID: 1578@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.014Z

Question:
Which animals in the preceding figure belong to a clade that includes animals with hair? Which evolved first, hair or the amniotic egg?
A:
Rabbit and Human-Hair evolved before the amniotic egg.
B:
Rabbit-Hair evolved before the amniotic egg.
C:
Rabbit and Human-Amniotic egg evolved before hair.
D:
Lancelet-Hair evolved before the amniotic egg.

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo02 apbio-ch20-ex026

ID: 1579@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.025Z

Question:
What is the largest clade in the preceding diagram?
A:
Animals, Fungi, and Plants
B:
Fungi
C:
Diplomonads
D:
Flagellates

Tags:

apbio visual-connection inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo02 apbio-ch20-ex027

ID: 1580@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.036Z

Question:
Why is it important for scientists to distinguish between homologous and analogous characteristics before building phylogenetic trees?
A:
Phylogenetic trees are based on evolutionary connections, so scientists can use the analogous characteristics to build the phylogenetic trees.
B:
Phylogenetic trees are based on evolutionary connections, so scientists can use the homologous characteristics to build the phylogenetic trees.
C:
Phylogenetic trees are based on similar functions, so scientists can use the homologous characteristics to build the phylogenetic trees.
D:
Phylogenetic trees are based on similar functions, so scientists can use the homologous characteristics to build the phylogenetic trees.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-5 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo01 apbio-ch20-ex029

ID: 1581@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.048Z

Question:
Describe an analogous structure.
A:
A penguin and a dolphin each use fins to navigate through water. Even though the penguin (a bird) is not related to a dolphin (a mammal), they both use fins for the same function.
B:
Lizards and whales have similar skeleton structures, but they have a different habitat and lifestyle.
C:
Birds and butterflies are from different evolutionary origins, but they both use wings to fly.
D:
The bone structure in leg of a cat is very similar to the bone structure in the arm of a human, but the functions of the limbs are very different.

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apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo01 apbio-ch20-ex030

ID: 1582@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.059Z

Question:
Scientists use the cladistics system to organize what?
A:
homologous traits
B:
homoplasies
C:
analogous traits
D:
monophyletic groups

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo02 apbio-ch20-ex031

ID: 1583@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.070Z

Question:
Describe how a clade relates to monophyletic group.
A:
Clades vary in size depending on the number of branches.
B:
All the organisms within a clade stem from a single point on the phylogenetic tree.
C:
A clade shows branches that do not share a single point.
D:
A clade shows groups that diverge at a different branch point.

Tags:

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ID: 1584@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.082Z

Question:
Scientists apply the concept of maximum parsimony to do what?
A:
describe phylogenies accurately
B:
eliminate analogous traits
C:
identify mutations to DNA codes
D:
locate homoplasies

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo03 apbio-ch20-ex033

ID: 1585@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.093Z

Question:
What is the aim of scientists applying the maximum parsimony concept when creating phylogenetic trees?
A:
The scientists spend more time creating the phylogenetic table.
B:
Scientists find the shortest tree with the smallest number of changes.
C:
A complex, detailed phylogenetic tree diagram is created.
D:
The scientists spend more time researching the data for evolutionary connections.

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ID: 1586@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.104Z

Question:
Dolphins and fish have similar body shapes. Is this feature more likely a homologous or analogous trait? Explain your answer.
A:
Analogous-Dolphins are mammals and fish are not, thus their evolutionary paths are quite separate. They have similar body shapes because of their similar environment.
B:
Analogous-Dolphins and fish are both vertebrates, thus they share an evolutionary history, causing them to have similar body shapes.
C:
Homologous-Dolphins and fish are both vertebrates, thus they share an evolutionary history, causing them to have similar body shapes.
D:
Homologous-Dolphins are mammals and fish are not, thus their evolutionary paths are quite separate. They have similar body shapes because of their similar environment.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo01 apbio-ch20-ex035

ID: 1587@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.115Z

Question:
What effect has the advancement of DNA technology had on determining phylogeny?
A:
Morphologic and molecular information often disagree.
B:
Scientists are struggling with molecular systematics.
C:
Information is not reliable because organisms appear to be closely related when they are not.
D:
Computer programs help determine relatedness using DNA sequencing, and morphologic and molecular information is more effective in determining phylogeny.

Tags:

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ID: 1588@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.128Z

Question:
Describe what maximum parsimony is used for in evolutionary biology.
A:
Maximum parsimony hypothesizes that organisms that share the most traits are the most likely to share a common ancestor.
B:
Maximum parsimony hypothesizes that organisms that share a common ancestor are more likely to have many traits in common.
C:
Maximum parsimony hypothesizes that events occurred in the simplest, most obvious way, and the pathway of evolution probably includes the fewest major events that coincide with the evidence at hand.
D:
Maximum parsimony hypothesizes that organisms that display homologous structures are closely related, while organisms that display analogous structures must have diverged much farther in the past.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-lo03 apbio-ch20-ex037

ID: 1589@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.140Z

Question:
The emu in Australia and ostrich in Africa are flightless birds that look similar. One proposed hypothesis was the birds descend from an early common ancestor that spread when the continents were connected. DNA analysis shows that emus and ostriches share more genetic homology with flying birds which live in the same region than with each other. What is the best explanation for these findings?
A:
This is an example of an early shared ancestor.
B:
This is an example of convergent evolution.
C:
This is an example of random DNA homology.
D:
This is an example of divergent evolution.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-aplo-1-12 apbio-ch20-ex038

ID: 1590@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.156Z

Question:
A scientist decides to investigate the evolutionary connection between closely related bacteria. Which gene would be a good choice to use for establishing relatedness, a very well conserved gene or a poorly conserved sequence? Explain your reasoning.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long ap-test-prep apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-aplo-1-12 apbio-ch20-ex039

ID: 1591@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.167Z

Question:
alt text In a hypothetical population of beetles, there is a wide variety of color, matching the range of coloration of the tree trunks on which the beetles hide from predators. The graphs below illustrate four possible changes in the beetle population as a result of a change in the environment due to pollution that darkened the tree trunks. What would be the most likely change in the coloration of the beetle population after pollution and why?
A:
The coloration range shifted toward more light-colored beetles, as in diagram I. The pollution helped the predators find the darkened tree trunks.
B:
The coloration in the population split into two extremes, as in diagram II. Both the light-colored and the dark-colored beetles were able to hide on the darker tree trunks.
C:
The coloration range became narrower, as in diagram III. The predators selected beetles at the color extremes.
D:
The coloration in the population shifted toward more dark-colored beetles, as in diagram IV. The light-colored beetles were found more easily by the predators than were the dark-colored beetles.

Tags:

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ID: 1592@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.178Z

Question:
A population of rodents settles on the shore of an island close to the Arctic Circle. The landscape consists mainly of rocks. If the individuals are too large, they cannot hide in crevices to escape hawks. On the other hand, small bodies do not maintain internal temperature in cold weather. Show diagrammatically the change in the population and explain what selective pressures took place.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-aplo-1-13 apbio-ch20-ex041

ID: 1593@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.189Z

Question:

Five new species of bacteria were discovered in Antarctic ice core samples. The nucleotide (base sequences of rRNA subunits were determined for the new species. The table below shows the number of nucleotide differences between the species.

Species 1 2 3 4 5
1 - 3 19 18 27
2   - 19 18 26
3     - 1 27
4       - 27

Which of the following phylogenetic trees is most consistent with the data?

A:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_0bd89082f8558238f83960c6e40d06c1f39c34fbfdb22ad2ce31112b285b8546.png" alt="alt text">
B:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_5313a6341ffecbbbf1cda9e6b5a5505c8cd1dab9a4d6c368ef590517ca714f25.png" alt="alt text">
C:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_1b64be96895722fde428166266d41dcb91a72b420cedc486c1b098c9f1564a98.png" alt="alt text">
D:
<img src="https://s3-us-west-2.amazonaws.com/openstax-assets/GjvOxyz198x-qa/exercises/attachments/large_dbca157f8ecfb2deb9b690974def91e1a3e5fae07c41feb78c9a22da2d572bb5.png" alt="alt text">

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok3 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 ap-test-prep apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-aplo-1-19 apbio-ch20-ex042

ID: 1594@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.200Z

Question:

Draw the phylogenetic tree for the species below. Identify where on the tree each feature evolved.

  Amniotic Egg Endotherm Feathers Lungs Vertebrae Notochord
Snake Y N N Y Y Y
Ostrich Y Y Y Y Y Y
Shark N N N N Y Y
Frog N N N Y Y Y
Lancelet N N N N N Y
A:
The ostrich branched off first, followed by the snake, then the frog, then the shark and then the lancelet.
B:
The shark branched off first, followed by the lancelet, then the frog, then the ostrich and then the snake.
C:
The lancelet branched off first, followed by the shark, then the frog, then the snake and then the ostrich.
D:
The lancelet branched off first, followed by the shark, then the ostrich, then the snake and then the frog.

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-long dok4 ap-test-prep blooms-5 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-aplo-1-19 apbio-ch20-ex043

ID: 1595@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.212Z

Question:
Barbara McClintock discovered transposons while working on maize genetics. What are the transposons composed of when they are able to shift from one location to another?
A:
segments of RNA
B:
Plasmids
C:
segments of DNA
D:
proteins

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 ap-everyday apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo02 apbio-ch20-ex044

ID: 1596@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.224Z

Question:
What is Horizontal Gene Transder (HGT)?
A:
the proposal that eukaryotes developed a nucleus first, and then their mitochondrion
B:
the transmission of genetic material from one species to another through mechanisms other than from parent to offspring
C:
the fusion of two prokaryotic genomes
D:
the division of kingdom in the taxonomic classification

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo01 apbio-ch20-ex045

ID: 1597@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.235Z

Question:
What is referred to as the transfer of genes by a mechanism that does not involve asexual reproduction?
A:
web of life
B:
meiosis
C:
gene fusion
D:
horizontal gene transfer

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo01 apbio-ch20-ex046

ID: 1598@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.246Z

Question:
Which of the following describes small, virus-like particles that act as a mechanism of gene transfer between prokaryotes?
A:
gene transfer agents
B:
horizontal gene transfer
C:
vertical gene transfer
D:
basal taxon

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo02 apbio-ch20-ex047

ID: 1599@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.257Z

Question:
What does the Eukaryote-first hypothesis suggest?
A:
that mitochondria were first established in a prokaryotic host which acquired a nucleus to become the first eukaryotic cell
B:
that the nucleus evolved in prokaryotes first followed by fusion of the new eukaryote with bacteria that became mitochondria
C:
that prokaryotes actually evolved from eukaryotes by losing genes and complexity
D:
that eukaryotes developed Golgi before mitochondria

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo02 apbio-ch20-ex048

ID: 1600@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.268Z

Question:
What is the ring of life?
A:
a phylogenetic model where all three domains of life evolved from a pool of primitive prokaryotes
B:
an evolutionary history and relationship of an organism or group of organisms
C:
a phylogenetic model that attempts to incorporate the effects of horizontal gene transfer on evolution
D:
a field of organizing and classifying organisms based on evolutionary relationships

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo03 apbio-ch20-ex049

ID: 1601@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.279Z

Question:
Some individual prokaryotes were responsible for transferring the bacteria that caused mitochondrial development to the new eukaryotes, whereas other species transferred the bacteria that gave rise to chloroplasts. This statement best describes which model?
A:
ring of life
B:
tree of life
C:
branches of life
D:
web of life

Tags:

apbio inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo03 apbio-ch20-ex050

ID: 1602@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.290Z

Question:
Explain why the classic tree model needs to be revised.
A:
The model is unable to incorporate DNA evidence.
B:
The model is erroneously based on many analogous traits, which have no basis in evolutionary relationships.
C:
The model cannot be experimentally verified.
D:
The model does not consider the possibility that genes could be transferred between unrelated species.

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ID: 1603@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.301Z

Question:
Compare three different ways that eukaryotic cells may have evolved.
A:
Some hypotheses propose that mitochondria were acquired first. Others propose that the nucleus evolved first. Still others hypothesize that prokaryotes descended from eukaryotes by the loss of genes and complexity.
B:
Some hypotheses propose that eukaryotic cells are a combination of bacterial and archaeal cells. Others propose that eukaryotic cells are a combination of bacterial and fungal cells. Still others hypothesize that eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells developed independently.
C:
Some hypotheses propose that mitochondria developed from bacterial cells. Others propose that they developed from archaeal cells. Still others hypothesize that bacteria developed from mitochondria that had been released from eukaryotic cells.
D:
Some hypotheses propose that eukaryotic cells developed from gram-negative bacteria. Others propose that they developed from gram-positive bacteria. Still others hypothesize that both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria contributed to the eukaryotic genome through horizontal gene transfer.

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ID: 1604@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.311Z

Question:
Explain the ring of life model.
A:
The ring of life model is a phylogenetic model where the three domains of life started as distinct groups that could swap genes horizontally with each other in all directions.
B:
The ring of life model is a phylogenetic model where all three domains of life are said to have developed from a pool of primitive prokaryotes.
C:
The ring of life model is a phylogenetic model where bacterial and archaeal cells fused to form eukaryotic cells.
D:
The ring of life model is a phylogenetic model where there is only a single domain of life due to modern DNA analysis.

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ID: 1605@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.322Z

Question:
alt text In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to the second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria. Plates that have only ampicillin resistant bacteria include which of the following?
A:
I only
B:
III only
C:
IV only
D:
I and II

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ID: 1606@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.333Z

Question:
Two cultures of bacteria are separated by a filter that blocks the movement of cells but allows free exchange of anything smaller than a bacterial cell. On one side of the filter, a sample of penicillin resistant cells in culture broth is added, on the second side of the tube, a culture of penicillin sensitive cells in culture is added. After 24 hours, resistant cells appear on the side with the cells sensitive to penicillin. Which three genetic mechanisms can account for appearance of the penicillin resistant cells?
A:
transformation, transduction, and conjugation
B:
transformation, transduction, and mutation
C:
transformation, conjugation, and mutation
D:
transduction, conjugation, and mutation

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ID: 1607@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.344Z

Question:
alt text The phylogenetic tree shows evolutionary relationships between hypothetic taxa. Which of the illustrated taxa represent a polytomy?
A:
Taxon A
B:
Taxon B
C:
Taxon D
D:
Taxon G

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ID: 1608@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.356Z

Question:
alt text The phylogenetic tree shows evolutionary relationships between hypothetic taxa. Which of the illustrated taxa represent sister taxa?
A:
Taxa A and B
B:
Taxa B and C
C:
Taxa D, E, and F
D:
Taxa F and G
E:
Taxa A and G

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ID: 1609@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.367Z

Question:
alt text The phylogenetic tree shows evolutionary relationships between hypothetic taxa. Which of the illustrated taxa represent a polytomy?
A:
Taxa A, B, and C
B:
Taxa D, E, and F
C:
Taxon G
D:
Taxa A and G

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ID: 1610@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.378Z

Question:

Which of the following statements about evolutionary relationships is false?

  1. Analogous structures share a similar embryonic origin.
  2. A monophyletic group consists of organisms that share a single ancestor.
  3. A shared ancestral character describes a characteristic on a phylogenetic tree that is shared by all organisms on the tree.
  4. A shared derived character describes a characteristic on a phylogenetic tree that is shared only by a certain clade of organisms.
A:
1
B:
2
C:
3
D:
4

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ID: 1611@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.389Z

Question:

alt text The following illustration shows a phylogenetic tree of crocodilians. Which of the following groups of organisms are considered to be clades?

  1. Gavialis
  2. Tomistoma, Osteolaemus, and Crocodylus
  3. Alligator, Paleosuchus, Caiman, Melanosuchus
  4. Tomistoma and Crocodylus
A:
1, 2, and 3
B:
2, 3, and 4
C:
3 and 4
D:
4

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ID: 1612@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.400Z

Question:
alt text Vertebrates share the ancestral character of a vertebrate. Within this group, two of the subgroups consist of amphibians that have the shared derived character of skin structure, and amniotes that have the shared derived character of an amniotic egg. Within the amphibians group, frogs form a clade, and salamanders and caecilians together form a clade. Within the amniotes, mammals form a clade, and reptiles and birds together form a clade. Which of the following phylogenetic trees is consistent with this information?
A:
1
B:
2
C:
3
D:
4

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ID: 1613@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.413Z

Question:

Match the following terms with their descriptions.

  1. Nucleus-first hypothesis
  2. Mitochondria-first hypothesis
  3. Eukaryote-first hypothesis
  • This hypothesis proposes that prokaryotes evolved from eukaryotes by losing genes and complexity.
  • This hypothesis proposes that the nucleus evolved in prokaryotes first, followed by a later fusion of the new eukaryote with bacteria that became mitochondria.
  • This proposes that mitochondria were first established in a prokaryotic host, which subsequently acquired a nucleus to become the first eukaryotic cell.
A:
1, 3, 2
B:
2, 1, 3
C:
2, 3, 1
D:
3, 1, 2
E:
3, 2, 1

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ID: 1614@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.424Z

Question:

alt text The following illustration shows a classical phylogenetic tree illustrating the three domains. How would this image be modified to make it more consistent with the web of life model?

  1. The phylogenetic tree would have multiple trunks.
  2. The phylogenetic tree would have connections between branches where horizontal gene transfer has occurred.
  3. Bacteria and Archae would be classified in one web and Eukaryotes would be classified in another web.
A:
1
B:
2
C:
3
D:
1 and 2
E:
2 and 3

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ID: 1615@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.435Z

Question:
Horizontal gene transfer (HGT), also known as lateral gene transfer, is the transfer of genes between what kind of species?
A:
related
B:
unrelated

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ID: 1616@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.447Z

Question:
How does a taxonomy help scientists study living organisms?
A:
The taxonomy helps scientists because it is primarily based on physical appearances.
B:
The taxonomy helps scientists because it is primarily based on the differences between organisms.
C:
The taxonomy helps scientists by providing several options for naming and organizing organisms.
D:
The taxonomy helps scientists identify organisms and study and keep track of them.

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ID: 1617@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.457Z

Question:
What does the two-word scientific name that scientists use to generally refer to an organism contain information about?
A:
Family and Species
B:
Class and Family
C:
Phylum and Order
D:
Genus and Species

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ID: 1618@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.469Z

Question:
What domain names do scientists use to classify organisms?
A:
Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya
B:
Eukarya, Animalia, and Chordata
C:
Mammalia, Carnivora, Canidae
D:
Genus and Species

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ID: 1619@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.482Z

Question:
Which taxonomic classification levels would contain the most-similar organisms?
A:
Genus
B:
Domain
C:
Class
D:
Species

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ID: 1620@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.493Z

Question:
Why do scientists use systematics to put together the phylogeny of an organism?
A:
Systematics provides data based on evolutionary relationships from many sources.
B:
Scientists use systematics programs to put together the phylogeny of an organism.
C:
Systematics provides guidelines that scientists use to describe the relationships of organisms.
D:
Systematics is a process scientists follow when they put together the phylogeny of an organism.

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ID: 1621@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.504Z

Question:
How is taxonomy related to phylogeny?
A:
Taxonomy is a branch on a phylogenetic tree.
B:
Taxonomy is a science for classifying organisms, and phylogeny describes the evolutionary history and relationship of those organisms.
C:
Phylogeny is a division of the Kingdom category in the taxonomic classification system.
D:
Taxonomy is used to analyze phylogeny tree diagrams.

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ID: 1622@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.516Z

Question:
What is a phylogenetic tree used for?
A:
used to illustrate when different organisms evolved and to show the relationships among different organisms
B:
to organize living organisms into specific categories
C:
used to show how organisms are similar or different
D:
used to classify organisms

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ID: 1623@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.526Z

Question:
On a phylogenetic tree diagram, which term refers to lineages that diverged from the same place?
A:
sister taxa
B:
basal taxa
C:
polytomy
D:
dichotomous key

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ID: 1624@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.537Z

Question:
Why is the taxonomic classification system important for constructing phylogenies?
A:
The taxonomic classification system uses a hierarchical model to organize, name, and classify organisms. The system helps scientists clarify relationships among organisms.
B:
The taxonomic classification system allows scientists to identify early species at the root of the tree of life. The system helps scientists examine the origins of life.
C:
The taxonomic classification system uses vestigial and homologous traits to identify relationships between organisms. The system helps keep scientists from being misled by traits that developed through convergent evolution.
D:
The taxonomic classification system uses analysis of DNA and cellular processes to group organisms based on how highly evolved they are. The system allows scientists to compare organisms at the same levels of evolution.

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ID: 1625@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.548Z

Question:
How do the levels of classification in the Linnaean system show the relationships of organisms?
A:
Organisms that share a category at higher levels (Domain, kingdom) are more closely related.
B:
Organisms that share a category at lower levels (family, genus) are more closely related.
C:
Organisms within the system are more closely related to each other than to organisms outside of the system.
D:
Organisms that share a category at higher levels (Domain, kingdom) are less highly evolved than organisms that share a category at lower levels (family, genus).

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ID: 1626@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.559Z

Question:
How do systematics and taxonomy relate to phylogeny?
A:
Systematics and taxonomy are subsets of phylogeny.
B:
Systematics is a subset of phylogeny, which is a subset of taxonomy.
C:
Systematics and taxonomy are two fields of study that contribute to scientists’ understanding of phylogeny.
D:
Systematics and taxonomy are modern fields of study that have replaced the more outdated field of phylogeny.

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ID: 1627@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.570Z

Question:
Scientists use data from multiple sources to define phylogeny, so why are phylogenetic trees considered hypothetical?
A:
Phylogenetic trees are not well supported by the available evidence.
B:
Phylogenetic trees are based exclusively on theory, not on observations.
C:
Scientists cannot replicate the conditions present when life first developed.
D:
Scientists cannot go back to confirm the proposed evolutionary relationships in phylogenetic trees.

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ID: 1628@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.581Z

Question:

a) alt text

b) alt text

What evolutionary question is better addressed by the ring-shaped phylogenetic tree (a) as opposed to the more typical, single-trunk phylogenetic tree (b)?

A:
What was the single organism from which all other forms of life on Earth arose?
B:
Did animals evolve from fungi?
C:
In which species of eukaryote did chloroplasts first appear?
D:
Did horizontal gene transfer likely influence the evolution of the three domains of life?

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ID: 1629@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.592Z

Question:
alt text The image shows a model of the hypothetical evolution of the cell membrane of gram-negative bacteria, which has a double membrane. What does this hypothesis predict about the genetics of gram-negative bacteria?
A:
Gram-negative bacteria has unique genes, suggesting it should be in its own domain.
B:
Gram-negative bacteria likely has conserved genes from both Archaea and gram-positive bacteria through symbiosis.
C:
Gram-negative bacteria is likely very similar in genetics to a eukaryote.
D:
Gram-negative bacteria likely got all of its genes from an Archaean because genetic material is not mixed during symbiosis.

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ID: 1630@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.603Z

Question:
One justification for phylogenetics is evidence that all species are ultimately related to each other, if you go back far enough in evolutionary history. Identify one feature that humans share with prokaryotes due to common ancestry.
A:
cytoplasm
B:
the nucleus
C:
membrane-bound organelles
D:
rod-shaped chromosomes

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ID: 1631@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.614Z

Question:
What can create an analogous trait?
A:
similar embryonic origin
B:
homologous traits
C:
similar environmental constraints
D:
mutation

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ID: 1632@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.625Z

Question:
Describe a homologous structure.
A:
Two plants are not evolutionary related, but they have adapted to the environment and independently become similar in body form.
B:
Whales, dogs, and humans all have similar bone structures, but the functions of these limbs are different for each of the species.
C:
Bats and insects are from different evolutionary origins, but they both use wings to fly.
D:
The eye of the octopus is very similar in structure to the eye of the human. However, the octopus and the human do not have an evolutionary relationship.

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ID: 1633@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.637Z

Question:
Why do scientists use cladistics?
A:
Scientists use cladistics to compare DNA codes.
B:
Scientists use cladistics to organize homologous information to create a phylogenetic tree.
C:
Scientists use cladistics to merge homologous and analogous data.
D:
Scientists use cladistics to classify organisms to construct internationally shared classification systems.

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ID: 1634@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.648Z

Question:
What is a characteristic that is shared only by a certain clade of organisms on a phylogenetic tree?
A:
homologous
B:
analogy
C:
shared ancestral character
D:
shared dervied character

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ID: 1635@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.659Z

Question:
Describe maximum parsimony.
A:
Maximum parsimony is a concept that uses the largest number of character changes to identify possible relationships.
B:
Maximum parsimony is a concept that tells us to choose the most detailed scientific explanation that fits the evidence.
C:
Maximum parsimony is a concept that means the events occurred in the simplest, most obvious ways.
D:
Maximum parsimony is a concept, that given a set of possible explanations, the most detailed explanation is the most likely to be correct.

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ID: 1636@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.671Z

Question:
How has the advancement of DNA technology made the task of building an accurate tree of life extraordinarily difficult?
A:
The latest techniques employ advanced statistical methods.
B:
DNA provides large quantities of genetic sequences that need to be analyzed.
C:
Analyses sometimes produce slightly different results.
D:
DNA coding can vary.

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ID: 1637@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.683Z

Question:
Why do scientists identify homologous and analogous structures before building phylogenetic trees?
A:
Homologous traits provide evolutionary history, but analogous traits do not.
B:
Phylogenetic trees can only be constructed on the basis of homologous and analogous structures.
C:
Analogous traits imply a more recent common ancestor; homologous traits imply a more distant one.
D:
Homologous traits support the traditional tree of life model, while analogous traits support the newer web of life model.

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ID: 1638@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.796Z

Question:
If a clade represents a single branch on a phylogenetic tree, how can clades be identified by starting at any point and from that point tracing all the descent lineages?
A:
Clades are identified as separate branches that originate at the same point and radiate outward from each other.
B:
Clades are nested, one in another, as each branch in turn splits into smaller branches.
C:
Clades are sets of sister taxa along a branch.
D:
Clades are the taxonomic groupings that apply to the descent lineages from a single point.

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ID: 1639@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.817Z

Question:
Based on the maximum parsimony concept, which hypothesis would most likely be correct? Hypothesis One requires four evolutionary changes. Hypothesis Two requires five evolutionary changes? Explain why.
A:
hypothesis 1 because it has an even number of steps
B:
hypothesis 2 because it has an odd number of steps
C:
hypothesis 1 because it requires the smallest number of steps
D:
hypothesis 2 because it incorporates the largest number of steps

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ID: 1640@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.830Z

Question:
The water lotus (Nelumbo) and the water lilies (Nymphaeaceae) share a similar appearance because they thrive on calm waters. How could a scientist best show that these species are distantly related and evolved their similarities through convergent evolution?
A:
Determine if the two plants have different above-water versus underwater structures.
B:
Determine if the reproductive parts of the flowers are differently shaped.
C:
Compare the DNA sequences of water lilies and water lotus.
D:
Compare the morphology of the pollen grains between the two species.

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ID: 1641@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.843Z

Question:

The fossil of a long bone is discovered in a sediment. The shape of the bone is similar to the shape of a tibia in modern horses. The results from DNA analysis show the following percentage similarity of conserved regions of the cytochrome c oxidase gene.

: Organism : Percent homology of DNA sequence with DNA extracted from the bone :
Camel 87%
Donkey 97%
Horse 95%
Zebra 98%

From this information, which is the closest living relative of the fossil?

A:
camel
B:
donkey
C:
horse
D:
zebra

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ID: 1642@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.855Z

Question:
In a bacterium A, the active site sequence of an enzyme has the following amino acid sequence: methionine-valine-threonine-cysteine-cysteine-glycine-alanine-histidine. The amino acid sequence of four other species is analyzed. Which of these bacteria is probably LEAST related to bacterium A?
A:
methionine-alanine-threonine-cysteine-cysteine-glutamate-alanine-proline
B:
methionine-valine-serine-cysteine-cysteine-glycine-alanine-proline
C:
methionine-alanine-threonine-cysteine-cysteine-glycine-alanine-histidine
D:
methionine-alanine-threonine-cysteine-tryptophan-glutamine-alanine-serine

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apbio time-medium dok2 ost-chapter-review review display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s02 apbio-ch20-s02-aplo-1-19 apbio-ch20-ot036

ID: 1643@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.866Z

Question:
Who developed the first phylogenetic tree?
A:
Barbara McClintock
B:
Charles Darwin
C:
Jean Baptiste Lamarck
D:
Louis Pasteur

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo01 apbio-ch20-ot037

ID: 1644@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.878Z

Question:
Many scientists believe horizontal gene transfer (HGT) is a significant source of genetic variation. Why?
A:
because of the introduction of genetic material that causes abnormalities and disease
B:
because of the transmission of genetic material through asexual and sexual reproduction
C:
because of the transmission of genetic material between similar, closely related species
D:
because of the transmission of genetic material between unrelated species

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apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo01 apbio-ch20-ot038

ID: 1645@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.890Z

Question:
Which is a mechanism through which prokaryotes undergo horizontal gene transfer?
A:
jumping genes
B:
parasites
C:
gene transfer agents
D:
food organisms

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo02 apbio-ch20-ot039

ID: 1646@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.903Z

Question:
A fungal species feeding on yew trees, from which the anti-cancer drug Taxol® (Paclitaxel) is derived from the bark, have acquired the ability to make Taxol themselves. Through what is this an example of gene transfer?
A:
gene transfer agents
B:
transduction
C:
conjugation
D:
transposons

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apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo02 apbio-ch20-ot040

ID: 1647@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.915Z

Question:
What does the trunk of the classic phylogenetic tree represent?
A:
single common ancestor
B:
pool of ancestral organisms
C:
new species
D:
old species

Tags:

apbio ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo02 apbio-ch20-ot041

ID: 1648@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.927Z

Question:
Since Darwin’s model, new phylogenetic models have been proposed. Which phylogenetic model attempts to incorporate horizontal gene transfer?
A:
ring of life
B:
web of life
C:
tree of life
D:
branches of life

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apbio dok2 ost-chapter-review review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo03 apbio-ch20-ot042

ID: 1649@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.938Z

Question:
Explain what horizontal gene transfer (HGT) is and its importance in genetic variation.
A:
Free response only
B:
Free response only

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo01 apbio-ch20-ot043

ID: 1650@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.950Z

Question:
Describe how aphids acquired the ability to change color.
A:
Aphids are unable to make carotenoids on their own, but the fungus they eat contains carotenoids that they then process and incorporate into their own bodies.
B:
Aphids have acquired the ability to make carotenoids due to natural selection which favors red aphids over green ones.
C:
Aphids are unable to make carotenoids on their own, but a harmless fungus living in their body produces the carotenoids that help them change color.
D:
Aphids have acquired the ability to make carotenoids due to the transfer of fungal genes into the insect by HGT, presumably as the insect consumed fungi for food.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo02 apbio-ch20-ot044

ID: 1651@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.961Z

Question:
Explain the web of life model and how it differs from other models.
A:
The web of life model proposes that eukaryotes evolved from a pool of many species that were sharing genes by horizontal gene transfer mechanisms. It proposes that some prokaryotes transferred the bacteria that caused mitochondrial development, whereas other species transferred the bacteria that gave rise to chloroplasts. This model incorporates horizontal gene transfer, unlike the classic tree of life model that credits genetic variation only to mutation and vertical gene transfer.
B:
The web of life model proposes that the three domains of life evolved from a pool of many species that were sharing genes by horizontal gene transfer mechanisms. It proposes that gram-negative bacteria were formed through endosymbiosis between an archaeal species and a gram-positive bacterial species. This model incorporates horizontal gene transfer, unlike the classic tree of life model that credits genetic variation only to mutation and vertical gene transfer.
C:
The web of life model proposes that eukaryotes developed from the genome fusion between a bacterial species and an archaeal species. It incorporates modern evidence that indicates that some eukaryotic genes resemble archaeal genes while others resemble bacterial genes. This model incorporates genome fusion, unlike the classic tree of life model that credits genetic variation only to mutation and vertical gene transfer.
D:
The web of life model proposes that both prokaryotes and eukaryotes evolved from a pool of viruses that shared genes through horizontal gene transfer mechanisms. It proposes that gram-negative bacteria developed later due to endosymbiosis between an archaeal species and a gram-positive bacterial species. This model incorporates horizontal gene transfer, unlike the classic tree of life model that credits genetic variation only to mutation and vertical gene transfer.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo03 apbio-ch20-ot045

ID: 1652@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.972Z

Question:
The phylogeny below shows the evolution of traits in vertebrates. Based on this phylogeny, a student asks “Does this mean that fish, frogs and lizards all possess a hinged jaw and amniotic eggs at some point in their evolution?” Based on the phylogeny, how should you respond to the student?
A:
Fish, frogs and lizards do all possess a hinged jaw, however, only the fish possess the amniotic egg.
B:
Only frogs and lizards possess a hinged jaw, however, fish, frogs and lizards all do possess an amniotic egg.
C:
Only fish and lizards possess a hinged jaw and only the lizard possesses an amniotic egg.
D:
Fish, frogs and lizards do all possess a hinged jaw, however, only the lizard possesses an amniotic egg.

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apbio dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review ap-test-prep blooms-5 tutor-only apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s01 apbio-ch20-s01-aplo-1-17 apbio-ch20-ot046

ID: 1653@1

2015-08-20T13:03:52.993Z

Question:
In what organism is horizontal gene transfer (HGT) more prevalent than in eukaryotes?
A:
unrelated, bacteria, genome fusion agents, gene transfer
B:
unrelated, bacteria, genome fusion agents, gene transfer
C:
related, prokaryotes, genome fusion, gene transfer agents

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo01 apbio-ch20-ot047

ID: 1654@1

2015-08-20T13:03:53.004Z

Question:
What are the small, virus-like particles that transfer random genomic segments from one species of prokaryote to another?
A:
unrelated, bacteria, genome fusion agents, gene transfer
B:
unrelated, bacteria, genome fusion agents, gene transfer
C:
gene transfer agents
D:
related, prokaryotes, genome fusion, gene transfer agents

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo01 apbio-ch20-ot048

ID: 1655@1

2015-08-20T13:03:53.016Z

Question:
Through what do scientists believe the ultimate in horizontal gene transfer (HGT) occurs between different species of prokaryotes when two symbiotic organisms become endosymbiotic?
A:
unrelated, bacteria, genome fusion agents, gene transfer
B:
unrelated, bacteria, genome fusion agents, gene transfer
C:
related, prokaryotes, genome fusion, gene transfer agents

Tags:

apbio display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review review dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 apbio-ch20 apbio-ch20-s03 apbio-ch20-s03-lo01 apbio-ch20-ot049

ID: 1656@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.747Z

Question:
Two diagrams are shown. The diagram on the left illustrates the path of the Voyager 2 spacecraft starting at Earth on August 20th, 1977. The following labels describe the path: Jupiter on July 9th, 1979, Saturn on August 25th, 1981, Uranus on January 24th, 1986, and Neptune on August 25th, 1989. The diagram on the right illustrates the Voyager 1 space probe. What characteristics of the solar system would have to be known or calculated in order to send a probe to a distant planet, such as Jupiter?
A:
the effect due to the light from the distant stars
B:
the effects due to the air in the solar system
C:
the effect due to the gravity from the other planets
D:
the effect due to the cosmic microwave background radiation

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ID: 1657@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.765Z

Question:
What are the three conditions under which classical physics provides an excellent description of our universe?
A:
<ol> <li>Matter is moving at speeds less than about 1% of the speed of light</li> <li>Objects dealt with must be large enough to be seen with the naked eye.</li> <li>Strong electromagnetic fields are involved.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>Matter is moving at speeds less than about 1% of the speed of light.</li> <li>Objects dealt with must be large enough to be seen with the naked eye.</li> <li>Only weak gravitational fields are involved.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>Matter is moving at great speeds, comparable to the speed of light.</li> <li>Objects dealt with are large enough to be seen with the naked eye.</li> <li>Strong gravitational fields are involved.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>Matter is moving at great speeds, comparable to the speed of light.</li> <li>Objects are just large enough to be visible through the most powerful telescope.</li> <li>Only weak gravitational fields are involved.</li> </ol>

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex002 os-practice-concepts

ID: 1658@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.777Z

Question:
Why is the Greek word for nature appropriate in describing the field of physics?
A:
Physics is a natural science that studies life and living organism on habitable planets like Earth.
B:
Physics is a natural science that studies the laws and principles of our universe.
C:
Physics is a physical science that studies the composition, structure, and changes of matter in our universe.
D:
Physics is a social science that studies the social behavior of living beings on habitable planets like Earth.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ex003

ID: 1659@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.789Z

Question:
Which aspect of the universe is studied by quantum mechanics?
A:
objects at the galactic level
B:
objects at the classical level
C:
objects at the subatomic level
D:
objects at all levels, from subatomic to galactic

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex004

ID: 1660@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.801Z

Question:
What did Einstein’s theory of relativity show about measured time intervals and measured distances in different frames of reference?
A:
Einstein’s theory showed that measured distances and measured time intervals are different for different observers in motion relative to each other.
B:
Einstein’s theory showed that measured distances are different for different observers in motion relative to each other when measured time intervals are the same.
C:
Einstein’s theory showed that measured time intervals are different for different observers in motion relative to each other when measured distances are the same.
D:
Einstein’s theory showed that measured distances and measured time intervals are the same for different observers.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex005

ID: 1661@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.813Z

Question:
Why is the knowledge of physics necessary to understand all other sciences?
A:
Physics explains the most basic ways in which universe works.
B:
Physics explains the composition, structure and changes of matter.
C:
Physics explains the social behavior of living beings.
D:
Physics explains the evolution of life and living organisms.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ex006

ID: 1662@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.826Z

Question:
Which statement describes how an aspect of physics is applicable to another science course?
A:
In a biology course, I found that muscle contractions release energy. Energy, its conservation, and changes from one form of energy to another, are described by physics.
B:
In a biology course, I learned that physics helps explain humain evolution.
C:
In a chemistry course, I learned that physics helps explain the chemical composition of our bodies.
D:
In a biology course, I learned that physics helps explain social and behavioral changes in humans.

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inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s01-lo04 k12phys-ch01-ex007

ID: 1663@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.837Z

Question:
Which statement best compares and contrasts the aims and topics of natural philosophy had versus physics?
A:
Natural philosophy included all aspects of nature including physics.
B:
Natural philosophy included all aspects of nature excluding physics.
C:
Natural philosophy and physics are different.
D:
Natural philosophy and physics are essentially the same thing.

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inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex008 concept

ID: 1664@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.849Z

Question:
What conditions imply that we can use classical physics without considering special relativity or quantum mechanics?
A:
<ol> <li>matter is moving at speeds of less than roughly 1% the speed of light,</li> <li>objects are large enough to be seen with the naked eye, and</li> <li>there is the involvement of a strong gravitational field</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>matter is moving at speeds greater than roughly 1% the speed of light,</li> <li>objects are large enough to be seen with the naked eye, and</li> <li>there is the involvement of a strong gravitational field</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>matter is moving at speeds of less than roughly 1% the speed of light,</li> <li>objects are too small to be seen with the naked eye, and</li> <li>there is the involvement of only a weak gravitational field</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>matter is moving at speeds of less than roughly 1% the speed of light,</li> <li>objects are large enough to be seen with the naked eye, and</li> <li>there is the involvement of a weak gravitational field</li> </ol>

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ID: 1665@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.855Z

Question:
How could physics be useful in weather prediction?
A:
Physics helps in predicting how burning fossil fuel releases pollutants.
B:
Physics helps in predicting dynamics and movement of weather phenomena.
C:
Physics helps in predicting the motion of tectonic plates.
D:
Physics helps in predicting how the flowing water affects Earth’s surface.

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ID: 1666@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.866Z

Question:
In what sense does Einstein’s theory of relativity illustrate that physics describes fundamental aspects of our universe?
A:
It describes how speed affects different observers’ measurements of time and space.
B:
It describes how different parts of the universe are far apart and do not affect each other
C:
It describes how people think of other people’s views from their own frame of reference.
D:
It describes how a frame of reference is necessary to describe position or motion.

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inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking dok4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex011

ID: 1667@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.878Z

Question:
Can classical physics be used to accurately describe a satellite moving at a speed of $7500\,\text{m/s}$ ? Explain why or why not.
A:
No, because the satellite is moving at a speed much smaller than the speed of the light and is not in a strong gravitational field.
B:
No, because the satellite is moving at a speed much smaller than the speed of the light and is in a strong gravitational field.
C:
Yes, because the satellite is moving at a speed much smaller than the speed of the light and it is not in a strong gravitational field.
D:
Yes, because the satellite is moving at a speed much smaller than the speed of the light and is in a strong gravitational field.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking dok4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex012

ID: 1668@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.890Z

Question:
What would be some ways in which physics was involved in building the features of the room you are in right now?
A:
Physics is involved in structural strength, dimensions, etc., of the room.
B:
Physics is involved in the air composition inside the room.
C:
Physics is involved in the desk arrangement inside the room.
D:
Physics is involved in the behavior of living beings inside the room.

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ID: 1669@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.901Z

Question:
Modern physics could best be described as the combination of which theories?
A:
quantum mechanics and Einstein’s theory of relativity
B:
quantum mechanics and classical physics
C:
Newton’s laws of motion and classical physics
D:
Newton’s laws of motion and Einstein’s theory of relativity

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inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex014 ost-test-prep multiple-choice

ID: 1670@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.919Z

Question:
Which of the following could be studied accurately using classical physics?
A:
the strength of gravity within a black hole
B:
the motion of a plane through the sky
C:
the collisions of subatomic particles
D:
the effect of gravity on the passage of time

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ID: 1671@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.925Z

Question:
Which of the following best describes why knowledge of physics is necessary to understand all other sciences?
A:
Physics explains how energy passes from one object to another.
B:
Physics explains how gravity works.
C:
Physics explains the motion of objects that can be seen with the naked eye.
D:
Physics explains the fundamental aspects of the universe.

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inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch01-ex016

ID: 1672@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.936Z

Question:
Describe the aims of physics.
A:
Physics aims to explain the fundamental aspects of our universe and how these aspects interact with one another.
B:
Physics aims to explain the biological aspects of our universe and how these aspects interact with one another.
C:
Physics aims to explain the composition, structure and changes in matter occurring in the universe.
D:
Physics aims to explain the social behavior of living beings in the universe.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 ost-test-prep k12phys-ch01-ex017 short-answer

ID: 1673@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.948Z

Question:
Define the fields of magnetism and electricity and state how are they are related.
A:
Magnetism describes the attractive force between a magnetized object and a metal like iron. Electricity involves the study of electric charges and their movements. Magnetism is not related to the electricity.
B:
Magnetism describes the attractive force between a magnetized object and a metal like iron. Electricity involves the study of electric charges and their movements. Magnetism is produced by a flow electrical charges.
C:
Magnetism involves the study of electric charges and their movements. Electricity describes the attractive force between a magnetized object and a metal. Magnetism is not related to the electricity.
D:
Magnetism involves the study of electric charges and their movements. Electricity describes the attractive force between a magnetized object and a metal. Magnetism is produced by the flow electrical charges.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-ex018

ID: 1674@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.960Z

Question:
Describe what two topics physicists are trying to unify with quantum relativistics. How will this unification create a greater understanding of our universe?
A:
Relativistic quantum mechanics unifies quantum mechanics with Einstein’s theory of relativity. The unified theory creates a greater understanding of our universe because it can explain objects of all sizes and masses.
B:
Relativistic quantum mechanics unifies classical mechanics with Einstein’s theory of relativity. The unified theory creates a greater understanding of our universe because it can explain objects of all the sizes and masses.
C:
Relativistic quantum mechanics unifies quantum mechanics with Einstein’s theory of relativity. The unified theory creates a greater understanding of our universe because it is unable to explain objects of all the sizes and masses.
D:
Relativistic quantum mechanics unifies classical mechanics with the Einstein’s theory of relativity. The unified theory creates a greater understanding of our universe because it is unable to explain objects of all the sizes and masses.

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inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-ex019

ID: 1675@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.972Z

Question:
The findings of studies in quantum mechanics have been described as strange or weird compared to those of classical physics. Explain why this would be so.
A:
It is because the phenomenon it explains are outside the normal range of human experience which deals with much larger objects.
B:
It is because the phenomenon it explains can be perceived easily, namely, ordinary sized objects.
C:
It is because the phenomenon it explains are outside the normal range of human experience, namely, the very large and the very fast objects.
D:
It is because the phenomenon it explains can be perceived easily, namely, the very large and the very fast objects.

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inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-ex020

ID: 1676@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.984Z

Question:
How could knowledge of physics help you find a faster way to drive from your house to your school?
A:
Physics can explain the traffic on a particular street and help us know about the traffic in advance.
B:
Physics can explain about the ongoing construction of roads on a particular street and help us know about delays in the traffic in advance.
C:
Physics can explain distances, speed limits on a particular street and help us categorize faster routes.
D:
Physics can explain the closing of a particular street and help us categorize faster routes.

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ID: 1677@1

2015-08-20T13:11:26.996Z

Question:
How could knowledge of physics help you build a sound and energy-efficient house?
A:
An understanding of force, pressure, heat, electricity, etc., which all involve physics, will help me design a sound and energy-efficient house.
B:
An understanding of the air composition, chemical composition of matter, etc., which all involves physics, will help me design a sound and energy-efficient house.
C:
An understanding of material cost and economic factors involving physics will help me design a sound and energy-efficient house.
D:
An understanding of geographical location and social environment which involves physics will help me design a sound and energy-efficient house.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 time-long k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-ex022

ID: 1678@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.008Z

Question:
Describe how the study of physics can improve your problem-solving skills.
A:
Physics can improve our problem-solving skills because it helps us understand the workings of the universe at a fundamental level.
B:
Physics does not improve our problem-solving skills and does not work at a fundamental level.
C:
Physics helps us understand the workings of the universe at a the fundamental level but fails to improve our problem-solving skills.
D:
Physics does not help us understand the workings of the universe at a fundamental level but helps us improve our problem-solving skills.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 ost-test-prep k12phys-ch01-ex023 extended-response

ID: 1679@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.020Z

Question:
How does Einstein’s theory of relativity describe gravity in terms of the space-time continuum?
A:
the curving or distortion of space-time is analogous to gravity
B:
the curving or distortion of space-time is different from gravity
C:
gravity distorts space butit has no effect on time
D:
gravity has no effect on space but it distorts time

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch01-ex024

ID: 1680@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.031Z

Question:
For many years in the distant past, humans hypothesized that the planets and sun revolved around the Earth. What kind of observations could ancient peoples make that would support this hypothesis?
A:
Ancient people observed the phases of the Moon.
B:
Ancient people observed that the Sun rises in the East and sets in the West.
C:
Ancient people observed the seasons.
D:
Ancient people observed that the same side of the Moon always faces Earth.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-long dok4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch01-ex025

ID: 1681@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.043Z

Question:
Your diagram is a model, based on experimental evidence, of how air flows through the room. Could you use your model to predict how air would flow through a new window or door placed in a different location in the classroom? Make a new diagram that predicts the room’s airflow with the addition of a new window or door. Add a short explanation that describes how.
A:
Yes, you could use your model to predict air flow through a new window. The earlier experiment of air flow would help you model the system more accurately.
B:
Yes, you could use your model to predict air flow through a new window. The earlier experiment of air flow is not useful for modeling the new system.
C:
No, you cannot model a system to predict the air flow through a new window. The earlier experiment of air flow would help you model the system more accurately.
D:
No, you cannot model a system to predict the air flow through a new window. The earlier experiment of air flow is not useful for modeling the new system.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 grasp-check k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex026

ID: 1682@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.056Z

Question:
Explain why scientists sometimes use a model rather than trying to analyze the behavior of the real system.
A:
Models are simpler to analyze.
B:
Models give more accurate results.
C:
Models provide more reliable predictions.
D:
Models do not require any computer calculations.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex027

ID: 1683@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.069Z

Question:
Describe the difference between a question, generated through observation, and a hypothesis.
A:
They are the same.
B:
A hypothesis has been thoroughly tested and found to be true.
C:
A hypothesis is a tentative assumption based on what is already known.
D:
A hypothesis is a broad explanation firmly supported by evidence.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex028

ID: 1684@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.080Z

Question:
What is a scientific model and how is it useful?
A:
A scientific model is a representation of something that can be easily studied directly. It is useful for studying things that can be easily analyzed by humans.
B:
A scientific model is a representation of something that is often too difficult to study directly. It is useful for studying a complex system or systems that humans cannot observe directly.
C:
A scientific model is a representation of scientific equipment. It is useful for studying working principles of scientific equipment.
D:
A scientific model is a representation of a laboratory where experiments are performed. It is useful for studying requirements needed inside the laboratory.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex029

ID: 1685@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.092Z

Question:
Which of the following statements is correct about the hypothesis?
A:
The hypothesis must be validated by scientific experiments.
B:
The hypothesis must not include any physical quantity.
C:
The hypothesis must be a short and concise statement.
D:
The hypothesis must apply to all the situations in the universe.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex030

ID: 1686@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.104Z

Question:
What is a scientific theory?
A:
A scientific theory is an explanation of natural phenomena that is supported by evidence.
B:
A scientific theory is an explanation of natural phenomena without the support of evidence.
C:
A scientific theory is an educated guess about the natural phenomena occurring in nature.
D:
A scientific theory is an uneducated guess about natural phenomena occurring in nature.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex031

ID: 1687@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.116Z

Question:
Compare and contrast a hypothesis and a scientific theory.
A:
A hypothesis is an explanation of the natural world with experimental support, while a scientific theory is an educated guess about a natural phenomenon.
B:
A hypothesis is an educated guess about natural phenomenon, while a scientific theory is an explanation of natural world with experimental support.
C:
A hypothesis is experimental evidence of a natural phenomenon, while a scientific theory is an explanation of the natural world with experimental support.
D:
A hypothesis is an explanation of the natural world with experimental support, while a scientific theory is experimental evidence of a natural phenomenon.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex032

ID: 1688@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.128Z

Question:
Describe the difference between an observation and a hypothesis.
A:
An observation is seeing what happens; a hypothesis is a testable, educated guess.
B:
An observation is a hypothesis that has been confirmed.
C:
Hypotheses and observations are independent of each other.
D:
Hypotheses are conclusions based on some observations.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex033

ID: 1689@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.140Z

Question:
Describe how modeling is useful in studying the structure of the atom.
A:
Modeling replaces the real system by something similar but easier to examine.
B:
Modeling replaces the real system by something more interesting to examine.
C:
Modeling replaces the real system by something with more realistic properties.
D:
Modeling includes more details than are present in the real system.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex034

ID: 1690@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.157Z

Question:
How strongly is a hypothesis supported by evidence compared to a theory?
A:
A theory is supported by little evidence, if any, at first, while a hypothesis is supported by a large amount of available evidence.
B:
A hypothesis is supported by little evidence, if any, at first. A theory is supported by a large amount of available evidence.
C:
A hypothesis is supported by little evidence, if any, at first. A theory does not need any experiments in support.
D:
A theory is supported by little evidence, if any, at first. A hypothesis does not need any experiments in support.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex035

ID: 1691@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.163Z

Question:
You notice that the water level flowing in a stream near your house increases when it rains and the water turns brown. Which of these are the best hypothesis to explain why the water turns brown. Assume you have all of the means to test the contents of the stream water.
A:
The water in the stream turns brown because molecular forces between water molecules are stronger than mud molecules
B:
The water in the stream turns brown because of the breakage of a weak chemical bond with the hydrogen atom in the water molecule.
C:
The water in the stream turns brown because it picks up dirt from the bank as the water level increases when it rains.
D:
The water in the stream turns brown because the density of the water increases with increase in water level.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking dok4 blooms-6 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex036

ID: 1692@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.174Z

Question:
Light travels as waves at an approximate speed of 300,000,000 meters per second (186,000 miles per second). Designers of devices that use mirrors and lenses model the traveling light by straight lines, or light rays. Describe why it would be useful to model the light as rays of light instead of describing them accurately as electromagnetic waves.
A:
A model can be constructed in such a way that the speed of light decreases.
B:
Studying a model makes it easier to analyze the path that the light follows.
C:
Studying a model will help us to visualize why light travels at such great speed.
D:
Modeling cannot be used to study traveling light as our eyes cannot track the motion of light.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex037

ID: 1693@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.192Z

Question:
A friend says that he doesn’t trust scientific explanations because they are just theories, which are basically educated guesses. What could you say to convince him that scientific theories are different from the everyday use of the word theory?
A:
A theory is a scientific explanation that has been repeatedly tested and supported by many experiments.
B:
A theory is a hypothesis that has been tested and supported by some experiments.
C:
A theory is a set of educated guesses, but at least one of the guesses remain true in each experiment.
D:
A theory is a set of scientific explanations that has at least one experiment in support of it.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex038

ID: 1694@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.198Z

Question:
The free-electron model of metals explains some of the important behaviors of metals by assuming the metal’s electrons move freely through the metal without repelling one another. In what sense is the free-electron theory based on a model?
A:
Its use requires constructing replicas of the metal wire in the lab.
B:
It involves analyzing an imaginary system simpler than the real wire it resembles.
C:
It examines a model, or ideal, behavior that other metals should imitate.
D:
It attempts to examine the metal in a very realistic, or model, way.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex039

ID: 1695@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.209Z

Question:
A scientist wishes to study the motion of about 1000 molecules of gas in a container by modeling them as tiny billiard balls bouncing randomly off one another. Which of the following is needed to calculate and store data on their detailed motion?
A:
a group of hypotheses that cannot be practically tested in real life
B:
a computer that can store and perform calculations on large data sets
C:
a large amount of experimental results on the molecules and their motion
D:
a collection of hypotheses that have not yet been tested regarding the molecules

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex040

ID: 1696@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.222Z

Question:
When a large body of experimental evidence supports a hypothesis, what may the hypothesis eventually be considered?
A:
observation
B:
insight
C:
conclusion
D:
law

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex041

ID: 1697@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.233Z

Question:
You notice that it takes more force to get a large box to start sliding across the floor than it takes to get the box sliding faster once it is already moving. Create a testable hypothesis that attempts to explain this observation.
A:
The floor has greater distortions of space-time for moving the sliding box faster than for the box at rest.
B:
The floor has greater distortions of space-time for the box at rest than for the sliding box.
C:
The resistance between the floor and the box is less when the box is sliding then when the box is at rest.
D:
The floor dislikes having objects move across it and therefore holds the box rigidly in place until it cannot resist the force.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-6 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex042

ID: 1698@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.251Z

Question:
Design an experiment that will test the following hypothesis: driving on a gravel road causes greater damage to a car than driving on a dirt road.
A:
To test the hypothesis, compare the damage to the car by driving it on a smooth road and a gravel road.
B:
To test the hypothesis, compare the damage to the car by driving it on a smooth road and a dirt road.
C:
To test the hypothesis, compare the damage to the car by driving it on a gravel road and the dirt road.
D:
This is not a testable hypothesis.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-6 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex043

ID: 1699@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.263Z

Question:
How is a physical model, such as a spherical mass held in place by springs, used to represent an atom vibrating in a solid, similar to a computer-based model, such as that predicting how gravity affects the orbits of the planets?
A:
Both a physical model and a computer-based model should be built around a hypothesis and could be able to test the hypothesis.
B:
Both a physical model and a computer-based model should be built around a hypothesis but they cannot be used to test the hypothesis.
C:
Both a physical model and a computer-based model should be built around the results of scientific studies and could be used to make predictions about the system under study.
D:
Both a physical model and a computer-based model should be built around the results of scientific studies but cannot be used to make predictions about the system under study.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex044

ID: 1700@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.275Z

Question:
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using a model to predict a life-or-death situation, such as whether or not an asteroid will strike the Earth.
A:
The advantage of using a model is that it provides predictions quickly, but the disadvantage of using a model is that it could make erroneous predictions.
B:
The advantage of using a model is that it provides accurate predictions, but the disadvantage of using a model is that it takes a long time to make predictions.
C:
The advantage of using a model is that it provides predictions quickly without any error. There are no disadvantages of using a scientific model.
D:
The disadvantage of using models is that it takes longer time to make predictions and the predictions are inaccurate. There are no advantages to using a scientific model.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex045

ID: 1701@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.281Z

Question:
A friend tells you that a scientific law cannot be changed. State whether or not your friend is correct and then briefly explain your answer.
A:
Correct, because laws are theories that have been proved true.
B:
Correct, because theories are laws that have been proved true.
C:
Incorrect, because a law is changed if new evidence contradicts it.
D:
Incorrect, because a law is changed when a theory contradicts it.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex046

ID: 1702@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.299Z

Question:
How does a scientific law compare to a local law, such as that governing parking at your school, in terms of whether or not laws can be changed, and how universal a law is?
A:
A local law applies only in a specific area, but a scientific law is applicable throughout the universe. Both the local law and the scientific law can change.
B:
A local law applies only in a specific area, but a scientific law is applicable throughout the universe. A local law can change, but a scientific law cannot be changed.
C:
A local law applies throughout the universe but a scientific law is applicable only in a specific area. Both the local and the scientific law can change.
D:
A local law applies throughout the universe, but a scientific law is applicable only in a specific area. A local law can change, but a scientific law cannot be changed.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex047

ID: 1703@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.311Z

Question:
You wish to perform an experiment on the stopping distance of your new car. Create a specific experiment to measure the distance. Be sure to specifically state how you will set up and take data during your experiment.
A:
Drive the car at exactly 50 mph and then press harder on the accelerator pedal until the velocity reaches the speed 60 mph and record the distance this takes.
B:
Drive the car at exactly 50 mph and then apply the brakes until it stops and record the distance this takes.
C:
Drive the car at exactly 50 mph and then apply the brakes until it stops and record the time it takes.
D:
Drive the car at exactly 50 mph and then apply the accelerator until it reaches the speed of 60 mph and record the time it takes.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-6 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex048

ID: 1704@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.318Z

Question:
You wish to make a model showing how traffic flows around your city or local area. Describe the steps you would take to construct your model as well as some hypotheses that your model could test and the model’s limitations in terms of what could not be tested.
A:
<ol> <li>Testable hypotheses like the gravitational pull on each vehicle while in motion and the average speed of vehicles is 40 mph</li> <li>Non-testable hypotheses like the average number of vehicles passing is 935 per day and carbon emission from each of the moving vehicle</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>Testable hypotheses like the average number of vehicles passing is 935 per day and the average speed of vehicles is 40 mph</li> <li>Non-testable hypotheses like the gravitational pull on each vehicle while in motion and the carbon emission from each of the moving vehicle</li> </ol>
C:
Testable hypotheses like the average number of vehicles passing is 935 per day and the carbon emission from each of the moving vehicle 2. Non-testable hypotheses like the gravitational pull on each vehicle while in motion and the average speed of the vehicles is 40 mph
D:
<ol> <li>Testable hypotheses like the average number of vehicles passing is 935 per day and the gravitational pull on each vehicle while in motion</li> <li>Non-testable hypotheses like the average speed of vehicles is 40 mph and the carbon emission from each of the moving vehicle</li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-6 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex049

ID: 1705@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.333Z

Question:
What would play the most important role in leading to an experiment in the scientific world becoming a scientific law?
A:
Further testing would need to show it is a universally followed rule.
B:
The observation would have to be described in a published scientific article.
C:
The experiment would have to be repeated once or twice.
D:
The observer would need to be a well-known scientist whose authority was accepted.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex050

ID: 1706@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.356Z

Question:
Suppose that you drive the $10.0\,\text{km}$ from your university to home in $20.0\,\text{min}$ . What is your average speed in kilometers per hour ( $\text{km/h}$ )?
A:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{km/h}">0.5\,\text{km/h}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.0\,\text{km/h}">5.0\,\text{km/h}</span>
C:
<span data-math="8.33\,\text{km/h}">8.33\,\text{km/h}</span>
D:
<span data-math="30.0\,\text{km/h}">30.0\,\text{km/h}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex051 worked-example

ID: 1707@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.362Z

Question:

A grocery store sells $5\,\text{lb}$ bags of apples. You purchase four bags over the course of a month and weigh the apples each time. You obtain the following measurements:

  1. Week 1 weight: $4.8\,\text{lb}$
  2. Week 2 weight: $5.3\,\text{lb}$
  3. Week 3 weight: $4.9\,\text{lb}$
  4. Week 4 weight: $5.4\,\text{lb}$

You determine that the weight of the $5\,\text{lb}$ bag has an uncertainty of $\pm 0.4\,\text{lb}$ . What is the percent uncertainty of the bag’s weight?

A:
<span data-math="2\,\%">2\,\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="30\,\%">30\,\%</span>
C:
<span data-math="8\,\%">8\,\%</span>
D:
<span data-math="5\,\%">5\,\%</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 worked-example k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex052

ID: 1708@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.373Z

Question:
A pile of 100 dollar bills The U.S. federal deficit in the $2008$ fiscal year was a little greater than $\text{\$}10\,\text{trillion}$ $\left(1 \times 10^{13}\right)$ . Most of us do not have any concept of how much even one trillion actually is. Suppose that you were given a trillion dollars in $\text{\$}100$ bills. If you made $\text{\$}100$ -bill stacks, like that shown in the picture, and used them to evenly cover a football field between the end zones, make an approximation of how high the money pile would become. We will use feet and inches rather than meters here because football fields are measured in yards. One of your friends says $3\,\text{in}$ , while another says $10\,\text{ft}$ . What do you think? A $\text{\$}100$ -bill is about $6\,\text{in}$ long, $2.5\,\text{in}$ wide and $0.0043\,\text{in}$ thick. A game field is $100\,\text{yd}$ long and $160\,\text{ft}$ wide.
A:
<span data-math="10\,\text{ft}">10\,\text{ft}</span>
B:
<span data-math="100\,\text{ft}">100\,\text{ft}</span>
C:
<span data-math="8\,\text{ft}">8\,\text{ft}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2\,\text{ft}">2\,\text{ft}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 time-long k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 worked-example k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex053

ID: 1709@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.385Z

Question:

How would the following changes affect a line that is neither horizontal nor vertical and has a positive slope?

  1. increase the slope but keeping the y-intercept constant
  2. increase the y-intercept but keeping the slope constant
A:
Increasing the slope will cause the line to rotate clockwise around the y-intercept. Increasing the y-intercept will cause the line to move vertically up on the graph without changing the line’s slope.
B:
Increasing the slope will cause the line to rotate counter-clockwise around the y-intercept. Increasing the y-intercept will cause the line to move vertically up on the graph without changing the line’s slope.
C:
Increasing the slope will cause the line to rotate clockwise around the y-intercept. Increasing the y-intercept will cause the line to move horizontally right on the graph without changing the line’s slope.
D:
Increasing the slope will cause the line to rotate counter-clockwise around the y-intercept. Increasing the y-intercept will cause the line to move horizontally right on the graph without changing the line’s slope.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 grasp-check k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex054

ID: 1710@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.397Z

Question:
Identify some advantages of metric units.
A:
Conversion between units is easier in metric units.
B:
Comparison of physical quantities is easy in metric units.
C:
Metric units are more modern than English units.
D:
Metric units are based on powers of 2.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex055

ID: 1711@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.408Z

Question:
The length of an American football field is $100\,\text{yd}$ , excluding the end zones. How long is the field in meters? Round to the nearest $0.1\,\text{m}$ .
A:
<span data-math="10.2\,\text{m}">10.2\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="91.4\,\text{m}">91.4\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="109.4\,\text{m}">109.4\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="328.1\,\text{m}">328.1\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex056

ID: 1712@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.425Z

Question:
Which of the following does not contribute to the uncertainty?
A:
the limitations of the measuring device
B:
the skill of the person making the measurement
C:
the regularities in the object being measured
D:
other factors that affect the outcome (depending on the situation)

Tags:

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ID: 1713@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.437Z

Question:
How does the independent variable in a graph differ from the dependent variable?
A:
The dependent variable varies linearly with the independent variable.
B:
The dependent variable depends on the scale of the axis chosen while independent variable does not.
C:
The dependent variable is directly manipulated or controlled by the person doing the experiment, while dependent variable is the one that changes as a result.
D:
The dependent and independent variables are fixed by a convention and hence they are the same.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex058

ID: 1714@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.442Z

Question:

What could you conclude about these two lines?

  1. Line A has a slope of ${-4.7}$
  2. Line B has a slope of $12.0$
A:
Line A is a decreasing line while line B is an increasing line, with line A being much steeper than line B.
B:
Line A is a decreasing line while line B is an increasing line, with line B being much steeper than line A.
C:
Line B is a decreasing line while line A is an increasing line, with line A being much steeper than line B.
D:
Line B is a decreasing line while line A is an increasing line, with line B being much steeper than line A.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex059

ID: 1715@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.460Z

Question:
Velocity, or speed, is measured using the following formula: $v = \frac{d}{t}$ Where $v$ is velocity, $d$ is the distance travelled and $t$ is the time the object took to travel the distance. If the velocity-time data are plotted on a graph, which variable will be on which axis? Why?
A:
Time would be on the x-axis and velocity on the y-axis, because time is an independent variable and velocity is a dependent variable.
B:
Velocity would be on the x-axis and time on the y-axis, because time is the independent variable and velocity is the dependent variable.
C:
Time would be on the x-axis and velocity on the y-axis, because time is a dependent variable and velocity is a independent variable.
D:
Velocity would be on x-axis and time on the y-axis, because time is a dependent variable and velocity is a independent variable.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex060

ID: 1716@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.472Z

Question:
If a marathon runner runs $9.5\,\text{miles}$ in one direction, $8.89\,\text{miles}$ in another direction and $2.333\,\text{miles}$ in a third direction, how much distance did the runner run? Be sure to report your answer using the proper number of significant figures.
A:
<span data-math="20">20</span>
B:
<span data-math="20.7">20.7</span>
C:
<span data-math="20.72">20.72</span>
D:
<span data-math="20.732">20.732</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex061 problem

ID: 1717@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.478Z

Question:
The speed limit on some interstate highways is roughly $80\,\text{km/h}$ . What is this in meters per second? How many miles per hour is this?
A:
<span data-math="62\,\text{m/s}">62\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="27.8\,\text{mi/h}">27.8\,\text{mi/h}</span>
B:
<span data-math="22.2\,\text{m/s}">22.2\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="49.7\,\text{mi/h}">49.7\,\text{mi/h}</span>
C:
<span data-math="62\,\text{m/s}">62\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="2.78\,\text{mi/h}">2.78\,\text{mi/h}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.78\,\text{m/s}">2.78\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="62\,\text{mi/h}">62\,\text{mi/h}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 problem k12phys-ch01-ex062

ID: 1718@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.496Z

Question:
The length and width of a rectangular room are measured to be $3.955 \pm 0.005\,\text{m}$ by $3.050 \pm 0.005\,\text{m}\!$ . Calculate the area of the room and its uncertainty in square meters.
A:
<span data-math="12.06 \pm 0.29\,\text{m}^2">12.06 \pm 0.29\,\text{m}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="12.06 \pm 0.01\,\text{m}^2">12.06 \pm 0.01\,\text{m}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="12.06 \pm 0.25\,\text{m}^2">12.06 \pm 0.25\,\text{m}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="12.06 \pm 0.04\,\text{m}^2">12.06 \pm 0.04\,\text{m}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 problem k12phys-ch01-ex063

ID: 1719@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.502Z

Question:

A marathon runner completes a $42.188\,\text{km}$ course in $2\,\text{h}$ , $30\,\text{min}$ , and $12\,\text{s}$ . There is an uncertainty of $25\,\text{m}$ in the distance traveled and an uncertainty of $1\,\text{s}$ in the elapsed time.

  1. Calculate the percent uncertainty in the distance.
  2. Calculate the uncertainty in the elapsed time.
  3. What is the average speed in meters per second?
  4. What is the uncertainty in the average speed?
A:
<span data-math="0.059\,\%">0.059\,\%</span>, <span data-math="0.01\,\%">0.01\,\%</span>, <span data-math="0.468\text{m/s}">0.468\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="0.0003\text{m/s}">0.0003\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.059\,\%">0.059\,\%</span>, <span data-math="0.01\,\%">0.01\,\%</span>, <span data-math="0.468\,\text{m/s}">0.468\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="0.07\,\text{m/s}">0.07\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.59\,\%">0.59\,\%</span>, <span data-math="8.33\,\%">8.33\,\%</span>, <span data-math="4.681\,\text{m/s}">4.681\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="0.003\,\text{m/s}">0.003\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="0.059\,\%">0.059\,\%</span>, <span data-math="0.01\,\%">0.01\,\%</span>, <span data-math="4.681\,\text{m/s}">4.681\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="0.003\,\text{m/s}">0.003\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking dok4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex064

ID: 1720@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.520Z

Question:
A car engine moves a piston with a circular cross section of $7.500 \pm 0.002\,\text{cm}$ diameter a distance of $3.250 \pm 0.001\,\text{cm}$ to compress the gas in the cylinder. By what amount did the gas decrease in volume in cubic centimeters? Find the uncertainty in this volume.
A:
<span data-math="143.6 \pm 0.002\,\text{cm}^3">143.6 \pm 0.002\,\text{cm}^3</span>
B:
<span data-math="143.6 \pm 0.003\,\text{cm}^3">143.6 \pm 0.003\,\text{cm}^3</span>
C:
<span data-math="143.6 \pm 0.005\,\text{cm}^3">143.6 \pm 0.005\,\text{cm}^3</span>
D:
<span data-math="143.6 \pm 0.1\,\text{cm}^3">143.6 \pm 0.1\,\text{cm}^3</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking dok4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex065

ID: 1721@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.927Z

Question:

What would be the slope for a line passing through the two points below?

Point 1: (1, 0.1) Point 2: (7, 26.8)

A:
<span data-math="2.4">2.4</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.5">4.5</span>
C:
<span data-math="6.2">6.2</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.8">6.8</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking dok4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex066

ID: 1722@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.538Z

Question:
Which of the following would describe a length that is $2.0 \times 10^{-3}$ of a meter?
A:
<span data-math="2.0">2.0</span> kilometers
B:
<span data-math="2.0">2.0</span> megameters
C:
<span data-math="2.0">2.0</span> millimeters
D:
<span data-math="2.0">2.0</span> micrometers

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex067

ID: 1723@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.551Z

Question:
Suppose that a bathroom scale reads a person’s mass as $65\,\text{kg}$ with a $3\,\%$ uncertainty. What is the uncertainty in their mass in kilograms?
A:
<span data-math="2\,\text{kg}">2\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="98\,\text{kg}">98\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5\,\text{kg}">5\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="0">0</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex068

ID: 1724@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.571Z

Question:
Which of the following best describes a variable?
A:
a trend that shows an exponential relationship
B:
something whose value can change over multiple measurements
C:
a measure of how much a plot line changes along the y-axis
D:
something that remains constant over multiple measurements

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex069

ID: 1725@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.584Z

Question:
The speed of sound is measured at $342\,\text{m/s}$ on a certain day. What is this in $\text{km/h}$ ? Report your answer in scientific notation.
A:
<span data-math="1.23 \times 10^4\,\text{km/h}">1.23 \times 10^4\,\text{km/h}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.23 \times 10^3\,\text{km/h}">1.23 \times 10^3\,\text{km/h}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.5 \times 10^1\,\text{km/h}">9.5 \times 10^1\,\text{km/h}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.05 \times 10^{-1}\,\text{km/h}">2.05 \times 10^{-1}\,\text{km/h}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex070

ID: 1726@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.602Z

Question:
Describe the main difference between the metric system and the US Customary System.
A:
In the metric system, unit changes are based on powers of <span data-math="10">10</span>, while in the US customary system, each unit conversion has unrelated conversion factors.
B:
In the metric system, each unit conversion has unrelated conversion factors, while in the US customary system, unit changes are based on powers of <span data-math="10">10</span>.
C:
In the metric system, unit changes are based on powers of <span data-math="2">2</span>, while in the US customary system, each unit conversion has unrelated conversion factors.
D:
In the metric system, each unit conversion has unrelated conversion factors, while in the US customary system, unit changes are based on powers of <span data-math="2">2</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex071 dok5

ID: 1727@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.614Z

Question:
An infant’s pulse rate is measured to be $130 \pm 5\,\text{beats/min}$ . What is the percent uncertainty in this measurement?
A:
<span data-math="2\%">2\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="3\%">3\%</span>
C:
<span data-math="4\%">4\%</span>
D:
<span data-math="5\%">5\%</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex072

ID: 1728@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.625Z

Question:
Explain how the uncertainty of a measurement relates to the accuracy and precision of the measuring device. Include the definitions of accuracy and precision in your answer.
A:
A decrease in the precision of a measurement increases the uncertainty of the measurement, while a decrease in accuracy does not.
B:
A decrease in either the precision or accuracy of a measurement increases the uncertainty of the measurement.
C:
An increase in either the precision or accuracy of a measurement will increase the uncertainty of that measurement.
D:
An increase in the accuracy of a measurement will increase the uncertainty of that measurement, while an increase in precision will not.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-2 dok4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex073

ID: 1729@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.935Z

Question:
Describe all of the characteristics that can be determined about a straight line with a slope of ${-3}$ and a y-intercept of $50$ on a graph.
A:
Based on the information, the line has a negative slope. Because its y-intercept is 50 and its slope is negative, this line gradually rises on the graph as the x-value increases.
B:
Based on the information, the line has a negative slope. Because its y-intercept is 50 and its slope is negative, this line gradually moves downward on the graph as the x-value increases.
C:
Based on the information, the line has a positive slope. Because its y-intercept is 50 and its slope is positive, this line gradually rises on the graph as the x-value increases.
D:
Based on the information, the line has a positive slope. Because its y-intercept is 50 and its slope is positive, this line gradually moves downward on the graph as the x-value increases.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex074

ID: 1730@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.642Z

Question:
The graph shows the temperature change over time of a heated cup of water. What kind of relationship does this data suggest? Briefly explain your answer. What is the slope of the graph between the time period $2\,\text{min}$ and $5\,\text{min}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{-15}\,^\circ\text{C/min}">{-15}\,^\circ\text{C/min}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-0.07}\,^\circ\text{C/min}">{-0.07}\,^\circ\text{C/min}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.07\,^\circ\text{C/min}">0.07\,^\circ\text{C/min}</span>
D:
<span data-math="15\,^\circ\text{C/min}">15\,^\circ\text{C/min}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex075

ID: 1731@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.659Z

Question:
Tectonic plates are large segments of the Earth’s crust that move slowly. Suppose that one such plate has an average speed of $4.0\,\text{cm/year}$ . What distance does it move in $1.0\,\text{s}$ at this speed? What is its speed in kilometers per million years? Report all of your answers using scientific notation.
A:
<span data-math="1.3\times10^{-9}\,\text{m};\,1.0\times10^{1}\,\text{km/million years}">1.3\times10^{-9}\,\text{m};\,1.0\times10^{1}\,\text{km/million years}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.3\times10^{-6}\,\text{m};\,1.0\times10^{1}\,\text{km/million years}">1.3\times10^{-6}\,\text{m};\,1.0\times10^{1}\,\text{km/million years}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.3\times10^{-9}\,\text{m};\,1.0\times10^{-11}\,\text{km/million years}">1.3\times10^{-9}\,\text{m};\,1.0\times10^{-11}\,\text{km/million years}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.3\times10^{-6}\,\text{m};\,1.0\times10^{-11}\,\text{km/million years}">1.3\times10^{-6}\,\text{m};\,1.0\times10^{-11}\,\text{km/million years}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ex076

ID: 1732@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.671Z

Question:
Calculate the approximate number of atoms in a bacterium. Assume that the average mass of an atom in the bacterium is ten times the mass of a hydrogen atom. The mass of a hydrogen atom is on the order of $10^{−27}\text{kg}$ and the mass of a bacterium is on the order of $10^{−15}\text{kg}$ .
A:
<span data-math="10^{10}\,\text{atoms}">10^{10}\,\text{atoms}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10^{11}\,\text{atoms}">10^{11}\,\text{atoms}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10^{12}\,\text{atoms}">10^{12}\,\text{atoms}</span>
D:
<span data-math="10^{13}\,\text{atoms}">10^{13}\,\text{atoms}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex077

ID: 1733@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.683Z

Question:
Choose the data set below that would result in a straight-line graph. Then draw the graph and write the formula for your plot.
A:
<span data-math="y = 13x">y = 13x</span>
B:
<span data-math="y = x^2">y = x^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="y = 2x + 9">y = 2x + 9</span>
D:
<span data-math="y = \frac{x}{2} + 9">y = \frac{x}{2} + 9</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long dok4 tutor-only blooms-6 k12phys k12phys-ch01 ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ex078

ID: 1734@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.695Z

Question:
How could the nature of a hypothesis or research question influence how precise of a measuring tool you need to collect your data? Which would require more precision: measuring the body size of elephants or of insects?
A:
You would want the least precision possible. You would need a less precise measuring tool for comparing the sizes of insects than for comparing the sizes of elephants.
B:
You would want the least precision possible. You would need a more precise measuring tool for comparing the sizes of insects than for comparing the sizes of elephants.
C:
You would want the greatest precision possible. You would need a less precise measuring tool for comparing the sizes of insects than for comparing the sizes of elephants.
D:
You would want the greatest precision possible. You would need a more precise measuring tool for comparing the sizes of insects than for comparing the sizes of elephants.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 grasp-check k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex080

ID: 1735@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.701Z

Question:

Determine the number of significant figures in the following measurements:

  1. $0.0009$
  2. $15,450.0$
  3. ${-6} \times 10^3$
  4. $87.990$
  5. $30.42$
A:
<span data-math="4">4</span>, <span data-math="6">6</span>, <span data-math="1">1</span>, <span data-math="6">6</span>, <span data-math="4">4</span>, respectively
B:
<span data-math="4">4</span>, <span data-math="6">6</span>, <span data-math="1">1</span>, <span data-math="5">5</span>, <span data-math="4">4</span>, respectively
C:
<span data-math="1">1</span>, <span data-math="6">6</span>, <span data-math="1">1</span>, <span data-math="6">6</span>, <span data-math="4">4</span>, respectively
D:
<span data-math="1">1</span>, <span data-math="6">6</span>, <span data-math="1">1</span>, <span data-math="5">5</span>, <span data-math="4">4</span>, respectively

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch01 grasp-check k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ex081

ID: 1736@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.712Z

Question:
How do physical therapists use physics while on the job? Explain.
A:
Physical therapists do not require knowledge of physics because their job is mainly therapy and not physics.
B:
Physical therapists do not require knowledge of physics because their job is more social in nature and unscientific.
C:
Physical therapists require knowledge of physics know about muscle contraction and release of energy.
D:
Physical therapists require knowledge of physics to know about chemical reactions inside the body and make decisions accordingly.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ot001

ID: 1737@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.730Z

Question:
Which statement best explains the idea that physics describes how the fundamental aspects of our universe interact with each other?
A:
It means that physics describes how chemicals react and interact with each other in the universe.
B:
It means that physics describes the social behavior among living being who interact with each other.
C:
It means that physics describes how matter, energy, time, gravity, etc, interact with each other.
D:
It means that physics describes how gravitational and electromagnetic fields interact with each other.

Tags:

dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ot002

ID: 1738@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.736Z

Question:
What is meant when a physical law is said to be universal?
A:
The law can explain everything in the universe.
B:
The law is applicable to all physical phenomena.
C:
The law applies everywhere in the universe.
D:
The law is the most basic one and all laws are derived from it.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ot003

ID: 1739@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.747Z

Question:
How are the physical laws governing gravity within another galaxy related to the physical laws governing the gravity of the Earth?
A:
Physical laws that govern gravity in another galaxy are different from those that govern gravity here on Earth.
B:
Physical laws that govern gravity here on Earth change when they are applied in some other galaxy, as laws change with distance.
C:
Physical laws that govern gravity change with time in other galaxies. Those that govern gravity here on Earth do not necessarily apply elsewhere.
D:
Physical laws that govern gravity within another galaxy are the same as those that govern gravity here on earth.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ot004

ID: 1740@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.763Z

Question:
What subfield of physics could describe small objects traveling at high speeds or experiencing a strong gravitational field?
A:
general theory of relativity
B:
classical physics
C:
quantum relativity
D:
special theory of relativity

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot005

ID: 1741@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.769Z

Question:
Why is Einstein’s theory of relativity considered part of modern physics, as opposed to classical physics?
A:
Because it was considered less outstanding than the classics of physics, such as classical mechanics.
B:
Because it was popular physics enjoyed by average people today, instead of physics studied by the elite.
C:
Because the theory deals with very slow-moving objects and weak gravitational fields.
D:
Because it was among the new nineteenth-century discoveries that changed physics.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot006

ID: 1742@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.780Z

Question:
What theory of modern physics describes the interrelationships between space, time, speed, and gravity?
A:
atomic theory
B:
nuclear physics
C:
quantum mechanics
D:
general relativity

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot007

ID: 1743@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.797Z

Question:
According to Einstein’s theory of relativity, how could you effectively travel many years into Earth’s future, but not age very much yourself?
A:
by traveling at a speed equal to the speed of light
B:
by traveling at a speed greater than the speed of light
C:
by traveling at a speed much less than the speed of light
D:
by traveling at a speed slightly less than the speed of light

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot008

ID: 1744@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.803Z

Question:
Which of these areas of physics topics would likely be most used in medicine?
A:
nuclear physics
B:
special relativity
C:
astrophysics
D:
general relativity

Tags:

dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ot009

ID: 1745@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.821Z

Question:
How could knowledge of physics help keep you safe on a daily basis?
A:
Knowledge of physics helps you understand dangers from biological threats such as anthrax or Ebola.
B:
Knowledge of physics helps you understand social threats such as robbery and theft.
C:
Knowledge of physics helps you understand physical threats such as car accidents and lightning storms.
D:
Knowledge of physics helps you understand chemical threats such as the reaction of cellulose with <span data-math="\text{HCl}">\text{HCl}</span> or <span data-math="\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4">\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4</span>.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ot010

ID: 1746@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.826Z

Question:
Name a few medical tests that are based on knowledge gained from physics.
A:
urine test, blood test, hair follicle test
B:
genetic testing, cancer test
C:
MRI, chemotherapy, ultrasound
D:
IQ testing, attention-deficit testing

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ot011

ID: 1747@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.843Z

Question:
In what sense does physics explain the most basic ways in which our universe works?
A:
Basic fundamental laws of physics determine everything in the universe and explainhow the universe works at the fundamental levels.
B:
Basic fundamental laws of physics do not determine everything in the universe, but explain how the universe works at the fundamental levels.
C:
Basic fundamental laws of physics determine everything in the universe, but do not explain how the universe works at the fundamental levels.
D:
Basic fundamental laws of physics do not explain everything in the universe, and do not explain how the universe works at the fundamental levels.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-ot012

ID: 1748@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.855Z

Question:
What does radiation therapy, used to treat cancer patients, have to do with physics?
A:
Understanding how cells reproduce is mainly about physics.
B:
Predictions of the side effects from the radiation therapy are based on physics.
C:
The devices used for generating some kinds of radiation are based on principles of physics.
D:
Predictions of the life expectancy of patients receiving radiation therapy are based on physics.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 concept k12phys-ch01-ot013

ID: 1749@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.867Z

Question:
What basic characteristics of electricity could be explained by physics?
A:
The cost of production of electricity is explained by physics.
B:
The consumption of electricity in a home is explained by physics.
C:
The basic principles of how electricity works are explained by physics.
D:
The availability of electricity in a demographic region is explained by physics.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 concept k12phys-ch01-ot014

ID: 1750@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.873Z

Question:
When would it be necessary to use relativistic quantum mechanics?
A:
Relativistic quantum mechanics is necessary to use when subatomic particles are moving at a speed close to the speed of light.
B:
Relativistic quantum mechanics is necessary to use when subatomic particles are moving at a speed much less than the speed of light.
C:
Relativistic quantum mechanics is necessary to use when massive objects are moving at a speed much less than the speed of light.
D:
Relativistic quantum mechanics is necessary to use when massive objects are moving at all velocities, from slow motion to a speed close to the speed of light.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 concept k12phys-ch01-ot015

ID: 1751@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.885Z

Question:
Describe why relativistic quantum mechanics would allow us to explain, in a more comprehensive way than relativity and quantum mechanics separately, how the universe works.
A:
It attempts to unify the theory of relativity with quantum mechanics.
B:
It attempts to unify quantum mechanics with classical mechanics.
C:
It attempts to unify classical mechanics with astrophysics.
D:
It attempts to unify chemistry with relativity.

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time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 concept k12phys-ch01-ot016

ID: 1752@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.896Z

Question:
What kinds of topics are likely to be studied in the field of biophysics?
A:
the physics of economic systems
B:
the physics of planetary systems
C:
the physics of subatomic systems
D:
the physics of biological systems

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ID: 1753@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.907Z

Question:
What aspects of physics would a chemist likely study in trying to discover a new chemical reaction?
A:
Physics is involved in understanding whether the reactants and products dissolve in water.
B:
Physics is involved in understanding the amount of energy released or required in a chemical reaction.
C:
Physics is involved in what the products of the reaction will be.
D:
Physics is involved in understanding the types of ions produced in a chemical reaction.

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ID: 1754@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.919Z

Question:
Define physics and evaluate how this definition makes physics relevant to our everyday lives.
A:
Physics is the field of science that describes the fundamental aspects of our universe and how these aspects interact with one another. This is relevant to our everyday lives because it helps us understand how the universe works at the fundamental level.
B:
Physics is the field of science that describes life and living organisms and how they interact with one another. This is relevant to our everyday lives because it helps us understand evolution, growth, and the functions of living organisms.
C:
Physics is the field of science that describes chemical composition, structural properties of atoms and molecules and how they interact with one another. This is relevant to our everyday lives because it helps us understand the chemical reactions and changes in matter.
D:
Physics is the field of science that describes the social behavior of living beings and how they interact with one another. This is relevant to our everyday lives because it helps us understand how moral and behavioral changes take place in a society.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot019

ID: 1755@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.936Z

Question:
What aspects of physics must a pilot understand to successfully predict their flight path through a windy area?
A:
A pilot would need to understand the direction and force of the wind as well as the speed and direction of the plane.
B:
A pilot would need to understand the size and dimensions of the plane flying through the windy area.
C:
A pilot would need to know the mass and weight of the plane flying through the windy area.
D:
A pilot would need to know the size of the fuel tank and amount of fuel present in the plane while flying through the windy area.

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ID: 1756@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.949Z

Question:
How would studying how gravity affects subatomic particles fall under the field of relativistic quantum mechanics?
A:
The effect of gravity on subatomic particles can be studied under relativistic quantum mechanics by explaining gravity through Einstein’s general theory of relativity.
B:
The effect of gravity on subatomic particles can be studied under relativistic quantum mechanics by explaining gravity through Newton’s laws.
C:
The effect of gravity on subatomic particles can be studied under relativistic quantum mechanics by explaining gravity through Einstein’s special theory of relativity.
D:
The effect of gravity on subatomic particles can be studied under relativistic quantum mechanics by explaining gravity through Kepler’s laws describing the motion of planets.

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ID: 1757@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.961Z

Question:
In order for humans to travel to a nearby star, many scientists have abandoned the idea of getting a ship to travel close to the speed of light. Based on time dilation, what is one reason why such a flight would be impractical?
A:
The time dilation would result in the slowing down of the clock of the astronaut.
B:
The time dilation would result in the slowing down of the clock of the observer on the Earth.
C:
The time dilation would result in an increase in the length of the journey of the astronaut.
D:
The time dilation would result in a decrease in the length of the journey of the astronaut.

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dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot022

ID: 1758@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.967Z

Question:
Which of these involves physics?
A:
the working of a blood insulin test kit
B:
the blood used in the blood insulin test kit
C:
the chemical reactions inside the battery of the blood insulin test kit
D:
the price of the blood insulin test kit

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blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot023

ID: 1759@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.984Z

Question:
List at least three aspects of physics that are needed to make the buttons on your cell phone, or other device, function.
A:
pressure, electricity, sound
B:
pressure, electricity, size
C:
sound, size, shape
D:
size, shape, compactness

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time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s01 k12phys-ch01-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot024

ID: 1760@1

2015-08-20T13:11:27.990Z

Question:
A certain area on a mountain is more avalanche-prone than other areas. You reason that this is likely because the slope is steeper in the avalanche-prone area. What scientific process are you using?
A:
making an observation
B:
forming a hypothesis
C:
carrying out an experiment
D:
reaching a conclusion

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot025

ID: 1761@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.007Z

Question:
Why would it be important for scientists to consider what kinds of experiments they can perform while constructing a hypothesis?
A:
Any hypothesis can be tested and the validity of a hypothesis is dependent on the outcome of the experiment.
B:
Any hypothesis can be tested and the validity of a hypothesis is independent of the outcome of the experiment.
C:
Not all hypotheses can be tested and the validity of a hypothesis is dependent on the outcome of the experiment.
D:
Not all hypotheses can be tested and the validity of a hypothesis is independent of the outcome of the experiment.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot026

ID: 1762@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.018Z

Question:
What is the usual goal of an experiment carried out after formulating a hypothesis?
A:
The goal of the experiment is to test a conclusion.
B:
The goal of the experiment is to test a hypothesis.
C:
The goal of the experiment is to test a scientific law.
D:
The goal of the experiment is to test an observation.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot027

ID: 1763@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.029Z

Question:
What would cause a hypothesis to be rejected?
A:
A hypothesis is rejected when it explains more than intended.
B:
A hypothesis is rejected when observations support it.
C:
A hypothesis is rejected when evidence contradicts it.
D:
A hypothesis is rejected when an experiment supports it.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot028

ID: 1764@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.040Z

Question:
Why may a scientist need to use computer programs when creating a scientific model?
A:
Scientists may need to use computer programs when their model is complex and difficult to simulate.
B:
Scientists may need to use computer programs when their model is simple and easy to simulate.
C:
Scientists may need to use computer programs when their model is complex but easy to simulate.
D:
Scientists may need to use computer programs when their model is working flawlessly.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok1 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot029

ID: 1765@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.052Z

Question:
How could a computer simulation allow scientists to test hypotheses that normally could not be tested?
A:
Computer simulations are under the control of the scientist and provide simulated results to test a hypothesis.
B:
Computer simulations are not under the control of the scientist but provide simulated results to test a hypothesis.
C:
Computer simulations are under the control of the scientist and provide practical evidence to test a hypothesis.
D:
CONSISTENCY: Feedback talks about testing a hypothesis so I changed the question from “to form a hypothesis” to “to test a hypothesis” Computer simulations are not under the control of the scientist but provide practical evidence to test a hypothesis.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot030

ID: 1766@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.059Z

Question:
What are two ways that modeling can help scientific research?
A:
Models help scientists analyze processes and systems that are too complex to be analyzed without simplification, and also allow scientists to test hypotheses that cannot practically be tested in real life.
B:
Models help scientists analyze processes and systems that are too complex to be analyzed without simplification, but do not allow scientists to test hypotheses that cannot practically be tested in real life.
C:
Models cannot help scientists visualize processes and systems that are too complex to be analyzed without simplification, but allow scientists to test hypotheses that cannot practically be tested in real life.
D:
Models cannot help scientists visualize processes and systems that are too complex to be analyzed without simplification, and do not allow scientists to test hypotheses that cannot practically be tested in real life.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot031

ID: 1767@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.070Z

Question:
Different scientists often happen to be examining the same system. Often, different models constructed for the same system lead to somewhat different results. Why would different models for the same system sometimes produce different results?
A:
because they represent the system being modeled
B:
because they do not represent the system being modeled
C:
because they are exact representations of the system being modeled
D:
because they are not exact representations of the system being modeled

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot032

ID: 1768@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.081Z

Question:
What is the difference between a scientific principle and a scientific law?
A:
Scientific principles as well as scientific laws are universal in nature.
B:
Scientific principles are universal in nature while scientific laws are not.
C:
Scientific principles are not universal in nature while scientific laws are.
D:
Scientific principles as well as scientific laws are not universal in nature.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot033

ID: 1769@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.098Z

Question:
Why are scientists reluctant to say that their hypotheses or theories have been proven?
A:
It is because once the hypotheses or theories have been proven, they become useless.
B:
It is because once the hypotheses or theories have been proven, further investigation is needed.
C:
It is because there is no way to test every single instance to which the theory applies.
D:
It is because once the hypotheses or theories have been proven it implies that the scientist can make another hypothesis.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot034

ID: 1770@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.110Z

Question:
Is it possible for a scientific law to be changed? What would cause this to occur?
A:
No, scientific laws cannot be changed because laws are proven theories that do not change with new theories.
B:
No, scientific laws cannot be changed because laws are unproven theories and do not depend on new theories.
C:
Yes, scientific laws can change if new evidence requires it.
D:
Yes, scientific laws can change with the emergence of new theories that support the previous laws.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot035

ID: 1771@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.116Z

Question:
There is a well-known rule that is sometimes called Bernoulli’s law and sometimes called Bernoulli’s principle. It gives the pressure exerted by a fluid such as air or water flowing over a surface. It applies under very limited circumstances, such as a very smooth flow of the fluid over a smooth surface. According to the discussion in Chapter 1, would it be more appropriate to call this rule a principle or a law, and why?
A:
The rule should be called a scientific law because it is universal.
B:
The rule should be called a scientific law because it is not universal.
C:
The rule should be called a principle because it is universal.
D:
The rule should be called a principle because it is not universal.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot036

ID: 1772@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.134Z

Question:
Describe the difference between an observation and a hypothesis.
A:
An observation is seeing what happens; a hypothesis is a testable educated guess.
B:
An observation is made on the basis of a hypothesis.
C:
Hypothesis and observations are independent of each other.
D:
Hypotheses are conclusions based on observations.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot037

ID: 1773@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.145Z

Question:
Give an example of a hypothesis that cannot be tested experimentally.
A:
The structure of any part of the broccoli is similar to the whole structure of the broccoli.
B:
Ghosts are the souls of people who have died.
C:
The average speed of air molecules increases with temperature.
D:
A vegetarian is less likely to be affected by night blindness.

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ID: 1774@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.156Z

Question:
Why may some conclusions drawn from models be invalid or misleading?
A:
Models cannot replicate each and every aspect of the phenomenon being modeled with 100% accuracy.
B:
If the phenomenon being modeled is associated with tiny particles like atoms, then the conclusions drawn could be misleading, otherwise the conclusions are accurate.
C:
Models cannot replicate the forces involved in the phenomenon being modeled.
D:
Models cannot replicate the shape of atoms accurately.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot039

ID: 1775@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.162Z

Question:
How does a model differ from a theory?
A:
Theories are simplified versions of the real system.
B:
Theories are well-tested explanations of the natural world.
C:
Theories are never based on models.
D:
Models are never based on theories.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot040

ID: 1776@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.173Z

Question:
What determines the validity of a theory?
A:
It is determined by the hypothesis on which the theory is based.
B:
It is determined by the support it has from different experiments.
C:
It is determined by the validity of the model made based on this theory.
D:
It is determined by the number of assumptions made.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot041

ID: 1777@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.190Z

Question:
How does a model differ from a hypothesis?
A:
A model is built based on a hypothesis.
B:
A hypothesis is built based on a model.
C:
A model is a simplified representation of the real system.
D:
A hypothesis is a tool while a model is a statement explaining an observation.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot042

ID: 1778@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.202Z

Question:
Would it be possible to scientifically prove that a supreme being exists or not? Briefly explain your answer.
A:
It can be proved scientifically because it is a testable hypothesis.
B:
It cannot be proved scientifically because it is not a testable hypothesis.
C:
It can be proved scientifically because it is not a testable hypothesis.
D:
It cannot be proved scientifically because it is a testable hypothesis.

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time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot043

ID: 1779@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.213Z

Question:
While watching some ants outside of your house, you notice that the worker ants gather in a specific area on your lawn. Which of the following is a testable hypothesis that attempts to explain why the ants gather in that specific area on the lawn.
A:
The worker thought it was a nice location.
B:
because ants may have to find a spot for the queen to lay eggs
C:
because there may be some food particles lying there
D:
because the worker ants are supposed to group together at a place.

Tags:

time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only blooms-6 k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot044

ID: 1780@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.224Z

Question:
A scientist wishes to model the movement of several stars within a far-off galaxy. What kinds of data should the scientist incorporate into the model?
A:
the size and mass of each star
B:
the distance of each star from the Earth
C:
the effect of gravitational force of Earth on each star
D:
the speed and direction of motion of the star with respect to Earth

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot045

ID: 1781@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.230Z

Question:
Can the validity of a model be limited, or must it be universally valid? How does this compare to the required validity of a theory or a law?
A:
Models, theories and laws must be universally valid.
B:
Models, theories, and laws have only limited validity.
C:
Models have limited validity while theories and laws are universally valid.
D:
Models and theories have limited validity while laws are universally valid.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot046

ID: 1782@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.241Z

Question:
True or False: Black holes are objects in the universe where gravity is so high that our currently known laws of physics may be broken. If humans ever confirm that our physical laws do not apply in a black hole, we should still call them scientific laws.
A:
True
B:
False

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dok3 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot047

ID: 1783@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.253Z

Question:
Before anyone knew what makes the planets move as they do, Kepler analyzed astronomical data and was able to formulate three concise rules about how the planets move, but could not explain why they move as they do. He found these rules supported by all available evidence. What term best applies to the rules Kepler devised?
A:
laws
B:
hypotheses
C:
theories
D:
models

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s02 k12phys-ch01-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot048

ID: 1784@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.264Z

Question:
What is a conversion factor and what is it used for?
A:
A conversion factor is a ratio which shows how many of one unit is equal to another unit and is used when converting from one unit to another.
B:
A conversion factor is the difference between the measurements expressed in two different units of same quantity. It is used to select the most appropriate unit for that particular measurement.
C:
A conversion factor is a power of 10 that is used in converting units.
D:
A conversion factor is a constant value which when added with a unit, coverts it into another unit. It is used for converting units.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot049

ID: 1785@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.282Z

Question:
How many $\text{km/h}$ are equal to $1.0\,\text{m/s}$ ? Show the explicit steps involved in the conversion.
A:
0.60 km/h
B:
3.6 km/h
C:
60 km/h
D:
3600 km/h

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot050

ID: 1786@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.288Z

Question:
Which of the following is not a correct use of SI units?
A:
force of gravity measured in kilograms
B:
length measured in meters
C:
time measured in seconds
D:
temperature measured in kelvins

Tags:

dok1 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot051

ID: 1787@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.299Z

Question:
The speed limit on some interstate highways is roughly $100\,\text{km/h}$ . How many miles per hour is this if $1.0\,\text{mile}$ is about $1.609\,\text{km}$ ?
A:
0.1 mi/h
B:
27.8 mi/h
C:
62 mi/h
D:
160 mi/h

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot052

ID: 1788@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.311Z

Question:
Briefly describe the target patterns for accuracy and precision and explain the differences between the two.
A:
Precision states how much repeated measurements generate the same or closely similar results, while accuracy states how close a measurement is to the true value of the measurement.
B:
Precision states how close a measurement is to the true value of the measurement, while accuracy states how much repeated measurements generate the same or closely similar result.
C:
Precision and accuracy are the same thing. They state how much repeated measurements generate the same or closely similar results.
D:
Precision and accuracy are the same thing. They state how close a measurement is to the true value of the measurement.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot053

ID: 1789@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.323Z

Question:
A good-quality measuring tape can be off by $0.50\,\text{cm}$ over a distance of $20\,\text{m}$ . What is its percent uncertainty in scientific notation?
A:
<span data-math="2.5 \times 10^{-2}\%">2.5 \times 10^{-2}\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.5\times10^0\%">2.5\times10^0\%</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.5\times10^1\%">2.5\times10^1\%</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.5\times10^2\%">2.5\times10^2\%</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot054

ID: 1790@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.336Z

Question:
What is the definition of uncertainty?
A:
Uncertainty is the number of assumptions made prior to the measurement of a physical quantity.
B:
Uncertainty is a measure of error in a measurement due to the use of a non-calibrated instrument.
C:
Uncertainty is a measure of deviation of the measured value from the standard value.
D:
Uncertainty is a measure of error in measurement due to external factors like air friction and temperature.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot055

ID: 1791@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.354Z

Question:
State how many significant figures should be kept in the final result of the following calculation: $(1.60 \times 10^{-19})\times(3712)$
A:
<span data-math="2">2</span>
B:
<span data-math="3">3</span>
C:
<span data-math="4">4</span>
D:
<span data-math="7">7</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot056

ID: 1792@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.366Z

Question:
What is the equation for determining the slope of a plot line?
A:
The slope <span data-math="m">m</span> of a line passing through <span data-math="(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)">(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)</span> is given by <span data-math="m=\frac{x_2 - x_1}{y_2 - y_1}">m=\frac{x_2 - x_1}{y_2 - y_1}</span>.
B:
The slope <span data-math="m">m</span> of a line passing through <span data-math="(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)">(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)</span> is given by <span data-math="m=\frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1}">m=\frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1}</span>.
C:
The slope <span data-math="m">m</span> of a line passing through <span data-math="(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)">(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)</span> is given by <span data-math="m=\frac{x_2 - y_1}{y_2 - x_1}">m=\frac{x_2 - y_1}{y_2 - x_1}</span>.
D:
The slope <span data-math="m">m</span> of a line passing through <span data-math="(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)">(x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)</span> is given by <span data-math="m=\frac{x_1 - y_1}{x_2 - y_2}">m=\frac{x_1 - y_1}{x_2 - y_2}</span>.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot057

ID: 1793@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.378Z

Question:
A line graph is shown with an x-axis and a y-axis. The graphed line is a straight red arrow that points diagonally and upward from the origin. Describe the slope of the line.
A:
The slope of the line is positive and it is constant.
B:
The slope of the line is positive and it is increasing.
C:
The slope of the line is negative and it is constant.
D:
The slope of the line is negative and it is decreasing.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot058

ID: 1794@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.384Z

Question:
A line graph is shown with an x-axis and a y-axis. The graphed line is a straight red arrow that points diagonally and upward from the origin. True or False: The slope of the plot line shown is positive.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot059

ID: 1795@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.401Z

Question:
A line graph is shown with an x-axis and a y-axis. The graphed line is a red arrow that curves upward steeply from the origin. Which relationship does the plot show?
A:
constant
B:
linear
C:
quadratic
D:
cubic

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot060

ID: 1796@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.406Z

Question:
The equation below is for a line. $y = {-4.2}x - 10.0$ Based on the equation, where does the plot line start when $x = 0$ and does the plot show an increasing trend or a decreasing trend as $x$ increases?
A:
Plot line starts at the <span data-math="y">y</span> value of <span data-math="{-10.0}">{-10.0}</span> and decreases with increasing <span data-math="x">x</span> value.
B:
Plot line starts at the <span data-math="y">y</span> value of <span data-math="{-10.0}">{-10.0}</span> and increases with increasing <span data-math="x">x</span> value.
C:
Plot line starts at the <span data-math="y">y</span> value of <span data-math="{-4.2}">{-4.2}</span> and decreases with increasing <span data-math="x">x</span> value.
D:
Plot line starts at the <span data-math="y">y</span> value of <span data-math="{-4.2}">{-4.2}</span> and increases with increasing <span data-math="x">x</span> value.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot061

ID: 1797@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.423Z

Question:
How many $\text{km/h}$ are equal to $1.0\,\text{m/s}$ ? Hint: Carry out the explicit steps involved in the conversion.
A:
0.06 km/h
B:
0.28 km/h
C:
3.60 km/h
D:
16.67 km/h

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot062

ID: 1798@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.434Z

Question:
A car is traveling at a speed of $33\,\text{m/s}$ . What is its speed in kilometers per hour? Is it exceeding the $90\,\text{km/h}$ speed limit?
A:
<span data-math="0.033\,\text{km/h}">0.033\,\text{km/h}</span>; no, it is not exceeding <span data-math="90\,\text{km/h}">90\,\text{km/h}</span>.
B:
<span data-math="0.55\,\text{km/h}">0.55\,\text{km/h}</span>; no, it is not exceeding <span data-math="90\,\text{km/h}">90\,\text{km/h}</span>.
C:
<span data-math="9.2\,\text{km/h}">9.2\,\text{km/h}</span>; no, it is not exceeding <span data-math="90\,\text{km/h}">90\,\text{km/h}</span>.
D:
<span data-math="120\,\text{km/h}">120\,\text{km/h}</span>; yes, it is exceeding <span data-math="90\,\text{km/h}">90\,\text{km/h}</span>.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot063

ID: 1799@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.448Z

Question:
State how many significant figures should be kept in the final result of the following calculation: $\frac{(106.7\,\text{kg})\,(98.2\,\text{m})}{(46.210\,\text{s})\,(1.0\,\text{s})}$
A:
2
B:
4
C:
5
D:
6

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot064

ID: 1800@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.453Z

Question:
A can contains $375\,\text{mL}$ of soda. Using the appropriate number of significant figures, how much soda is left in the can after $308\,\text{mL}$ is poured into a glass?
A:
60 mL
B:
70 mL
C:
67 mL
D:
67.0 mL

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot065

ID: 1801@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.464Z

Question:
Suppose two variables are inversely related and graphing the dependent variable versus the independent variable gives a straight line. Does the line have a negative or a positive slope? Explain your answer.
A:
The line will have a positive slope because the dependent variable increases with the increase in independent variable.
B:
The line will have a negative slope because the dependent variable increases with the increase in independent variable.
C:
The line will have a positive slope because the dependent variable decreases with the increase in the independent variable.
D:
The line will have a negative slope because the dependent variable decreases with the increase in the independent variable.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot066

ID: 1802@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.476Z

Question:
If a logarithmic scale is used on a graph, what can you assume about the range of the data?
A:
The data consist of numbers that are in decimal form.
B:
The data consist of numbers in fractional form.
C:
The data consist of values in exponential form.
D:
The data extend over a wide range of values.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot067

ID: 1803@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.489Z

Question:
The sides of a small rectangular box are measured $1.80\,\text{cm}$ and $2.05\,\text{cm}$ long and $3.1\,\text{cm}$ high. Calculate its volume and uncertainty in cubic centimeters. Assume the measuring device is accurate to $\pm 0.05\,\text{cm}$ .
A:
<span data-math="11.4 \pm 0.1\,\text{cm}^3">11.4 \pm 0.1\,\text{cm}^3</span>
B:
<span data-math="11.4 \pm 0.6\,\text{cm}^3">11.4 \pm 0.6\,\text{cm}^3</span>
C:
<span data-math="11.4 \pm 0.8\,\text{cm}^3">11.4 \pm 0.8\,\text{cm}^3</span>
D:
<span data-math="11.4 \pm 0.10\,\text{cm}^3">11.4 \pm 0.10\,\text{cm}^3</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch01-ot068

ID: 1804@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.502Z

Question:
Refer to Table 3 to determine the average distance between the Earth and the Sun. Calculate the average speed of Earth in its orbit in kilometers per second. What is this in meters per second?
A:
<span data-math="20\,\text{km/s}">20\,\text{km/s}</span>, <span data-math="2 \times 10^4\,\text{m/s}">2 \times 10^4\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="480\,\text{km/h}">480\,\text{km/h}</span>, <span data-math="4.8 \times 10^4\,\text{m/s}">4.8 \times 10^4\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.2 \times 10^4\,\text{km/h}">7.2 \times 10^4\,\text{km/h}</span>, <span data-math="7.2 \times 10^7\,\text{m/s}">7.2 \times 10^7\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="7.3 \times 10^3\,\text{km/h}">7.3 \times 10^3\,\text{km/h}</span>, <span data-math="7.3 \times 10^6\,\text{m/s}">7.3 \times 10^6\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review dok1 blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo04 k12phys-ch01-ot069

ID: 1805@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.519Z

Question:
Calculate the approximate number of atoms in a bacterium. Assume that the average mass of an atom in the bacterium is ten times the mass of a hydrogen atom. (Hint: The mass of a hydrogen atom is on the order of $10^{−27}\text{kg}$ and the mass of a bacterium is on the order of $10^{−15}\text{kg}$ .)
A:
<span data-math="10^{10}\,\text{atoms}">10^{10}\,\text{atoms}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10^{11}\,\text{atoms}">10^{11}\,\text{atoms}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10^{12}\,\text{atoms}">10^{12}\,\text{atoms}</span>
D:
<span data-math="10^{13}\,\text{atoms}">10^{13}\,\text{atoms}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot070

ID: 1806@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.530Z

Question:
A car’s speedometer has a $5.0\%$ uncertainty. What is the range of possible speeds when it reads $90.0\,\text{km/h}$ ? What is this range to miles per hour if $1.0\,\text{km} = 0.6214\,\text{mi}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="85.5\,\text{km/h}">85.5\,\text{km/h}</span> to <span data-math="94.5\,\text{km/h}">94.5\,\text{km/h}</span> or, equivalently, <span data-math="53.1\,\text{mi/h}">53.1\,\text{mi/h}</span> to <span data-math="58.7\,\text{mi/h}">58.7\,\text{mi/h}</span>
B:
<span data-math="90\,\text{km/h}">90\,\text{km/h}</span> to <span data-math="94.5\,\text{km/h}">94.5\,\text{km/h}</span> or, equivalently, <span data-math="55.9\,\text{mi/h}">55.9\,\text{mi/h}</span> to <span data-math="58.7\,\text{mi/h}">58.7\,\text{mi/h}</span>
C:
<span data-math="85\,\text{km/h}">85\,\text{km/h}</span> to <span data-math="95\,\text{km/h}">95\,\text{km/h}</span> or, equivalently, <span data-math="52.8\,\text{mi/h}">52.8\,\text{mi/h}</span> to <span data-math="59.0\,\text{mi/h}">59.0\,\text{mi/h}</span>
D:
<span data-math="90\,\text{km/h}">90\,\text{km/h}</span> to <span data-math="95\,\text{km/h}">95\,\text{km/h}</span> or, equivalently, <span data-math="55.9\,\text{mi/h}">55.9\,\text{mi/h}</span> to <span data-math="59.0\,\text{mi/h}">59.0\,\text{mi/h}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot071

ID: 1807@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.940Z

Question:

A line graph is shown titled Deceleration of a Moving Car on Pavement While Breaking. The x-axis is labeled Time in seconds and has a scale from zero to fifty in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled Speed in kilometers per hour and has a scale from zero to one hundred in increments of ten. A line is plotted with the first point with x equal to zero point zero and y equal to eighty point one and a second point with an x equal to thirty point zero and y equal to zero point zero.

What is the formula, in the $y = mx + b$ form, for the line shown?

A:
y = 2.7x + 80.1
B:
y = - 2.7x + 80.1
C:
y = - 0.37x + 80.1
D:
y = - 0.37x + 30

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot072

ID: 1808@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.946Z

Question:

Two line graphs are shown. Graph A shows a graphical representation the Richter scale and uses a log base 10 scale on its y-axis in microns of amplified maximum ground motion. The x-axis has a scale from negative one through nine and indicates categories of earthquakes. Negative one to two is categorized as Not Felt, two to four is Minor, four to five is Small, five to six is Moderate, six to seven is Strong, seven to eight is Major, and above eight is Great. Graph B shows the relationship between the frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation, plotted as a straight line using a log-log plot. The x-axis is labeled Wavelength in centimeters and has a scale from ten to the power of negative six through ten to the power of negative eight. The y-axis is labeled Frequency with units in s to the power of negative one. Using these units, the y-axis scale is from ten to the power of sixteen through ten to the power of nineteen. The plotted line shows an inverse relationship between frequency and wavelength.

The Richter scale as depicted in the image assigns numbers from 1 to 10 based on how much the ground moves. The earthquake strength is on a log 10 scale. How much larger is a 7.0 earthquake than a 5.0 earthquake?

A:
10 times larger
B:
100 times larger
C:
1000 times larger
D:
10000 times larger

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot073

ID: 1809@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.558Z

Question:
Some hummingbirds beat their wings more than $50$ times per second. A scientist is measuring the time it takes for a hummingbird to beat its wings once. Which SI-base unit (i.e., fundamental unit) should the scientist use to describe the measurement? Which factor equal to a power of $10$ is the scientist likely to use to describe the motion precisely? Identify the metric prefix that corresponds to this factor of $10$ .
A:
The scientist will measure the time between each movement using the fundamental unit of distance. This is because the wings beat so quickly that the scientist will probably measure in millimeters.
B:
The scientist will measure the time between each movement using the fundamental unit of time. This is because the wings beat so quickly that the scientist will probably measure in millimeters.
C:
The scientist will measure the time between each movement using the fundamental unit of distance. This is because the wings beat so quickly that the scientist will probably measure in milliseconds.
D:
The scientist will measure the time between each movement using the fundamental unit of time. This is because the wings beat so quickly that the scientist will probably measure in milliseconds.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 k12phys k12phys-ch01 grasp-check k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch01-ot074

ID: 1810@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.570Z

Question:
A high school track coach has just purchased a new stopwatch that has an uncertainty of $\pm 0.05\,\text{s}$ . Runners on the team regularly clock 100-m sprints in $12.49\,\text{s}$ to $15.01\,\text{s}$ . At the school’s last track meet, the first-place sprinter came in at $12.04\,\text{s}$ and the second-place sprinter came in at $12.07\,\text{s}$ . Will the coach’s new stopwatch be helpful in timing the sprint team? Why or why not?
A:
No, the uncertainty in the stopwatch is too large to effectively differentiate between the sprint times.
B:
No, the uncertainty in the stopwatch is too small to effectively differentiate between the sprint times.
C:
Yes, the uncertainty in the stopwatch is too large to effectively differentiate between the sprint times.
D:
Yes, the uncertainty in the stopwatch is too small to effectively differentiate between the sprint times.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch01 concept k12phys-ch01-s03 k12phys-ch01-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch01-ot075

ID: 1811@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.588Z

Question:
How do the different reference frames affect how you describe the motion of the ball?
A:
motion of the ball is independent of the reference frame and is same for different reference frames
B:
motion of the ball is independent of the reference frame and is different for different reference frames
C:
motion of the ball is dependent on the reference frame and is same for different reference frames
D:
motion of the ball is dependent on the reference frames and is different for different reference frames

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex001

ID: 1812@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.599Z

Question:
Imagine standing on a platform watching a train pass by. According to Galileo’s conclusions, how would your description of motion and the description of motion by a person riding on the train compare?
A:
I would see the train as moving past me, and a person on the train would see me as stationary.
B:
I would see the train as moving past me, and a person on the train would see me as moving past the train.
C:
I would see the train as stationary, and a person on the train would see me as moving past the train.
D:
I would see the train as stationary, and a person on the train would also see me as stationary.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex002

ID: 1813@1

2015-08-20T13:11:28.611Z

Question:
  1. Which measurement is your total distance traveled?
  2. Which measurement is your displacement?
  3. When might you want to use one over the other?
A:
Measurement of the total length of your path from the starting position to the final position gives the distance traveled, and the measurement from your initial position to your final position is the displacement. Use distance to describe the total path between starting and ending points,and use displacement to describe the shortest path between starting and ending points.
B:
Measurement of the total length of your path from the starting position to the final position is distance traveled, and the measurement from your initial position to your final position is displacement. Use distance to describe the shortest path between starting and ending points, and use displacement to describe the total path between starting and ending points.
C:
Measurement from your initial position to your final position is distance traveled, and the measurement of the total length of your path from the starting position to the final position is displacement. Use distance to describe the total path between starting and ending points, and use displacement to describe the shortest path between starting and ending points.
D:
Measurement from your initial position to your final position is distance traveled, and the measurement of the total length of your path from the starting position to the final position is displacement. Use distance to describe the shortest path between starting and ending points, and use displacement to describe the total path between starting and ending points.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex003

ID: 1814@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.640Z

Question:
How does this video help you understand the difference between distance and displacement? Describe two real-world examples of the difference between vectors and scalars.
A:
It explains that distance is a vector and direction is important, whereas displacement is a scalar and it has no direction attached to it.
B:
It explains that distance is a scalar and direction is important, whereas displacement is a vector and it has no direction attached to it.
C:
It explains that distance is a scalar and it has no direction attached to it, whereas displacement is a vector and direction is important.
D:
It explains that both distance and displacement are scalar and no directions are attached to them.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 time-long k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex004

ID: 1815@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.657Z

Question:

A segment is shown, divided into two sections. The first section is labeled change in d two equals plus twelve kilometers and has a right pointing arrow, ending at a label df. The second section is labeled do at the end of it. A left-pointing arrow is above the entire segment and is labeled change in d one equals negative three kilometers. The right of the segment, a left-pointing arrow is shown with a W and a negative sign on the left side and E and a positive sign on the right side. The label do is in the center A cyclist rides $3\,\text{km}$ west and then turns around and rides $2\,\text{km}$ east.

  1. What is her displacement?
  2. What distance does she ride?
  3. What is the magnitude of her displacement?
A:
Displacement is <span data-math="{-5}\,\text{km}">{-5}\,\text{km}</span>, distance is <span data-math="{-1}\,\text{km}">{-1}\,\text{km}</span>, and the magnitude of displacement is <span data-math="5\,\text{km}">5\,\text{km}</span>.
B:
Displacement is <span data-math="{-1}\,\text{km}">{-1}\,\text{km}</span>, distance is <span data-math="1\,\text{km}">1\,\text{km}</span>, and the magnitude of displacement is <span data-math="1\,\text{km}">1\,\text{km}</span>.
C:
Displacement is <span data-math="{-5}\,\text{km}">{-5}\,\text{km}</span>, distance is <span data-math="5\,\text{km}">5\,\text{km}</span>, and the magnitude of displacement is <span data-math="5\,\text{km}">5\,\text{km}</span>.
D:
Displacement is <span data-math="{-1}\,\text{km}">{-1}\,\text{km}</span>, distance is <span data-math="5\,\text{km}">5\,\text{km}</span>, and the magnitude of displacement is <span data-math="1\,\text{km}">1\,\text{km}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ex005

ID: 1816@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.671Z

Question:
On an axis in which moving from right to left is positive, what is the displacement and distance of a student who walks $32\,\text{m}$ to the right and then $17\,\text{m}$ to the left?
A:
Displacement is <span data-math="{-15}\,\text{m}">{-15}\,\text{m}</span> and distance is <span data-math="{-49}\,m">{-49}\,m</span>.
B:
Displacement is <span data-math="{-15}\,\text{m}">{-15}\,\text{m}</span> and distance is <span data-math="49\,\text{m}">49\,\text{m}</span>.
C:
Displacement is <span data-math="15\,\text{m}">15\,\text{m}</span> and distance is <span data-math="{-49}\,\text{m}">{-49}\,\text{m}</span>.
D:
Displacement is <span data-math="15\,\text{m}">15\,\text{m}</span> and distance is <span data-math="49\,\text{m}">49\,\text{m}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ex006 os-practice-problems

ID: 1817@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.677Z

Question:
Tiana jogs 1.5 km along a straight path and then turns and jogs 2.4 km in the opposite direction. She then turns back and jogs 0.7 km in the original direction. Let Tiana’s original direction be the positive direction. What are the displacement and distance she jogged?
A:
Displacement is 4.6 km,and distance is -0.2 km.
B:
Displacement is -0.2 km, and distance is 4.6 km.
C:
Displacement is 4.6 km, and distance is +0.2 km.
D:
Displacement is <span data-math="+0.2\,\text{km}">+0.2\,\text{km}</span>, and distance is <span data-math="4.6\,\text{km}">4.6\,\text{km}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-ex007

ID: 1818@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.696Z

Question:
Why was the scientists’ failure to convert from English units to SI units a problem?
A:
Scientists’ failure to convert English units to SI units caused system failure for the Mars Climate Orbiter.
B:
Scientists’ failure to convert English units to SI units caused a change in external factors, like gravity, acting on the Mars Climate Orbiter.
C:
Scientists’ failure to convert English units to SI units caused a change in the trajectory of the Mars Climate Orbiter.
D:
Scientists’ failure to convert English units to SI units caused a change in the law governing the Mars Climate Orbiter.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ex008

ID: 1819@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.702Z

Question:
What does it mean when motion is described as relative?
A:
It means that motion of any object is described relative to the motion of the Earth.
B:
It means that motion of any object is described relative to the motion of any other object.
C:
It means that motion is independent of the frame of reference.
D:
It means that motion depends on the frame of reference selected.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex009

ID: 1820@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.715Z

Question:
If you and a friend are standing side-by-side watching a soccer game, would you both view the motion from the same reference frame?
A:
Yes, we would both view the motion from the same reference point because both of us are at rest in Earth’s frame of reference.
B:
Yes, we would both view the motion from the same reference point because both of us are observing the motion from two points on the same straight line.
C:
No, we would both view the motion from different reference points because motion is viewed from two different points; the reference frames are similar but not the same.
D:
No, we would both view the motion from different reference points because response times may be different; so, the motion observed by both of us would be different.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex010

ID: 1821@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.740Z

Question:
What is the difference between distance and displacement?
A:
Distance has both magnitude and direction, while displacement has magnitude but no direction.
B:
Distance has magnitude but no direction, while displacement has both magnitude and direction.
C:
Distance has magnitude but no direction, while displacement has only direction.
D:
There is no difference. Both distance and displacement have magnitude and direction.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex011

ID: 1822@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.752Z

Question:
Which situation correctly identifies a race car’s distance traveled and the displacement during a one-lap car race?
A:
The perimeter of the race track is the distance, and the shortest distance between the start line and the finish line is the displacement.
B:
The perimeter of the race track is the displacement, and the shortest distance between the start and finish line is the distance.
C:
The perimeter of the race track is both the distance and displacement.
D:
The shortest distance between the start line and the finish line is both the distance and displacement.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-5 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex012

ID: 1823@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.763Z

Question:
Can one-dimensional motion have both zero distance but a nonzero displacement, and zero displacement but a nonzero distance?
A:
One-dimensional motion can have zero distance with a nonzero displacement. Displacement has both magnitude and direction, and it can also have zero displacement with nonzero distance because distance has only magnitude.
B:
One-dimensional motion can have zero distance with a nonzero displacement. Displacement has both magnitude and direction, but it cannot have zero displacement with nonzero distance because distance has only magnitude.
C:
One-dimensional motion cannot have zero distance with a nonzero displacement. Displacement has both magnitude and direction, but it can have zero displacement with nonzero distance because distance has only magnitude and any motion will be the distance it moves.
D:
One-dimensional motion cannot have zero distance with a nonzero displacement. Displacement has both magnitude and direction, and it cannot have zero displacement with nonzero distance because distance has only magnitude.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex013

ID: 1824@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.781Z

Question:
Boat A and Boat B are traveling at a constant speed in opposite directions when they pass each other. If a person in each boat describes motion based on the boat’s own reference frame, will the description by a person in Boat A of Boat B’s motion be the same as the description by a person in Boat B of Boat A’s motion?
A:
Yes, both persons will describe the same motion because motion is independent of the frame of reference.
B:
Yes, both persons will describe the same motion because they will perceive the other as moving in the backward direction.
C:
No, the motion described by each of them will be different because motion is a relative term.
D:
No, the motion described by each of them will be different because the motion perceived by each will be opposite to each other.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex014

ID: 1825@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.787Z

Question:
In a coordinate system in which the direction to the right is positive, what are the distance and displacement of a person who walks $35\,\text{feet}$ to the left, $18\,\text{feet}$ to the right, and then $26\,\text{feet}$ to the left?
A:
Distance is <span data-math="79\,\text{m}">79\,\text{m}</span> and displacement is <span data-math="{-43}\,\text{m}">{-43}\,\text{m}</span>.
B:
Distance is <span data-math="{-79}\,\text{m}">{-79}\,\text{m}</span> and displacement is <span data-math="43\,\text{m}">43\,\text{m}</span>.
C:
Distance is <span data-math="43\,\text{m}">43\,\text{m}</span> and displacement is <span data-math="{-79}\,\text{m}">{-79}\,\text{m}</span>.
D:
Distance is <span data-math="{-43}\,\text{m}">{-43}\,\text{m}</span> and displacement is <span data-math="79\,\text{m}">79\,\text{m}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex015

ID: 1826@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.804Z

Question:
Billy drops a ball from a height of $1\,\text{m}$ . The ball bounces back to a height of $0.8\,\text{m}$ , then bounces again to a height of $0.5\,\text{m}$ , and bounces once more to a height of $0.2\,\text{m}$ . Up is the positive direction. What are the total displacement of the ball and the total distance traveled by the ball?
A:
The displacement is equal to <span data-math="{-4}\,\text{m}">{-4}\,\text{m}</span> and the distance is equal to <span data-math="4\,\text{m}">4\,\text{m}</span>.
B:
The displacement is equal to <span data-math="4\,\text{m}">4\,\text{m}</span> and the distance is equal to <span data-math="1\,\text{m}">1\,\text{m}</span>.
C:
The displacement is equal to <span data-math="4\,\text{m}">4\,\text{m}</span> and the distance is equal to <span data-math="1\,\text{m}">1\,\text{m}</span>.
D:
The displacement is equal to <span data-math="{-1}\,\text{m}">{-1}\,\text{m}</span> and the distance is equal to <span data-math="4\,\text{m}">4\,\text{m}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex016

ID: 1827@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.816Z

Question:
Why should you specify a reference frame when describing motion?
A:
a description of motion depends on the reference frame
B:
motion appears the same in all reference frames
C:
reference frames affect the motion of an object
D:
you can see motion better from certain reference frames

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex017

ID: 1828@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.822Z

Question:
Which of the following is true for the displacement of an object?
A:
It is always equal to the distance the object moved between its initial and final positions.
B:
It is both the straight line distance the object moved as well as the direction of its motion.
C:
It is the direction the object moved between its initial and final positions.
D:
It is the straight line distance the object moved between its initial and final positions.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex018

ID: 1829@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.839Z

Question:
If a biker rides west for 50 miles from his starting position, then turns and bikes back east 80 miles. What is his net displacement?
A:
130 miles
B:
30 miles east
C:
30 miles west
D:
Cannot be determined from the information given

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ex019

ID: 1830@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.845Z

Question:
While standing on a sidewalk facing the road, a bicyclist travels past toward your right. In the reference frame of the bicyclist, in which direction are you moving?
A:
in the same direction of motion as the bicyclist
B:
in the direction opposite the motion of the bicyclist
C:
stationary with respect to the bicyclist
D:
In the direction of velocity of the bicyclist

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex020

ID: 1831@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.857Z

Question:
Maud sends her bowling ball straight down the center of the lane, getting a strike. The ball is brought back to the holder mechanically. What are the ball’s net displacement and distance traveled?
A:
Displacement of the ball is twice the length of the lane, while the distance is zero.
B:
Displacement of the ball is zero, while the distance is twice the length of the lane.
C:
Both the displacement and distance for the ball are equal to zero.
D:
Both the displacement and distance for the ball are twice the length of the lane.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex021

ID: 1832@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.952Z

Question:
A fly buzzes four and a half times around Kit Yan’s head. The fly ends up on the opposite side from where it started. If the diameter of his head is $14\,\text{cm}$ , what is the total distance the fly travels and its total displacement?
A:
The distance is <span data-math="63\pi\,\text{cm}">63\pi\,\text{cm}</span> with a displacement of zero.
B:
The distance is <span data-math="7\,\text{cm}">7\,\text{cm}</span> with a displacement of zero.
C:
The distance is <span data-math="63\pi\,\text{cm}">63\pi\,\text{cm}</span> with a displacement of <span data-math="14\,\text{cm}">14\,\text{cm}</span>.
D:
The distance is <span data-math="7\,\text{cm}">7\,\text{cm}</span> with a displacement of <span data-math="63\pi\,\text{cm}">63\pi\,\text{cm}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex022

ID: 1833@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.888Z

Question:
An x-axis is shown from zero to twelve in increments of two. It is labeled displacement, x, in meters. Four rays are shown above the axis. Ray A starts at zero and points to the right. Ray B starts at twelve and points to the left. Ray C points to the right, starts at two, and then forms two curves between eight and ten. Ray D points to the left, starts at nine, and curves backward at three. Look at the figure. Find the distance traveled from the starting point for each path. Which path has the maximum distance?
A:
The distance for Path A is 6 m, Path B is 4 m, Path C is 12 m and for Path D is 7 m. The net displacement for Path A is 7 m, Path B is -4m, Path C is 8 m and for Path D is -5m. Path C has maximum distance and it is equal to 12 meters.
B:
The distance for Path A is 6 m, Path B is 4 m, Path C is 8 m and for Path D is 7 m. The net displacement for Path A is 6 m, Path B is -4m, Path C is 12 m and for Path D is -5 m. Path A has maximum distance and it is equal to 6 meters.
C:
The distance for Path A is 6 m, Path B is 4 m, Path C is 12 m and for Path D is 7 m. The net displacement for Path A is 6 m, Path B is -4 m, Path C is 8 m and for Path D is -5 m. Path C has maximum distance and it is equal to 12 meters.
D:
The distance for Path A is <span data-math="6\,\text{m}">6\,\text{m}</span>, Path B is <span data-math="{-4}\,\text{m}">{-4}\,\text{m}</span>, Path C is <span data-math="12\,\text{m}">12\,\text{m}</span> and for Path D is <span data-math="{-5}\,\text{m}">{-5}\,\text{m}</span>. The net displacement for Path A is <span data-math="7\,\text{m}">7\,\text{m}</span>, Path B is <span data-math="4\,\text{m}">4\,\text{m}</span>, Path C is <span data-math="8\,\text{m}">8\,\text{m}</span> and for Path D is <span data-math="7\,\text{m}">7\,\text{m}</span>. Path A has maximum distance and it is equal to <span data-math="6\,\text{meters}">6\,\text{meters}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ex023

ID: 1834@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.893Z

Question:
Alan starts from his home and walks 1.3 km east to the library. He walks an additional 0.68 km east to a music store. From there, he walks 1.1 km north to a friend’s house and an additional 0.42 km north to a grocery store before he finally returns home along the same path. What is his final displacement and total distance traveled?
A:
Displacement is 0 km and distance is 7 km.
B:
Displacement is 0 km and distance is 3.5 km.
C:
Displacement is 7 km towards west and distance is 7 km.
D:
Displacement is 3.5 km towards east and distance is 3.5 km.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ex024

ID: 1835@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.911Z

Question:
A marble rolls 5.2 m in 1.8 s. What was the marble’s average speed?
A:
0.35 m/s
B:
2.9 m/s
C:
7.2 m/s
D:
9.4 m/s

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex025

ID: 1836@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.917Z

Question:
A pitcher throws a baseball from the pitcher’s mound to home plate in 0.46 s. The distance is 18.4 m. What was the average speed of the baseball?
A:
40 m/s
B:
-40 m/s
C:
0.03 m/s
D:
8.5 m/s

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex026

ID: 1837@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.934Z

Question:
Cassie walked to her friend’s house with an average speed of 1.40 m/s. The distance between the houses is 205 m. How long did the trip take her?
A:
146 s
B:
0.01 s
C:
2.50 min
D:
287 s

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex027

ID: 1838@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.940Z

Question:
Which of the following fully describes a vector and a scalar quantity and correctly provides an example of each?
A:
A scalar quantity is fully described by its magnitude, while a vector needs both magnitude and direction to fully describe it. Displacement is an example of a scalar quantity and time is an example of a vector quantity.
B:
A scalar quantity is fully described by its magnitude, while a vector needs both magnitude and direction to fully describe it. Time is an example of a scalar quantity and displacement is an example of a vector quantity.
C:
A scalar quantity is fully described by its magnitude and direction, while a vector needs only magnitude to fully describe it. Displacement is an example of a scalar quantity and time is an example of a vector quantity.
D:
A scalar quantity is fully described by its magnitude and direction, while a vector needs only magnitude to fully describe it. Time is an example of a scalar quantity and displacement is an example of a vector quantity.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex028

ID: 1839@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.956Z

Question:
A student has a displacement of 304 m north in 180 s. What was the student’s average velocity?
A:
1.7 m/s
B:
-1.7 m/s
C:
1.7 m/s south
D:
1.7 m/s north

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex029

ID: 1840@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.962Z

Question:
Layla jogs with an average velocity of 2.4 m/s east. What is her displacement after 46 seconds?
A:
190 m west
B:
190 m east
C:
110 m west
D:
<span data-math="110\,\text{m}">110\,\text{m}</span> east

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex030

ID: 1841@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.974Z

Question:
Phillip walks along a straight path from his house to his school. How long will it take him to get to school if he walks 428 m west at an average velocity of 1.7 m/s west?
A:
2.0 s
B:
2.5 s
C:
<span data-math="2.5 \times 10^1 \,\text{s}">2.5 \times 10^1 \,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.5 \times 10^2\,\text{s}">2.5 \times 10^2\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex031

ID: 1842@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.986Z

Question:
A trucker drives along a straight highway for 0.25 h with a displacement of 16 km south. What is the trucker’s average velocity?
A:
4 km/h north
B:
4 km/h south
C:
64 km/h north
D:
64 km/h south

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex032

ID: 1843@1

2015-08-20T13:11:29.997Z

Question:
A bird flies with an average velocity of 7.5 m/s east from one branch to another in 2.4 s. It then pauses before flying with an average velocity of 6.8 m/s east for 3.5 s to another branch. What is the bird’s total displacement from its starting point?
A:
Displacement is 42 m west
B:
Displacement is 6 m west
C:
Displacement is 6 m east
D:
Displacement is 42 m east

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex033

ID: 1844@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.009Z

Question:
Which situation correctly describes when the moving man’s position was negative but his velocity was positive?
A:
Man moving towards 0 from left of 0.
B:
Man moving towards 0 from right of 0.
C:
Man moving away from 0 from left of 0.
D:
Man moving away from 0 from right of 0.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex034

ID: 1845@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.027Z

Question:
Two runners travel along the same straight path. They start at the same time, and they end at the same time, but at the halfway mark, they have different instantaneous velocities. Is it possible for them to have the same average velocity for the trip?
A:
Yes, because average velocity depends on the net or total displacement.
B:
Yes, because average velocity depends on the total distance traveled.
C:
No, because the velocities of both runners must remain the exactly same throughout the journey.
D:
No, because the instantaneous velocities of the runners must remain same midway but can be different elsewhere.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex035

ID: 1846@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.033Z

Question:
If you divide the total distance traveled on a car trip (as determined by the odometer) by the time for the trip, are you calculating the average speed or the magnitude of the average velocity, and under what circumstances are these two quantities the same?
A:
Average Speed. Both are the same when the car is traveling at a constant speed and changing direction.
B:
Average Speed. Both are the same when the speed is constant and the car does not change its direction.
C:
Magnitude of average velocity. Both are same when the car is traveling at a constant speed.
D:
Magnitude of average velocity. Both are same when the car does not change its direction.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex036

ID: 1847@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.044Z

Question:
When discussing velocity, what variable changes over time?
A:
speed
B:
distance
C:
magnitude of displacement
D:
position vector

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex037

ID: 1848@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.061Z

Question:
You sit in a car that is moving at an average speed of 86.4 km/h. During the 3.3s that you glance out the window, how far has the car traveled?
A:
7.27 m
B:
79 m
C:
285 km
D:
1026 m

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex038

ID: 1849@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.066Z

Question:
Is it possible to determine a car’s instantaneous velocity from just the speedometer reading?
A:
No, it reflects speed but not the direction.
B:
No, it reflects the average speed of the car.
C:
Yes, it sometimes reflects instantaneous velocity of the car.
D:
Yes, it always reflects the instantaneous velocity of the car.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex039

ID: 1850@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.084Z

Question:
Terri, Aaron, and Jamal all walked along straight paths. Terri walked 3.95 km north in 48 min. Aaron walked 2.65 km west in 31 min. Jamal walked 6.50 km south in 81 min. Which of the following correctly ranks the three boys in order from lowest to highest average speed?
A:
Jamal, Terri, Aaron
B:
Jamal, Aaron, Terri
C:
Terri, Jamal, and Aaron.
D:
Aaron, Terri, and Jamal.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex040

ID: 1851@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.095Z

Question:
Four bicyclists travel different distances and times along a straight path. Which cyclist traveled with the greatest average speed?
A:
Cyclist 1 travels <span data-math="95\,\text{m}">95\,\text{m}</span> in <span data-math="27\,\text{s}">27\,\text{s}</span>.
B:
Cyclist 2 travels <span data-math="87\,\text{m}">87\,\text{m}</span> in <span data-math="22\,\text{s}">22\,\text{s}</span>.
C:
Cyclist 3 travels <span data-math="106\,\text{m}">106\,\text{m}</span> in <span data-math="26\,\text{s}">26\,\text{s}</span>.
D:
Cyclist 4 travels <span data-math="108\,\text{m}">108\,\text{m}</span> in <span data-math="24\,\text{s}">24\,\text{s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes blooms-4 dok2 time-short display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex041

ID: 1852@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.107Z

Question:
A car travels with an average velocity of 23 m/s for 82 s. Which of the following could have been the car’s displacement?
A:
1700 m east
B:
1900 m west
C:
1600 m north
D:
1500 m south

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex042

ID: 1853@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.119Z

Question:
Rob drove to the nearest hospital with an average speed of v m/s in t seconds. In terms of t, if he drives home on the same path, but with an average speed of 3v m/s, how long is the return trip home?
A:
t/6
B:
t/3
C:
3t
D:
6t

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex043

ID: 1854@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.131Z

Question:
What can you infer from the statement, “Velocity of an object is zero.”?
A:
Object is in linear motion with constant velocity.
B:
Object is moving at a constant speed.
C:
Object is either at rest or it returns to the initial point.
D:
Object is moving in a straight line without changing its direction.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex044

ID: 1855@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.143Z

Question:
An object has an average speed of 7.4 km/h. Which of the following describes two ways you could increase the average speed of the object to 14.8 km/h?
A:
Reduce the distance that the object travels by half, keeping the time constant, or keep the distance constant and double the time.
B:
Double the distance that the object travels, keeping the time constant, or keep the distance constant and reduce the time by half.
C:
Reduce the distance that the object travels to one-fourth, keeping the time constant, or keep the distance constant and increase the time by fourfold.
D:
Increase the distance by fourfold, keeping the time constant, or keep the distance constant and reduce the time by one-fourth.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex045

ID: 1856@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.149Z

Question:
Swimming one lap in a pool is defined as going across a pool and back again. If a swimmer swims 3 laps in 9 minutes, how can his average velocity be zero?
A:
His average velocity is zero because his total distance is zero.
B:
His average velocity is zero because his total displacement is zero.
C:
His average velocity is zero because the number of laps completed is an odd number.
D:
His average velocity is zero because the velocity of each successive lap is equal and opposite.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex046

ID: 1857@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.167Z

Question:
Two runners start at the same point and jog at a constant speed along a straight path. Runner A starts at time t = 0 s, and Runner B starts at time t = 2.5 s. The runners both reach a distance 64 m from the starting point at time t = 25 s. If the runners continue at the same speeds, how far from the starting point will each be at time t = 45 s?
A:
Runner A will be <span data-math="72 \times 10^3">72 \times 10^3</span> m away and Runner B will be <span data-math="59.5 \times 10^3">59.5 \times 10^3</span> m away from the starting point.
B:
Runner A will be <span data-math="1.2 \times 10^2">1.2 \times 10^2</span> m away and runner B will be <span data-math="1.1 \times 10^2">1.1 \times 10^2</span> m away from the starting point.
C:
Runner A will be <span data-math="1.2 \times 10^2\,\text{m}">1.2 \times 10^2\,\text{m}</span> away and Runner B will be <span data-math="1.3 \times 10^2\,\text{m}">1.3 \times 10^2\,\text{m}</span> away from the starting point.
D:
Runner A will be <span data-math="7.2 \times 10^2\,\text{m}">7.2 \times 10^2\,\text{m}</span> away and Runner B will be <span data-math="1.3 \times 10^2\,\text{m}">1.3 \times 10^2\,\text{m}</span> away from the starting point.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex047

ID: 1858@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.173Z

Question:
A father and his daughter go to the bus stop that is located 75 meters from their front door. The father walks in a straight line while his daughter runs along a varied path. Despite the different paths, they both end up at the bus stop at the same time. The father’s average speed is 2.2 m/s, and his daughter’s average speed is 3.5 m/s. (a) How long does it take the father and daughter to reach the bus stop? (b) What was the daughter’s total distance traveled? (c) If the daughter maintained her same average speed and traveled in a straight line like her father, how far beyond the bus stop would she have traveled?
A:
(a) 21.43 seconds (b) 75 meters (c) 0 meters
B:
(a) 21.43 seconds (b) 119 meters (c) 44 meters
C:
(a) 34 seconds (b) 75 meters (c) 0 meters
D:
(a) 34 seconds (b) 119 meters (c) 44 meters

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex048

ID: 1859@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.191Z

Question:
True or False: The average speed of the ball will be less than the average velocity of the ball.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex049

ID: 1860@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.202Z

Question:
A line graph is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to eight in increments of one. The y-axis is labeled position, d, in meters and has a scale from zero to two thousand four hundred in increments of four hundred. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, four hundred (labeled d o equals four hundred), point five, five hundred twenty-five; and six point four, two thousand (labeled y equals d o plus bar over v times t). The line is labeled Slope equals bar over v equals change in d over change in t. The distance between points point five, five hundred twenty-five and six point four, two thousand is labeled change in t. The distance between points six point four, five hundred twenty-five and six point four, two thousand is labeled change in d. What is the average velocity of the car?
A:
245 m/s
B:
250 m/s
C:
366 m/s
D:
428 m/s

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex050

ID: 1861@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.214Z

Question:
alt text What is the instantaneous velocity of the jet car at a time of $25\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
100 m/s
B:
120 m/s
C:
140 m/s
D:
160 m/s

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex051

ID: 1862@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.220Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to eighty on increments of ten. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to twenty-five in increments of five. The following data points are plotted and connected to form a straight line that slopes upward: zero, three; ten, five; twenty, seven; thirty, ten; forty, twelve; fifty, fifteen; sixty, sixteen; seventy, nineteen. Calculate the average velocity of the object shown in the graph below over the whole time interval.
A:
0.25 m/s
B:
0.31 m/s
C:
3.2 m/s
D:
4.00 m/s

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex052

ID: 1863@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.239Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds with a scale from zero to thirty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled position in meters with a scale from zero to three thousand five hundred in increments of five hundred. Plotted points include zero, two hundred fifty, twenty, one thousand five hundred, and thirty, three thousand. The graphed line curves upward. True or False: By taking the slope of the curve in the graph you can verify that the velocity of the jet car is $115\,\text{m/s}$ at $t = 20\,\text{s}$ .
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes blooms-4 dok2 time-short display-simple-mc k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex053

ID: 1864@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.245Z

Question:
Which of the following information about motion can be determined by looking at a position vs. time graph that is a straight line?
A:
frame of reference
B:
average acceleration
C:
velocity
D:
Direction of force applied

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium dok1 blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex054

ID: 1865@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.257Z

Question:
True or False: The position vs time graph of an object that is speeding up is a straight line.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium dok2 blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex055

ID: 1866@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.269Z

Question:
A line graph titled Runner Position is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to twelve in increments of two. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to fourteen in increments of two. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, six; four, twelve; six, twelve; eight, twelve; ten, twelve. Describe what the runner’s motion looks like. How are average velocity for only the first four seconds and instantaneous velocity related? What is the runner’s net displacement over the time shown?
A:
The net displacement is 12 m and the average velocity is equal to the instantaneous velocity.
B:
The net displacement is 12 m and the average velocity is two times the instantaneous velocity.
C:
The net displacement is 10+12=22 m and the average velocity is equal to the instantaneous velocity.
D:
The net displacement is 10+12=22 m and the average velocity is two times the instantaneous velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex056

ID: 1867@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.280Z

Question:
A line graph is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, t, and the y-axis is labeled position, x. A line is plotted that curves downward with points labeled a, b, c, d, and e. (a) Explain how you can use the graph of position versus time shown below to describe the change in velocity over time. Identify (b) the time $(t_a, \, t_b, \, t_c, \, t_d \text{ or } t_e)$ at which the instantaneous velocity is greatest, (c) the time at which it is zero, and (d) the time at which it is negative.
A:
Instantaneous velocity is greatest at <span data-math="t_a">t_a</span>, zero at <span data-math="t_d">t_d</span> and negative at <span data-math="t_e">t_e</span>.
B:
Instantaneous velocity is greatest at <span data-math="t_e">t_e</span>, zero at <span data-math="t_d">t_d</span> and negative at <span data-math="t_a">t_a</span>.
C:
Instantaneous velocity is greatest at <span data-math="t_d">t_d</span>, zero at <span data-math="t_a">t_a</span> and negative at <span data-math="t_e">t_e</span>.
D:
Instantaneous velocity is greatest at <span data-math="t_b">t_b</span> , zero at <span data-math="t_d">t_d</span> and negative at <span data-math="t_e">t_e</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex057

ID: 1868@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.292Z

Question:
A line graph titled Runner Position is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to twelve in increments of two. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to fourteen in increments of two. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, six; four, twelve; six, twelve; eight, twelve; ten, twelve. Using the graph, what is the average velocity for the whole ten seconds?
A:
The total average velocity is <span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>.
B:
The total average velocity is <span data-math="1.2\,\text{m/s}">1.2\,\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
The total average velocity is <span data-math="1.5\,\text{m/s}">1.5\,\text{m/s}</span>.
D:
The total average velocity is <span data-math="3.0\,\text{m/s}">3.0\,\text{m/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-5 k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex058

ID: 1869@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.304Z

Question:
A train starts from rest and speeds up for 15 minutes until it reaches a constant velocity of 100 miles/hour. It stays at this speed for half an hour. Then it slows down for another 15 minutes until it is still. Which of the following correctly describes the position vs time graph of the train’s journey?
A:
The first 15 minutes is a curve that is concave upward, the middle portion is a straight line with slope 100 miles/hour, and the last portion is a concave downward curve.
B:
The first 15 minutes is a curve that is concave downward, the middle portion is a straight line with slope 100 miles/hour, and the last portion is a concave upward curve.
C:
The first 15 minutes is a curve that is concave upward, the middle portion is a straight line with slope zero, and the last portion is a concave downward curve.
D:
The first 15 minutes is a curve that is concave downward, the middle portion is a straight line with slope zero, and the last portion is a concave upward curve.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-5 k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex059

ID: 1870@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.315Z

Question:
What is the slope of a straight line graph of position vs. time?
A:
the velocity
B:
the displacement
C:
the distance traveled

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex060

ID: 1871@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.327Z

Question:
A line graph titled Runner Position is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to twelve in increments of two. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to fourteen in increments of two. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, six; four, twelve; six, twelve; eight, twelve; ten, twelve. Using the graph, what is the runner’s velocity from $4$ to $10\,\text{seconds}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{-3}\,\text{m/s}">{-3}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.2\,\text{m/s}">1.2\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3\,\text{m/s}">3\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex061

ID: 1872@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.339Z

Question:
A hockey puck is shot down the arena in a straight line. Assume it does not slow until it is stopped by an opposing player who sends it back in the direction it came. The players are 20 meters apart and it takes 1 s for the puck to go there and back. Which of the following describes the graph of the displacement over time?
A:
The graph is an upward facing V.
B:
The graph is a downward facing V.
C:
The graph is an upward facing U.
D:
The graph is downward facing U.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex062

ID: 1873@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.351Z

Question:
A defensive player kicks a soccer ball 20 meters back to her own goalie. It stops just as it reaches her. She sends it back to the player. Without knowing the time it takes, draw a rough sketch of the displacement over time. Does this graph look similar to the graph of the hockey puck from the previous question?
A:
Yes, the graph is similar to the graph of the hockey puck.
B:
No, the graph is not similar to the graph of the hockey puck.
C:
The graphs cannot be compared without knowing the time the soccer ball was rolling.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex063

ID: 1874@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.369Z

Question:
What are the net displacement, total distance traveled, and total average velocity in the previous two problems?
A:
Net displacement = 0 m, Total distance = 20 m, total average velocity = 20 m/s
B:
Net displacement = 0 m, Total distance = 40 m, total average velocity = 20 m/s
C:
Net displacement = 0 m, Total distance = 20 m, total average velocity = 0 m/s
D:
Net displacement = 0 m, Total distance = 40 m, total average velocity = 0 m/s

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex064

ID: 1875@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.375Z

Question:
A bee flies straight at someone and then back to its hive along the same path. Assuming it takes no time for the bee to speed up or slow down, except at the moment it changes direction, how would the graph of position vs time look?
A:
The graph will look like a downward V shape.
B:
The graph will look like an upward V shape.
C:
The graph will look like a downward parabola.
D:
The graph will look like an upward parabola.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex065

ID: 1876@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.386Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to twenty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled position in kilometers and has a scale from zero to four point eighty-two in increments of two tenths. The following data points are plotted and connected to form a line that curves upward: zero, four point seven; ten, four point seven two; twenty, four point eight. What kind of motion would create a position graph like the one above?
A:
uniform motion
B:
any motion that accelerates
C:
motion that stops and then starts
D:
motion that has constant velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex066

ID: 1877@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.403Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to seven in increments of one. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from negative four to three in increments of two tenths. The following data points are plotted and connected to form a line that zigzags up and down: zero, zero; two, two; three, negative three; five, negative three, six, negative two. What is the average velocity for the whole time period shown?
A:
<span data-math="{-\frac{1}{3}}\,\text{m/s}">{-\frac{1}{3}}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-\frac{3}{4}}\,\text{m/s}">{-\frac{3}{4}}\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\frac{1}{3}\,\text{m/s}">\frac{1}{3}\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\frac{3}{4}\,\text{m/s}">\frac{3}{4}\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex067

ID: 1878@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.409Z

Question:
In which setting, displacement or velocity, can the ball be easily manipulated and why?
A:
The ball can be easily manipulated with displacement because the arena is a position space.
B:
The ball can be easily manipulated with velocity because the arena is a position space.
C:
The ball can be easily manipulated with displacement because the arena is a velocity space.
D:
The ball can be easily manipulated with velocity because the arena is a velocity space.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex068

ID: 1879@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.426Z

Question:
A line graph titled Jet Car Velocity is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, t, in seconds and has a scale from zero to forty in increments of ten. The y-axis is labeled velocity, v, in meters per second and has a scale from zero to one hundred eighty in increments of twenty. A straight line with a positive slope is plotted that intersects the following approximate points: zero, eighteen; ten, sixty (labeled P); fifteen, ninety; twenty, one hundred twenty; twenty five, one hundred fifty (labeled Q); thirty, one hundred sixty. Slope equals a is shown above the graphed lined. Consider the graph. What is the rate of change of the velocity (acceleration) and the average velocity over the interval shown?
A:
The acceleration is <span data-math="0 \,\text{m/s}^2">0 \,\text{m/s}^2</span> and average velocity is 90 m/s.
B:
The acceleration is <span data-math="5 \,\text{m/s}^2">5 \,\text{m/s}^2</span> and average velocity is 160 m/s.
C:
The acceleration is <span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}^2\!">0\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>, and average velocity is <span data-math="160\,\text{m/s}">160\,\text{m/s}</span>.
D:
The acceleration is <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}^2\!">5\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>, and average velocity is <span data-math="90\,\text{m/s}">90\,\text{m/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex069

ID: 1880@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.437Z

Question:
A line graph titled Jet Car Velocity is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, t, in seconds and has a scale from zero to eighty in increments of ten. The y-axis is labeled velocity, v, in meters per second and has a scale from one hundred sixty to two hundred sixty in increments of ten. The following approximate data points are plotted and connected to form a line that curves upward, and then becomes flat: zero, one hundred sixty five; ten, two hundred ten; twenty, two hundred thirty; thirty, two hundred forty; forty, two hundred forty-five; fifty, two hundred forty-five; sixty, two hundred forty-five; seventy, two hundred forty-five. A right triangle is drawn, with a hypotenuse that intersects points twenty, two hundred thirty and thirty, two hundred forty. The bottom leg of the triangle has ends at points zero, two hundred ten and fifty, two hundred ten and is labeled change in t. The upright leg has ends at points fifty, two hundred ten and fifty, two hundred sixty and is labeled change in v. Use the graph to calculate the instantaneous acceleration at $t = 30\,\text{s}$ and calculate the approximate average velocity over the interval shown.
A:
The instantaneous acceleration at <span data-math="30\,\text{s}">30\,\text{s}</span> is <span data-math="{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2\!">{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>, and average velocity is <span data-math="165\,\text{m/s}">165\,\text{m/s}</span>.
B:
The instantaneous acceleration at <span data-math="30\,\text{s}">30\,\text{s}</span> is <span data-math="1\,\text{m/s}^2\!">1\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>, and average velocity is <span data-math="165\,\text{m/s}">165\,\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
The instantaneous acceleration at <span data-math="30\,\text{s}">30\,\text{s}</span> is <span data-math="{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2\!">{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span> and the average velocity is <span data-math="233\,\text{m/s}">233\,\text{m/s}</span>.
D:
The instantaneous acceleration at <span data-math="30\,\text{s}">30\,\text{s}</span> is <span data-math="1\,\text{m/s}^2\!">1\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>, and average velocity is <span data-math="233\,\text{m/s}">233\,\text{m/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex070

ID: 1881@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.449Z

Question:
A line graph titled Velocity versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, t, in seconds and has a scale from zero to twenty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled velocity, v, in meters per second and has a scale from zero to four in increments of point five. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; five, three; ten, three; fifteen, three; twenty, three; twenty-three, zero. Consider the velocity vs. time graph shown below of a person in an elevator. Suppose the elevator is initially at rest. It then speeds up for $3\,\text{seconds}$ , maintains that velocity for $15\,\text{seconds}$ , then slows down for $5\,\text{seconds}$ until it stops. Find the instantaneous velocity at $t = 10\,\text{s}$ and $t = 23\,\text{s}$ .
A:
Instantaneous velocity at <span data-math="t = 10\,\text{s}">t = 10\,\text{s}</span> and <span data-math="t = 23\,\text{s}">t = 23\,\text{s}</span> are <span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>.
B:
Instantaneous velocity at <span data-math="t = 10\,\text{s}">t = 10\,\text{s}</span> and <span data-math="t = 23\,\text{s}">t = 23\,\text{s}</span> are <span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="35\,\text{m/s}">35\,\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
Instantaneous velocity at <span data-math="t = 10\,\text{s}">t = 10\,\text{s}</span> and <span data-math="t = 23\,\text{s}">t = 23\,\text{s}</span> are <span data-math="35\,\text{m/s}">35\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>.
D:
Instantaneous velocity at <span data-math="t = 10\,\text{s}">t = 10\,\text{s}</span> and <span data-math="t = 23\,\text{s}">t = 23\,\text{s}</span> are <span data-math="35\,\text{m/s}">35\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="15\,\text{m/s}">15\,\text{m/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex071

ID: 1882@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.455Z

Question:
A line graph titled Velocity versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, t, in seconds and has a scale from zero to twenty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled velocity, v, in meters per second and has a scale from zero to four in increments of point five. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; five, three; ten, three; fifteen, three; twenty, three; twenty-three, zero. Calculate the net displacement and the average velocity of the elevator over the time interval shown.
A:
Net displacement is <span data-math="525\,\text{m}">525\,\text{m}</span> and average velocity is <span data-math="21.0\,\text{m/s}">21.0\,\text{m/s}</span>.
B:
Net displacement is <span data-math="525\,\text{m}">525\,\text{m}</span> and average velocity is <span data-math="22.8\,\text{m/s}">22.8\,\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
Net displacement is <span data-math="665\,\text{m}">665\,\text{m}</span> and average velocity is <span data-math="26.6\,\text{m/s}">26.6\,\text{m/s}</span>.
D:
Net displacement is <span data-math="665\,\text{m}">665\,\text{m}</span> and average velocity is <span data-math="28.9\,\text{m/s}">28.9\,\text{m/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex072

ID: 1883@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.467Z

Question:
Describe the graph and explain what it means in terms of velocity and acceleration.
A:
The graph shows a horizontal line indicating that the ball moved with a constant velocity, that is, it was not accelerating.
B:
The graph shows a horizontal line indicating that the ball moved with a constant velocity, that is, it was accelerating.
C:
The graph shows a horizontal line indicating that the ball moved with a variable velocity, that is, it was not accelerating.
D:
The graph shows a horizontal line indicating that the ball moved with a variable velocity, that is, it was accelerating.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex073

ID: 1884@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.484Z

Question:
What information could you obtain by looking at a velocity vs. time graph?
A:
acceleration
B:
direction of motion
C:
reference frame of the motion
D:
shortest path

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex074

ID: 1885@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.490Z

Question:
How would you use a position vs. time graph to construct a velocity vs. time graph and vice versa?
A:
Slope of position vs. time curve is used to construct velocity vs. time curve, and slope of velocity vs. time curve is used to construct position vs. time curve.
B:
Slope of position vs. time curve is used to construct velocity vs. time curve, and area of velocity vs. time curve is used to construct position vs. time curve.
C:
Area of position vs. time curve is used to construct velocity vs. time curve, and slope of velocity vs. time curve is used to construct position vs. time curve.
D:
Area of position/time curve is used to construct velocity vs. time curve, and area of velocity vs. time curve is used to construct position vs. time curve.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-5 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex075

ID: 1886@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.502Z

Question:
A basic line graph is shown. The horizontal axis is labeled t and the vertical axis is labeled v. The graphed line is flat about three-quarters of the way up the vertical axis, and then it slopes downward in two sections. The first section is a steeper slope than the second section. A graph of velocity vs. time of a ship coming into a harbor is shown below. Describe the motion of the ship based on the graph.
A:
The ship is moving in the forward direction at a steady rate. Then it accelerates in the forward direction and continues to slow down in the forward direction.
B:
The ship is moving in the forward direction at a steady rate. Then it turns and starts slowing down in the reverse direction. It then continues to speed up in the reverse direction, but slowly.
C:
The ship is moving in the forward direction at a steady rate. Then it slows down in the forward direction and continues to slow down in the forward direction but at a slower rate.
D:
The ship is moving forward at a steady rate. Then it starts speeding up in the reverse direction. Then it reduces its acceleration, but it is still accelerating in the reverse direction.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-5 k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex076

ID: 1887@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.519Z

Question:
A line graph is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, t and the y-axis is labeled position, x. A line is plotted that curves downward, and then upward, and then downward, and then upward again with points labeled a, through l. Sketch a graph of velocity versus time corresponding to the graph of displacement versus time given in the figure below. Identify the time, or times, at which the instantaneous velocity is greatest, and the time, or times, at which it is negative.
A:
The instantaneous velocity is greatest at “f”, and it is negative at “d”, “h”, “I”, “j”, and “k”.
B:
The instantaneous velocity is greatest at “e”, and it is negative at “a”, “b”, and “f”.
C:
The instantaneous velocity is greatest at “f”, and it is negative at “d”, “h”, “I”, “j”, and “k”
D:
The instantaneous velocity is greatest at “d”, and it is negative at “a”, “b”, and “f”.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex077

ID: 1888@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.525Z

Question:
A line graph titled Velocity versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to eighty in increments of ten. The y-axis is labeled velocity, v, in meters per second and has a scale from zero to three hundred in increments of fifty. A line is plotted that curves upward slightly and intersects the following approximate data points: zero, one hundred sixty; thirty, two hundred forty; seventy, two hundred fifty; eighty, two hundred fifty. What is the approximate average acceleration from 50 to 70 s?
A:
zero
B:
nonzero constant
C:
equal to final velocity
D:
equal to initial velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex078

ID: 1889@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.536Z

Question:
A line graph titled Velocity versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to eighty in increments of ten. The y-axis is labeled velocity, v, in meters per second and has a scale from zero to three hundred in increments of fifty. A line is plotted that curves upward slightly and intersects the following approximate data points: zero, one hundred sixty; thirty, two hundred forty; seventy, two hundred fifty; eighty, two hundred fifty. Calculate the net displacement using $7$ different divisions. Calculate it again using two divisions: $0 \rightarrow 40\,\text{s}$ and $40 \rightarrow 70\,\text{s}$ . Compare. Using both, calculate the average velocity.
A:
Displacement and average velocity using <span data-math="7">7</span> divisions are <span data-math="14\text{,}312.5\,\text{m}">14\text{,}312.5\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="204.5\,\text{m/s}">204.5\,\text{m/s}</span> while with <span data-math="2">2</span> divisions are <span data-math="15\text{,}500\,\text{m}">15\text{,}500\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="221.4\,\text{m/s}">221.4\,\text{m/s}</span> respectively.
B:
Displacement and average velocity using <span data-math="7">7</span> divisions are <span data-math="15\text{,}500\,\text{m}">15\text{,}500\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="221.4\,\text{m/s}">221.4\,\text{m/s}</span> while with <span data-math="2">2</span> divisions are <span data-math="14\text{,}312.5\,\text{m}">14\text{,}312.5\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="204.5\,\text{m/s}">204.5\,\text{m/s}</span> respectively.
C:
Displacement and average velocity using <span data-math="7">7</span> divisions are <span data-math="15\text{,}500\,\text{m}">15\text{,}500\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="204.5\,\text{m/s}">204.5\,\text{m/s}</span> while with <span data-math="2">2</span> divisions are <span data-math="14\text{,}312.5\,\text{m}">14\text{,}312.5\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="221.4\,\text{m/s}">221.4\,\text{m/s}</span> respectively.
D:
Displacement and average velocity using <span data-math="7">7</span> divisions are <span data-math="14\text{,}312.5\,\text{m}">14\text{,}312.5\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="221.4\,\text{m/s}">221.4\,\text{m/s}</span> while with <span data-math="2">2</span> divisions are <span data-math="15\text{,}500\,\text{m}">15\text{,}500\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="204.5\,\text{m/s}">204.5\,\text{m/s}</span> respectively.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-5 k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex079

ID: 1890@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.554Z

Question:
What is the area under a velocity vs. time graph line?
A:
acceleration
B:
displacement
C:
distance
D:
instantaneous velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex080

ID: 1891@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.565Z

Question:
A velocity vs. time graph starts at $0$ and ends at $10\,\text{m/s}$ , stretching over a time-span of $15\,\text{s}$ . What is the object’s net displacement?
A:
<span data-math="75\,\text{m}">75\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="130\,\text{m}">130\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="150\,\text{m}">150\,\text{m}</span>
D:
cannot be determined from the information given

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex081

ID: 1892@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.571Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds with a scale from zero to thirty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled position in meters with a scale from zero to three thousand five hundred in increments of five hundred. Plotted points include zero, two hundred fifty, twenty, one thousand five hundred, and thirty, three thousand. The graphed line curves upward. What would the velocity vs. time graph of the object whose position is shown in the graph look like?
A:
It is a straight line with negative slope.
B:
It is a straight line with positive slope.
C:
It is a horizontal line at some negative value.
D:
It is a horizontal line at some positive value.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex082

ID: 1893@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.588Z

Question:
A line graph titled velocity versus time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, s, in seconds and has a scale from zero to thirty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per second and has a scale from zero to one hundred eighty in increments of twenty. A line is plotted that intersects the following approximate data points: zero, eighteen; five, forty; ten, sixty-two; fifteen, ninety-two; twenty, one hundred eighteen; twenty-five, one hundred forty-two; thirty, one hundred seventy. Which of the following correctly describes if this object speeding up, and what would a graph of acceleration vs. time look like?
A:
The object is not speeding up, and the acceleration vs. time graph is a horizontal line at some negative value.
B:
The object is not speeding up, and the acceleration vs. time graph is a horizontal line at some positive value.
C:
The object is speeding up, and the acceleration vs. time graph is a horizontal line at some negative value.
D:
The object is speeding up, and the acceleration vs. time graph is a horizontal line at some positive value.

Tags:

inbook-yes blooms-4 dok2 time-short display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex083

ID: 1894@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.599Z

Question:
A line graph titled velocity versus time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, s, in seconds and has a scale from zero to thirty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per second and has a scale from zero to one hundred eighty in increments of twenty. A line is plotted that intersects the following approximate data points: zero, eighteen; five, forty; ten, sixty-two; fifteen, ninety-two; twenty, one hundred eighteen; twenty-five, one hundred forty-two; thirty, one hundred seventy. Calculate that object’s net displacement over the time shown.
A:
540 m
B:
2520 m
C:
2790 m
D:
5040 m

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex084

ID: 1895@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.605Z

Question:
What is the object’s average velocity?
A:
18 m/s
B:
84 m/s
C:
93 m/s
D:
168 m/s

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex085

ID: 1896@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.617Z

Question:
A line graph is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, t, and the y-axis is labeled velocity, v. A line is plotted that curves upward, and then downward, and then upward, and then downward with points labeled a through l. Consider the motion of the object whose velocity is charted in the above graph. During which points is the object slowing down and speeding up?
A:
It is slowing down between “d” and “e”. It is speeding up between “a” and “d” and “e” and “h”
B:
It is slowing down between “a” and “d” and “e” and “h”. It is speeding up between “d” and “e” and then after “i”.
C:
It is slowing down between “d” and “e” and then after “h”. It is speeding up between “a” and “d” and “e” and “h”.
D:
It is slowing down between “a” and “d” and “e” and “h”. It is speeding up between “d” and “e” and then after “i”.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ex086

ID: 1897@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.634Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to twenty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to thirty in increments of five. The following data points are plotted and connected to form a line that curves upward, and then downward, and then upward again: zero, zero; three, ten; five, seventeen; ten, three; thirteen, three; fifteen, five; twenty, twenty-five. Divide the graph up into approximate sections and use that to graph the velocity versus time of the object. Then calculate the acceleration during each section, and calculate the approximate average velocity.
A:
Acceleration is zero and average velocity is <span data-math="1.25\,\text{m/s}">1.25\,\text{m/s}</span>.
B:
Acceleration is constant with some positive value and average velocity is <span data-math="1.25\,\text{m/s}">1.25\,\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
Acceleration is zero and average velocity is <span data-math="0.25\,\text{m/s}">0.25\,\text{m/s}</span>.
D:
Acceleration is constant with some positive value and average velocity is <span data-math="0.25\,\text{m/s}">0.25\,\text{m/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ex087

ID: 1898@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.640Z

Question:
John walks $42\,\text{m}$ east and then $85\,\text{m}$ west. What are the distance and displacement that John traveled?
A:
John’s distance is <span data-math="127\,\text{m}">127\,\text{m}</span> towards east and his displacement is <span data-math="43\,\text{m}">43\,\text{m}</span>.
B:
John’s distance is <span data-math="127\,\text{m}">127\,\text{m}</span> towards west and his displacement is <span data-math="43\,\text{m}">43\,\text{m}</span>.
C:
John’s distance is <span data-math="127\,\text{m}">127\,\text{m}</span> and his displacement is <span data-math="43\,\text{m}">43\,\text{m}</span> towards east.
D:
John’s distance is <span data-math="127\,\text{m}">127\,\text{m}</span> and his displacement is <span data-math="43\,\text{m}">43\,\text{m}</span> towards west.

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-ot001

ID: 1899@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.656Z

Question:
A lion runs $62.4\,\text{m}$ to the left and then turns and walks back to the right $32.8\,\text{m}$ . Let rightward be the positive direction. What are the lion’s distance traveled and its displacement?
A:
Distance = <span data-math="95.2\,\text{m}">95.2\,\text{m}</span>, Displacement = <span data-math="{-95.2}\,\text{m}">{-95.2}\,\text{m}</span>
B:
Distance = <span data-math="95.2\,\text{m}">95.2\,\text{m}</span>, Displacement = <span data-math="29.6\,\text{m}">29.6\,\text{m}</span>
C:
Distance = <span data-math="95.2\,\text{m}">95.2\,\text{m}</span>, Displacement = <span data-math="95.2\,\text{m}">95.2\,\text{m}</span>
D:
Distance = <span data-math="95.2\,\text{m}">95.2\,\text{m}</span>, Displacement = <span data-math="{-29.6}\,\text{m}">{-29.6}\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-ot002

ID: 1900@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.668Z

Question:
What are the displacement and distance traveled for a police officer who walks 3 blocks north, then 5 blocks south, then 4 blocks north, and finally 8 blocks south?
A:
Displacement is -20 blocks, and distance is -20 blocks.
B:
Displacement is -20 blocks, and distance is 20 blocks.
C:
Displacement is -6 blocks, and distance is -20 blocks.
D:
Displacement is -6 blocks, and distance is 20 blocks.

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-ot003

ID: 1901@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.673Z

Question:
On an axis in which movement to the left is positive, what is the displacement and distance walked for a student who walks $25\,\text{m}$ to the left, then $30\,\text{m}$ to the right, then $40\,\text{m}$ to the left, and then $25\,\text{m}$ to the right?
A:
Displacement is <span data-math="{-10}\,\text{m}">{-10}\,\text{m}</span>, and distance is <span data-math="{-120}\,\text{m}">{-120}\,\text{m}</span>.
B:
Displacement is <span data-math="{-10}\,\text{m}">{-10}\,\text{m}</span>, and distance is <span data-math="120\,\text{m}">120\,\text{m}</span>.
C:
Displacement is <span data-math="10\,\text{m}">10\,\text{m}</span>, and distance is <span data-math="{-120}\,\text{m}">{-120}\,\text{m}</span>.
D:
Displacement is <span data-math="10\,\text{m}">10\,\text{m}</span>, and distance is <span data-math="120\,\text{m}">120\,\text{m}</span>.

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-ot004

ID: 1902@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.691Z

Question:
Why is it important to specify a reference frame when describing motion?
A:
Because Earth is continuously in motion; an object at rest on Earth will be in motion when viewed from outer space.
B:
Because the position of a moving object can be defined only when there is a fixed reference frame.
C:
Because motion is a relative term; it appears differently when viewed from different reference frames.
D:
Because motion is always described in Earth’s frame of reference; if another frame is used, it has to be specified with each situation.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot005

ID: 1903@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.702Z

Question:
Imagine watching your friend drive past in a moving car. How would your reference frame change if instead you were in the car along with your friend?
A:
When you stand near the moving car, your friend appears to be moving. If you sit along with your friend in the car, then to you he appears to be stationary.
B:
When you stand near the moving car, your friend appears to be moving. If you sit along with your friend, then your friend appears to be moving away from you.
C:
When you stand near the moving car, your friend appears to be moving. If you sit along with your friend, then your friend appears to be moving towards you.
D:
When you stand near the moving car, your friend appears to be moving. If you sit along with your friend, then there is no change in the reference frame.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok1 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot006

ID: 1904@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.708Z

Question:
Which set of statements describes the same motion from different reference frames?
A:
I see a bird flying and landing on a branch. In the bird’s frame of reference, the branch is moving away from the bird.
B:
I see a bird flying and landing on a branch. In the bird’s frame of reference, the branch is moving towards the bird.
C:
I see a bird flying and landing on a branch. In the bird’s frame of reference, the same motion is observed.
D:
I see a bird flying and landing on a branch. In the bird’s frame of reference, the branch is stationary as the bird is moving.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok1 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot007

ID: 1905@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.725Z

Question:
In which example would you be correct in describing an object in motion while your friend would also be correct in describing that same object as being at rest?
A:
You are driving a car towards the east and your friend drives past you in the opposite direction with the same speed. In your frame of reference, you will be in motion. In your friend’s frame of reference,you will be at rest.
B:
You are driving a car towards the east and your friend is standing at the bus stop. In your frame of reference, you will be in motion. In your friend’s frame of reference, you will be at rest.
C:
You are driving a car towards the east and your friend is standing at the bus stop. In your frame of reference,your friend will be moving towards the west. In your friend’s frame of reference, he will be at rest.
D:
You are driving a car towards the east and your friend is standing at the bus stop. In your frame of reference,your friend will be moving towards the east. In your friend’s frame of reference,hewill be at rest.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot008

ID: 1906@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.737Z

Question:
What does your car’s odometer record?
A:
displacement
B:
distance
C:
both distance and displacement
D:
the sum of distance and displacement

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot009

ID: 1907@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.742Z

Question:
If you were being chased by an alligator, you might run in a zigzag manner to avoid being bitten. Assume that the straight-line distance between where the alligator starts chasing you and the nearest climbable tree is 5 meters. What is your total displacement, and is it the same as the distance you ran?
A:
Displacement is more than 5 meters. Yes, it is the same as distance.
B:
Displacement is more than 5 meters. No, it is not the same as distance.
C:
Displacement is 5 meters. Yes, it is the same as distance.
D:
Displacement is 5 meters. No, it is not the same as distance.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot010

ID: 1908@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.754Z

Question:
If you launched a rocket that reached a height of 50 meters, what would be its total displacement at the top of its path?
A:
-50 meters
B:
-0 meters
C:
0 meters
D:
50 meters

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot011

ID: 1909@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.765Z

Question:
Which example provides a correct relationship between distance and displacement?
A:
When you raced on a circular track and finished where you started, your distance was zero while displacement was equal to the circumference of the track.
B:
When you raced on a circular track and finished where you started, your displacement was zero while distance was equal to the circumference of the track.
C:
When you raced on a circular track and finished where you started, your displacement and distance both were equal to zero.
D:
When you raced on a circular track and finished where you started, your displacement and distance both were equal to the circumference of the track.

Tags:

time-medium dok1 display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot012

ID: 1910@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.777Z

Question:
Is it possible to have a description of motion without a frame of reference?
A:
No, because motion is absolute.
B:
Yes, because motion is absolute.
C:
No, because motion is relative.
D:
Yes, because motion is relative.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot013

ID: 1911@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.794Z

Question:
If you throw a ball vertically upward that reached a height of 50 meters and then catch it at the same point from where it was thrown, what would be its total displacement and distance?
A:
Displacement is 0 meters, and distance is 50 meters.
B:
Displacement is 0 meters, and distance is 100 meters.
C:
Displacement is 50 meters, and distance is 50 meters.
D:
Displacement is 50 meters, and distance is 100 meters.

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot014

ID: 1912@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.806Z

Question:
Passenger A sits inside a moving train and throws a ball vertically upward. How would the motion of the ball be described by a fellow train passenger B and an observer C who is standing on the platform outside the train?
A:
Passenger B sees that the ball has vertical, but no horizontal, motion. Observer C sees the ball has vertical as well as horizontal motion.
B:
Passenger B sees the ball has vertical as well as horizontal motion. Observer C sees the ball has the vertical, but no horizontal, motion.
C:
Passenger B sees the ball has horizontal but no vertical motion. Observer C sees the ball has vertical as well as horizontal motion.
D:
Passenger B sees the ball has vertical as well as horizontal motion. Observer C sees the ball has horizontalbut no vertical motion.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot015

ID: 1913@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.817Z

Question:
A passenger is running inside a stationary train with some speed and looks at the person standing on the platform. Describe the motion of the person standing on the platform with respect to the running passenger.
A:
The passenger in the train would see the person standing on the platform moving in the same direction as the passenger.
B:
The passenger in the train would see the person standing on the platform moving in the opposite direction as the passenger.
C:
The passenger in the train would see the person standing still on the platform as there is no relative motion betweenthe two of them.
D:
The passenger in the train would see the person standing still on the platform as there is relative motion betweenthe two of them.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot016

ID: 1914@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.828Z

Question:
How can you tell that an object is in motion?
A:
When there is a change in the background and position of the moving object with respect to the frame of reference.
B:
When there is change in the background and no change in the position of the moving object with respect to the frame of reference.
C:
When there is no change in the background and change in the position of the moving object with respect to the frame of reference.
D:
When there is no change in the background or the position of the moving object with respect to the frame of reference.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot017

ID: 1915@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.840Z

Question:
Suppose a train is moving along a track. Is there a single, correct reference frame from which to describe the train’s motion?
A:
Yes, there is a single, correct frame of reference because motion is a relative term.
B:
Yes, there is a single, correct frame of reference which is in terms of Earth’s position.
C:
No, there is not a single, correct frame of reference because motion is a relative term.
D:
No, there is not a single, correct frame of reference because motion is independent of frame of reference.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot018

ID: 1916@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.851Z

Question:
If a space shuttle orbits the Earth once, what is the shuttle’s distance traveled and displacement?
A:
Distance and displacement both are zero.
B:
Distance is circumference of the circular orbit while displacement is zero.
C:
Distance is zero while the displacement is circumference of the circular orbit.
D:
Distance and displacement both are equal to circumference of the circular orbit.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot019

ID: 1917@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.863Z

Question:
Which answer provides the best description and supporting example of how you normally describe everyday motion?
A:
I normally describe motion from my reference frame. For example, in a basketball game I describe the ball as moving toward or away from me.
B:
I normally describe motion from my reference frame. For example, in a basketball game I describe the ball as moving toward or away from the basket.
C:
I normally describe motion from another reference frame. For example, in a basketball game I describe the ball as moving toward or away from me.
D:
I normally describe motion from another reference frame. For example, in a basketball game I describe the ball as moving toward or away from the basket.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review blooms-2 display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot020

ID: 1918@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.868Z

Question:
Terry walks south 39 m, then north 27 m, and then north again 16 m. What are the distance and displacement of her motion?
A:
Terry covers a total distance of 82 m, and her displacement is 4 m towards east.
B:
Terry covers a total distance of 82 m, and her displacement is 4 m towards west.
C:
Terry covers a total distance of 82 m, and her displacement is 4 m towards north.
D:
Terry covers a total distance of 82 m, and her displacement is 4 m towards south.

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ot021

ID: 1919@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.880Z

Question:
A snail moves 12.8 cm west and then 6.1 cm east. The snail then moves west again for 7.8 cm. What is the snail’s displacement and total distance moved?
A:
The displacement is 14.5 cm towards west, and the distance is 14.5 cm.
B:
The displacement is 14.5 cm towards west, and the distance is 26.7 cm.
C:
The displacement is 14.5 cm towards east, and the distance is 14.5 cm.
D:
The displacement is 14.5 cm towards east, and the distance is 26.7 cm.

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ot022

ID: 1920@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.897Z

Question:
Khalif walks 25.5 m east, then 18.6 m west, and then 17.6 m east. How far and in what direction would Khalif have to move during the next part of his motion in order for his total displacement to be 14.2 m east, and what would be the total distance he traveled?
A:
During the next part of his journey, Khalif should move 10.3 m towards east and his total distance will be 57.3 m.
B:
During the next part of his journey, Khalif should move 10.3 m towards east and his total distance will be 72.0 m.
C:
During the next part of his journey, Khalif should move 10.3 m towards west and his total distance will be 57.3 m.
D:
During the next part of his journey, Khalif should move 10.3 m towards west and his total distance will be 72.0 m.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ot023

ID: 1921@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.902Z

Question:
A girl rode a scooter 43 m north, then 38 m south, and then 16 m north. The girl then rode south again before stopping. Her total distance traveled was 122 m. How far south did she ride on the last part of her trip, and what was her total displacement?
A:
Distance of the last trip is 25 m and the total displacement is -4 m.
B:
Distance of the last trip is 25 m and the total displacement is +4 m.
C:
Distance of the last trip is 25 m and the total displacement is 4 m towards north.
D:
Distance of the last trip is 25 m and the total displacement is 4 m towards south.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s01 k12phys-ch02-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch02-ot024

ID: 1922@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.913Z

Question:
Jason swims $3$ laps in the pool in $105\,\text{s}$ . If each lap is $50\,\text{m}$ , what was his average swimming speed?
A:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{m/s}">0.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-0.5}\,\text{m/s}">{-0.5}\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.4\,\text{m/s}">1.4\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="{-1.4}\,\text{m/s}">{-1.4}\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot025

ID: 1923@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.925Z

Question:
A postal worker measures the time required to deliver mail along one side of a street. The street is $149\,\text{m}$ long, and the time required to deliver the mail is $129\,\text{s}$ . Assuming the worker travels straight along the road, what is the worker’s average speed?
A:
<span data-math="{-1.16}\,\text{m/s}">{-1.16}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.16\,\text{m/s}">1.16\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.87\,\text{m/s}">0.87\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="{-0.87}\,\text{m/s}">{-0.87}\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot026

ID: 1924@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.936Z

Question:
Zoe saw a flash of lighting, and $4.17\,\text{seconds}$ later she heard a crack of thunder produced by the lightning strike. Assuming the sound traveled straight toward her at an average speed of $348\,\text{m/s}$ , how far was Zoe from the point where the lightning struck?
A:
<span data-math="83.5\,\text{m}">83.5\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-83.5}\,\text{m}">{-83.5}\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.45 \times 10^3\,\text{m}">1.45 \times 10^3\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="{-1.45} \times 10^3\,\text{m}">{-1.45} \times 10^3\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot027

ID: 1925@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.948Z

Question:
Daniel set a timer before he started on a walk. He walked $1.2\,\text{km}$ north and then turned and walked $1.6\,\text{km}$ east. He then turned and walked straight back to his starting point. The timer showed that the trip took him $56.5\,\text{minutes}$ . What was his average speed (in $\text{km/h}$ ) for the entire trip?
A:
<span data-math="5.1\,\text{km/hr}">5.1\,\text{km/hr}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-5.1}\,\text{km/hr}">{-5.1}\,\text{km/hr}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0\,\text{km/hr}">0\,\text{km/hr}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.0\,\text{km/hr}">3.0\,\text{km/hr}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot028

ID: 1926@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.960Z

Question:
A student has to walk $450\,\text{m}$ down a long hallway to get from his theatre class to his science class. It takes this student $4.5\,\text{min} (270\,\text{s})$ to do this without stopping. What is the student’s velocity and speed? Because the student likes science, he has determined that ‘in the direction of science class’ is positive.
A:
Velocity is <span data-math="1.7\,\text{m/s}">1.7\,\text{m/s}</span> and speed is <span data-math="{-1.7}\,\text{m/s}">{-1.7}\,\text{m/s}</span>.
B:
Velocity is <span data-math="{+}1.7\,\text{m/s}">{+}1.7\,\text{m/s}</span> and speed is <span data-math="1.7\,\text{m/s}">1.7\,\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
Velocity is <span data-math="{-1.7}\,\text{m/s}">{-1.7}\,\text{m/s}</span> and speed is <span data-math="1.7\,\text{m/s}">1.7\,\text{m/s}</span>.
D:
Velocity is <span data-math="1.7\,\text{m/s}">1.7\,\text{m/s}</span> and speed is <span data-math="{+}1.7\,\text{m/s}">{+}1.7\,\text{m/s}</span>.

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot029

ID: 1927@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.971Z

Question:
A nitromethane powered dragster does the $400\,\text{m}$ strip in $7.4\,\text{s}$ . What is the dragster’s average velocity and average speed in $\text{mph}$ ?
A:
Average velocity is <span data-math="194.4\,\text{mph}">194.4\,\text{mph}</span> in the direction of the finish line and average speed is <span data-math="194.4\,\text{mph}">194.4\,\text{mph}</span>.
B:
Average velocity is <span data-math="194.4\,\text{mph}">194.4\,\text{mph}</span> and average speed is <span data-math="194.4\,\text{mph}">194.4\,\text{mph}</span> in the direction of the finish line.
C:
Average velocity is <span data-math="120.8\,\text{mph}">120.8\,\text{mph}</span> in the direction of the finish line and average speed is <span data-math="120.8\,\text{mph}">120.8\,\text{mph}</span>.
D:
Average velocity is <span data-math="120.8\,\text{mph}">120.8\,\text{mph}</span> and average speed is <span data-math="120.8\,\text{mph}">120.8\,\text{mph}</span> in the direction of the finish line.

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot030

ID: 1928@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.982Z

Question:
On the first leg of its journey, a plane flew due east for 2.75 hours with an average speed of 624 km/h. After a stopover, it flew due east again for 1.50 hours at an average speed of 502 km/h. What was its displacement along each leg of the flight and its total displacement?
A:
Displacement of first leg is <span data-math="1.72 \times 10^3">1.72 \times 10^3</span> km east; Displacement of second leg is 753 km east and total displacement <span data-math="2.47 \times 10^3">2.47 \times 10^3</span> is km east.
B:
Displacement of first leg is <span data-math="1.72 \times 10^3">1.72 \times 10^3</span> km west; Displacement of second leg is 753 km west and total displacement <span data-math="2.47 \times 10^3">2.47 \times 10^3</span> is km west.
C:
Displacement of first leg is 227 km east; Displacement of second leg is 335 km east and total displacement is 562 km east.
D:
Displacement of first leg is 227 km west; Displacement of second leg is 335 km west and total displacement is 562 km west.

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot031

ID: 1929@1

2015-08-20T13:11:30.994Z

Question:
When Canadian geese migrate, they typically fly 60 miles per hour (96 km/h) for 16 hours per day. Using correct significant figures, about how far do these migrating geese fly in a day?
A:
0.27 km
B:
3.7 km
C:
1500 km
D:
1536 km

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot032

ID: 1930@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.005Z

Question:
Is it possible for average velocity to be negative?
A:
Yes, in cases when the net displacement is negative.
B:
Yes, if the body keeps changing its direction during motion.
C:
No, average velocity describes only magnitude and not the direction of motion.
D:
No, average velocity describes only the magnitude in the positive direction of motion.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot033

ID: 1931@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.017Z

Question:
How is an object’s position related to its average velocity? Hint: Think about the formula for average velocity.
A:
Average velocity depends on the initial position of an object.
B:
Average velocity depends on the final position of an object.
C:
Average velocity is change in position of an object in motion.
D:
Average velocity is the rate of change in the position of an object in motion.

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time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot034

ID: 1932@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.028Z

Question:
Which of the following provides an example of one-dimensional motion in which average speed is not equal to the magnitude of average velocity?
A:
A boy rides a bicycle along a straight path from his house to the market.
B:
A pitcher throws a baseball along a perfectly straight line.
C:
A man throws a ball vertically upwards and catches it when it falls back.
D:
A girl walks 80m north, halts for a while, and walks 100m further north to reach home.

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time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot035

ID: 1933@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.040Z

Question:
Which of the following best describes the relationship between instantaneous velocity and instantaneous speed?
A:
Both instantaneous speed and instantaneous velocity are the same, even when there is a change in direction.
B:
Instantaneous speed and instantaneous velocity cannot be the same even if there is no change in direction of motion.
C:
Magnitude of instantaneous velocity is equal to instantaneous speed.
D:
Magnitude of instantaneous velocity is always greater than instantaneous speed.

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time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot036

ID: 1934@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.051Z

Question:
How is instantaneous velocity different from average velocity?
A:
Average velocity is the arithmetic mean of instantaneous velocities.
B:
Average velocity is the magnitude of the arithmetic mean of the instantaneous velocities.
C:
Average velocity describes the velocity over a time interval while instantaneous velocity describes velocity at a particular time.
D:
Average velocity describes only magnitude, while instantaneous velocity describes both magnitude and direction.

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time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot037

ID: 1935@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.068Z

Question:
For an object in one-dimensional motion, its average velocity can be zero. Why can’t its average speed be zero?
A:
When an object has been in motion, displacement can be zero but not distance.
B:
When an object has been in motion, distance can be zero but not the displacement.
C:
Average speed is calculated from displacement, and displacement can never be zero.
D:
Average velocity of an object in motion cannot be zero, as the distance of a moving object can never be zero.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot038

ID: 1936@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.079Z

Question:
Suppose a car travels a certain distance along a straight highway. If you know the car’s direction of motion, is it possible to determine the car’s average velocity from the speedometer readings at the start and end of the trip?
A:
Yes, average velocity can be determined if the car was traveling with constant velocity the entire time.
B:
Yes, average velocity can be determined by taking the average of the two readings from the speedometer.
C:
No, the speedometer shows only the speed of the car, and the velocity of the car needs to be known.
D:
No, velocity cannot be determined because the time of the trip is not known.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot039

ID: 1937@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.085Z

Question:
Rhianna and Logan start at the same point and walk due north. Rhianna walks with an average velocity $v_\text{avg,R}$ . Logan walks three times the distance in twice the time as Rhianna. Which of the following expresses Logan’s average velocity in terms of $v_\text{avg,R}$ ?
A:
Logan’s average velocity = <span data-math="1.5 v_{avg,R}">1.5 v_{avg,R}</span>.
B:
Logan’s average velocity = <span data-math="\frac{2}{3} v_{avg,R}">\frac{2}{3} v_{avg,R}</span>.
C:
Logan’s average velocity = <span data-math="3 v_{avg,R}">3 v_{avg,R}</span>.
D:
Logan’s average velocity = <span data-math="\frac{1}{2} v_{avg,R}">\frac{1}{2} v_{avg,R}</span>.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot040

ID: 1938@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.097Z

Question:
How is time of travel ( $t$ ) related to the distance traveled ( $d$ ) and average speed $v_\text{avg}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="t = d \times v_{avg}">t = d \times v_{avg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="t = \frac{v_{avg}}{d}">t = \frac{v_{avg}}{d}</span>
C:
<span data-math="t = \frac{d}{v_\text{avg}}">t = \frac{d}{v_\text{avg}}</span>
D:
<span data-math="t = \frac{d}{d + v_\text{avg}}">t = \frac{d}{d + v_\text{avg}}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot041

ID: 1939@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.108Z

Question:
A bicyclist covers the first leg of a journey that is $d_1\,\text{meters}$ long in $t_1\,\text{seconds}$ , at a speed of $v_1\,\text{m/s}$ , and the second leg of $d_2\,\text{meters}$ in $t_2\,\text{seconds}$ , at a speed of $v_2\,\text{m/s}$ . If his average speed is equal to the average of $v_1$ and $v_2$ , then which of the following is true?
A:
<span data-math="t_1 = t_2">t_1 = t_2</span>
B:
<span data-math="t_1 \ne t_2">t_1 \ne t_2</span>
C:
<span data-math="d_1 = d_2">d_1 = d_2</span>
D:
<span data-math="d_1 \ne d_2">d_1 \ne d_2</span>

Tags:

dok3 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot042

ID: 1940@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.120Z

Question:
A car is moving on a straight road at a constant speed in a single direction. Which of the following statements is true?
A:
Average velocity is zero.
B:
Average velocity is equal to the average speed.
C:
Average velocity is greater than the average speed.
D:
Average velocity is less than the average speed.

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot043

ID: 1941@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.132Z

Question:
True or False: The instantaneous velocity of an object in motion can be positive even if its position is negative.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok3 blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot044

ID: 1942@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.145Z

Question:
Two bikes start from the same point. One bike has a velocity of ${-97}\,\text{km/h}$ and the other moves with a velocity of $22\,\text{m/s}$ . What will be the distance between the two bikes after $45\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{-22}\,\text{m}">{-22}\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="22\,\text{m}">22\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="{-2.2}\,\text{km}">{-2.2}\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.2\,\text{km}">2.2\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot045

ID: 1943@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.157Z

Question:
Every morning, Angelina jogs along the outside of a rectangular park that measures $350\,\text{m}$ by $110\,\text{m}$ . She starts from one corner of the park and jogs for $42\,\text{min}$ at an average speed of $10.8\,\text{km/h}$ . How many laps does she complete every day?
A:
<span data-math="5.5">5.5</span>
B:
<span data-math="1">1</span>
C:
<span data-math="0">0</span>
D:
<span data-math="8">8</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot046

ID: 1944@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.168Z

Question:
Richard walks along the perimeter of a $350\,\text{m} \times 110\,\text{m}$ park at an average speed of $2\,\text{m/s}$ . If he starts walking from one corner of the park, what will be the magnitude of his average velocity after $690\,\text{seconds}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{m/s}">0.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.7\,\text{m/s}">0.7\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2\,\text{m/s}">2\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot047

ID: 1945@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.180Z

Question:
What can you say about the instantaneous velocity of an object moving in a circular track at constant speed?
A:
Instantaneous velocity will be zero.
B:
Instantaneous velocity is a constant.
C:
Instantaneous velocity will be changing continuously.
D:
Instantaneous velocity will be negative in one half of rotation and positive in the other half.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot048

ID: 1946@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.191Z

Question:
Traveling at an average speed of $18.1\,\text{km/h}$ , a bicyclist traveled $1.24\,\text{km}$ . The bicyclist then traveled at an average speed of $19.5\,\text{km/h}$ for $0.75\,\text{km}$ . How long did the entire trip take?
A:
<span data-math="4.11\,\text{min}">4.11\,\text{min}</span>
B:
<span data-math="6.42\,\text{min}">6.42\,\text{min}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.42\,\text{min}">7.42\,\text{min}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.31\,\text{min}">2.31\,\text{min}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot049

ID: 1947@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.203Z

Question:
A school bus travels straight from the school to its first stop at an average speed of 18.5 km/h. What distance does the bus travel if it takes 3.5 min to get to this first stop?
A:
1.1 km
B:
65 km
C:
317 km
D:
3885 km

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot050

ID: 1948@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.214Z

Question:
Two locomotives travel toward each other on parallel tracks. Each has a constant speed of 95.6 km/h, and they are initially 5.2 km apart on a straight track. How long will it take the two trains to reach each other?
A:
1.6 min
B:
3.3 min
C:
0.03 min
D:
2.6 min

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot051

ID: 1949@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.225Z

Question:
A football quarterback runs $15.0\,\text{m}$ straight down the playing field in $2.50\,\text{s}$ . He is then hit and pushed $3.00\,\text{m}$ straight backward in $1.75\,\text{s}$ . He breaks the tackle and runs straight forward another $21.0\,\text{m}$ in $5.20\,\text{s}$ . Calculate (a) his average velocity for each of the three intervals and (b) distance for the entire motion.
A:
<span data-math="{+6.00}\,\text{m/s}">{+6.00}\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="{-1.71}\,\text{m/s}">{-1.71}\,\text{m/s}</span>, and <span data-math="{+4.04}\,\text{m/s}">{+4.04}\,\text{m/s}</span> The total distance is <span data-math="33\,\text{m}">33\,\text{m}</span>.
B:
<span data-math="{+37.5}\,\text{m/s}">{+37.5}\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="{-5.25}\,\text{m/s}">{-5.25}\,\text{m/s}</span>, and <span data-math="{+109}\,\text{m/s}">{+109}\,\text{m/s}</span> The total distance is <span data-math="33\,\text{m}">33\,\text{m}</span>.
C:
<span data-math="{+6.00}\,\text{m/s}">{+6.00}\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="{-1.71}\,\text{m/s}">{-1.71}\,\text{m/s}</span>, and <span data-math="{+4.04}\,\text{m/s}">{+4.04}\,\text{m/s}</span> Total distance is <span data-math="39\,\text{m}">39\,\text{m}</span>.
D:
<span data-math="{+37.5}\,\text{m/s}">{+37.5}\,\text{m/s}</span>, <span data-math="{-5.25}\,\text{m/s}">{-5.25}\,\text{m/s}</span>, and <span data-math="{+109}\,\text{m/s}">{+109}\,\text{m/s}</span> Total distance is <span data-math="39\,\text{m}">39\,\text{m}</span>.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s02 k12phys-ch02-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot052

ID: 1950@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.237Z

Question:
The position vs time graph of a boat’s displacement over 1 hour is a flat horizontal line starting and ending at 20 miles. What is the boat’s net displacement over the hour and its average velocity?
A:
Displacement is zero, and velocity is constant.
B:
Displacement is constant, and velocity is zero.
C:
Displacement and velocity are zero.
D:
Displacement and velocity are constant.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok1 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot053

ID: 1951@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.248Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to thirty in increments of ten. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to fifteen in increments of five. A straight line is plotted that slopes upward and intersects points ten, five; twenty, ten; and thirty, fifteen. Dashed lines are drawn to show the points of the x and y axes that are plotted. Using the data shown abone, calculate the average velocity.
A:
<span data-math="2\,\text{m/s}">2\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-0.5}\,\text{m/s}">{-0.5}\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{m/s}">0.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="{-2}\,\text{m/s}">{-2}\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot054

ID: 1952@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.260Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to twenty-five on increments of five. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to thirty in increments of five. The following data points are plotted and connected to form a line that curves upward, and then downward, and then upward again: zero, zero; three, ten; five, seventeen; ten, three; thirteen, three; fifteen, five; twenty, twenty-five. Take the slope of the curve in the graph below to find the jogger’s velocity at $t = 2.5\,\text{s}$ .
A:
-3.5 m/s
B:
0 m/s
C:
3.5 m/s
D:
10 m/s

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot055

ID: 1953@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.277Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to twenty-five on increments of five. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to thirty in increments of five. The following data points are plotted and connected to form a line that curves upward, and then downward, and then upward again: zero, zero; three, ten; five, seventeen; ten, three; thirteen, three; fifteen, five; twenty, twenty-five. Take the slope of the curve to find the jogger’s velocity at $t = 7.5\,\text{s}$ .
A:
<span data-math="{-3}\,\text{m/s}">{-3}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3\,\text{m/s}">3\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot056

ID: 1954@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.282Z

Question:
A position vs. time graph of a frog swimming across a pond has two distinct straight-line sections. The slope of the first section is $1\,\text{m/s}$ . The slope of the second section is $0\,\text{m/s}$ . If each section lasts $1\,\text{second}$ , then what is the frog’s total average velocity?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2\,\text{m/s}">2\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{m/s}">0.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1\,\text{m/s}">1\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot057

ID: 1955@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.294Z

Question:
A commuter train travels from Baltimore to Washington, DC, and back in 1 hour and 45 minutes. The distance between the two stations is approximately 40 miles. What is (a) the average velocity of the train, and (b) the average speed of the train in $\text{m/s}$ ? (c) Would a graph of displacement vs. time of the commuter train be a straight line? Why or why not?
A:
Average velocity is <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>, average speed is <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>, graph will be a straight line.
B:
Average velocity is <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>, average speed is <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>, graph will not be a straight line.
C:
Average velocity is <span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>, average speed is <span data-math="20\,\text{m/s}">20\,\text{m/s}</span>, graph will be a straight line.
D:
Average velocity is <span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>, average speed is <span data-math="20\,\text{m/s}">20\,\text{m/s}</span>, graph will not be a straight line.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot058

ID: 1956@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.306Z

Question:
If an object is moving backwards, is the slope of its position vs time graph positive, negative, or zero?
A:
negative
B:
positive
C:
zero
D:
positive or negative

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot059

ID: 1957@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.317Z

Question:
A long-distance runner starts from being stationary and speeds up until he reaches the speed he runs most of the race at. What does the graph of his position, starting at time 0, look like?
A:
curve initially and then a straight line
B:
straight line initially and then a curve
C:
two straight lines with initial line having more slope than the other
D:
two straight lines with initial line having slope less than the other

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot060

ID: 1958@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.329Z

Question:
In a straight line graph of position vs. time, what is the difference between average and instantaneous velocity?
A:
Instantaneous velocity is greater than average velocity.
B:
Instantaneous velocity is less than average velocity
C:
Instantaneous velocity is equal to average velocity.
D:
Instantaneous velocity is not defined for a straight line graph.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot061

ID: 1959@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.342Z

Question:
Which of the following is an example of motion that would have a straight line position vs. time graph?
A:
A car speeding up and then reaching a speed limit of 40 km/h.
B:
A car slowing down and then stopping.
C:
A car which is moving in circles at variable speed.
D:
A car moving in one direction at a speed of 35 km/h.

Tags:

time-medium dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot062

ID: 1960@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.353Z

Question:
You have three straight line position vs. time graphs of different motions: 1 pointed down, 1 flat, and 1 pointed up. Which has the greatest velocity? Which object moves the furthest in the positive direction? Justify your answers.
A:
Greatest velocity - flat graph; maximum distance traveled - pointed up graph.
B:
Greatest velocity - pointed down graph; and maximum distance traveled - pointed down graph.
C:
Greatest velocity - pointed up graph; and maximum distance traveled - flat graph.
D:
Greatest velocity - pointed up graph; and maximum distance traveled - pointed up graph

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot063

ID: 1961@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.370Z

Question:
A coin is tossed up and then falls back to the earth. Which of the following describes its position vs. time graph and qualitatively describes its velocity throughout its journey?
A:
Position vs. time graph is an upward facing parabola. The velocity of the coin decreases until it reaches zero and then increases in the opposite direction.
B:
Position vs. time graph is a downward facing parabola. The velocity of the coin decreases until it reaches zero and then increases in the opposite direction.
C:
Position vs. time graph is an upward facing parabola. The velocity of the coin increases until it reaches zero and then decreases in the opposite direction.
D:
Position vs. time graph is a downward facing parabola. The velocity of the coin increases until it reaches zero and then decreases in the opposite direction.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot064

ID: 1962@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.376Z

Question:
A line graph titled Shark Motion is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in hours and has a scale from zero to eight in increments of one. The y-axis is labeled position in kilometers and has a scale from negative thirty to thirty in increments of ten. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, negative twenty; three, ten; six, ten; seven, zero. The graph shows the motion of a shark through the water over the course of a day. What is the total distance that the shark travels throughout the day and what is its net displacement?
A:
Total distance is 0 km, and the net displacement is 0 km.
B:
Total distance is 10 km, and the net displacement is 0 km.
C:
Total distance is 20 km, and the net displacement is 10 km.
D:
Total distance is 60 km, and the net displacement is 0 km.

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot065

ID: 1963@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.388Z

Question:
Which of the following correctly states at what time the shark’s velocity is greatest and its velocity at that time?
A:
Velocity is greatest between hours 0 and 2. Its velocity at that time is 10 km/hour.
B:
Velocity is greatest between hours 2 and 3. Its velocity at that time is 60 km/hour.
C:
Velocity is greatest between hours 3 and 6. Its velocity at that time is 60 km/hour.
D:
Velocity is greatest between hours 6 and 7. Its velocity at that time is 10 km/hour.

Tags:

blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot066

ID: 1964@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.399Z

Question:
Which of the following correctly provides the shark’s average velocity and average speed for the whole day?
A:
average velocity = 0 km/h, average speed = 0 km/h
B:
average velocity = 0 km/h, average speed = 8.6 km/h
C:
average velocity = 0 km/h, average speed = 26.7 km/h
D:
average velocity = +26.7 km/h, average speed = 26.7 km/h

Tags:

dok3 blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot067

ID: 1965@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.416Z

Question:
A line graph titled Shark Motion is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in hours and has a scale from zero to eight in increments of one. The y-axis is labeled position in kilometers and has a scale from negative thirty to thirty in increments of ten. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, negative twenty; three, ten; six, ten; seven, zero. Realistically, which part of the graph is not possible?
A:
The flat line is not possible.
B:
Negative slope is not possible.
C:
The line below the time axis is not possible.
D:
The sharp peaks are not possible.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s03 k12phys-ch02-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot068

ID: 1966@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.422Z

Question:
A line graph titled Runner Velocity is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, s, in seconds and has a scale from zero to twelve in increments of two. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per second and has a scale from zero to fourteen in increments of two. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, six; four, twelve; six, twelve; eight, twelve; ten, twelve. A graph of velocity vs. time is shown for a world-class track sprinter in a 100-m race. Which of the following correctly gives his average velocity for the first 4 s and his instantaneous velocity at t = 5 s?
A:
12 m/s and 0 m/s
B:
12 m/s and 12 m/s
C:
6 m/s and 0 m/s
D:
<span data-math="6\,\text{m/s}">6\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="12\,\text{m/s}">12\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot069

ID: 1967@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.433Z

Question:
A line graph titled Runner Velocity is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, s, in seconds and has a scale from zero to twelve in increments of two. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per second and has a scale from zero to fourteen in increments of two. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, six; four, twelve; six, twelve; eight, twelve; ten, twelve. What is his time for the race?
A:
<span data-math="4\,\text{s}">4\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="6\,\text{s}">6\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{s}">10\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="12\,\text{s}">12\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot070

ID: 1968@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.445Z

Question:
A line graph titled Runner Velocity is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, s, in seconds and has a scale from zero to twelve in increments of two. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per second and has a scale from zero to fourteen in increments of two. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, six; four, twelve; six, twelve; eight, twelve; ten, twelve. What is his average acceleration between 0 and 4 s?
A:
<span data-math="0 \, \text{m/s}^2">0 \, \text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="3 \, \text{m/s}^2">3 \, \text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="6\,\text{m/s}^2">6\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="12\,\text{m/s}^2">12\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot071

ID: 1969@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.457Z

Question:
A line graph titled Runner Velocity is shown. The x-axis is labeled time, s, in seconds and has a scale from zero to twelve in increments of two. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per second and has a scale from zero to fourteen in increments of two. A line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, zero; two, six; four, twelve; six, twelve; eight, twelve; ten, twelve. How far does he run?
A:
<span data-math="24\,\text{m}">24\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="72\,\text{m}">72\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="96\,\text{m}">96\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="120\,\text{m}">120\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 os-practice-problems k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot072

ID: 1970@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.475Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to eighty in increments of ten. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from zero to twenty-five in increments of five. The following data points are plotted and connected to form a straight line that slopes upward: zero, three; ten, five; twenty, seven; thirty, ten; forty, twelve; fifty, fifteen; sixty, sixteen; seventy, nineteen. For the position versus time graph above what would the corresponding velocity graph look like?
A:
a horizontal line
B:
a parabolic curve
C:
a straight line with positive slope
D:
a straight line with negative slope

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot073

ID: 1971@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.481Z

Question:
Is this object speeding up, and what would the acceleration vs. time graph look like?
A:
No, the object is not speeding up, and its acceleration vs. time graph would be a horizontal line at zero.
B:
No, the object is not speeding up, and its acceleration vs. time graph would be a horizontal line at some positive value.
C:
Yes, the object is speeding up, and its acceleration vs. time graph would be a straight line with positive slope.
D:
Yes, the object is speeding up, and its acceleration vs. time graph would be a straight line with negative slope.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok1 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot074

ID: 1972@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.492Z

Question:
How would the velocity vs. time graph of an object that is speeding up at a constant rate compare with the velocity vs. time graph of a moving object with constant velocity?
A:
straight line with a negative slope vs. a parabola
B:
straight line with a positive slope vs. a parabola
C:
straight line with a negative slope vs. a horizontal line
D:
straight line with a positive slope vs. a horizontal line

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot075

ID: 1973@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.504Z

Question:
What would the corresponding position vs. time and acceleration vs. time graphs for the previous example look like?
A:
An object that is speeding up will have a negatively sloped curve in position vs. time and a horizontal flat line at zero in acceleration vs. time, while an object that is non-accelerating will have a straight line with positive slope in position vs. time and a horizontal line at some positive value in acceleration vs. time graph.
B:
An object that is speeding up will have a positively sloped curve in position/time and a horizontal flat line at zero in acceleration vs. time, while an object that is non-accelerating will have a straight line with positive slope in position vs. time and a horizontal line at some positive value in acceleration vs. time.
C:
An object that is speeding up will have a negatively sloped curve in position vs. time and a horizontal line at some positive value in acceleration vs. time, while an object that is non-accelerating will have a straight line with positive slope in position vs. time and a horizontal flat line at zero in acceleration vs. time.
D:
An object that is speeding up will have a positively sloped curve in position vs. time and a horizontal line at some positive value in acceleration vs. time, while an object that is non-accelerating will have a straight line with a positive slope in position/time and a horizontal flat line at zero in acceleration/time.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot076

ID: 1974@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.515Z

Question:
A line graph is shown. The horizontal axis is labeled time, t, and the vertical axis is labeled velocity, v. The graphed line curves upward and intersects a point labeled P (t one, v one) and a point labeled Q (t two, v two.) Which of the following correctly describes the motion of the object depicted in the graph?
A:
The object is not speeding up as the slope of the curve is changing at every point and is positive.
B:
The object is not speeding up as the slope of the curve is changing at every point and is negative.
C:
The object is speeding up as the slope of the curve is changing at every point and is positive.
D:
The object is speeding up as the slope of the curve is changing at every point and is negative.

Tags:

time-medium blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot077

ID: 1975@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.526Z

Question:
A line graph is shown. The horizontal axis is labeled time, t, and the vertical axis is labeled velocity, v. The graphed line curves upward and intersects a point labeled P (t one, v one) and a point labeled Q (t two, v two.) How would you figure out the position vs. time graph from the graph above and what would this graph look like?
A:
The area under the curve at each point will give the displacement, and the graph will look like a straight line.
B:
The area under the curve at each point will give the displacement, and the graph will look like a more steeply sloped curve.
C:
The slope of the curve at each point will give the displacement, and the graph will look like a straight line.
D:
The slope of the curve at each point will give the displacement, and the graph will look like a more steeply sloped curve.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot078

ID: 1976@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.544Z

Question:
A cylinder is given a push and then rolls up an inclined plane. After some time, the cylinder rolls back down the plane. The origin is the starting point. Which of the following correctly describes the cylinder’s position/time and velocity vs. time graphs and turning points? Assume going up the inclined plane is positive and to the right.
A:
The position vs. time graph would be a downward facing parabola with a turning point at the apex, while the velocity vs. time graph would be a straight line with a negative slope and a turning point where it crosses the zero.
B:
The position vs. time graph would be an upward facing parabola with a turning point at the vertex, while the velocity vs. time graph would be a straight line with a negative slope and a turning point where it crosses the zero.
C:
The position vs. time graph would be a downward facing parabola with a turning point at the apex, while the velocity vs. time graph would be a straight line with a positive slope and a turning point where it crosses the zero.
D:
The position vs. time graph would be an upward facing parabola with a turning point at the vertex, while the velocity vs. time graph would be a straight line with a positive slope and a turning point where it crosses the zero.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot079

ID: 1977@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.555Z

Question:
A line graph titled Velocity versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to twenty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per second and has a scale from negative five to six in increments of one. A curvy line is plotted that intersects the following data points: zero, three; five, zero; seven, negative four; ten, zero point one; twelve, zero; fifteen, three; twenty, five. Break the velocity vs. time graph shown into sections and use them to construct a position vs. time graph. Describe the time interval at which the graph will have a negative slope.
A:
The position vs. time curve will have a negative slope from <span data-math="0">0</span> to <span data-math="2\,\text{s}">2\,\text{s}</span>.
B:
The position-time curve will have a negative slope from <span data-math="7">7</span> to <span data-math="10\,\text{s}">10\,\text{s}</span>.
C:
The position vs. time curve will have a negative slope from <span data-math="2">2</span> to <span data-math="7\,\text{s}">7\,\text{s}</span>.
D:
The position-time curve will have a negative slope from <span data-math="10 - 12\,\text{s}">10 - 12\,\text{s}</span>.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch02-ot080

ID: 1978@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.561Z

Question:
A line graph titled Position versus Time is shown. The x-axis is labeled time in seconds and has a scale from zero to seven in increments of one. The y-axis is labeled position in meters and has a scale from negative four to three in increments of two tenths. The following data points are plotted and connected to form a line that zig-zags up and down: zero, zero; two, two; three, negative three; five, negative three, six, negative two. Which of the following describes the velocity/time graph that would be constructed from the above position vs. time graph?
A:
Velocity vs. time curve is continuous with horizontal lines at <span data-math="1">1</span> for <span data-math="0">0</span> to <span data-math="2\,\text{s}">2\,\text{s}</span>, <span data-math="-5">-5</span> for <span data-math="2">2</span> to <span data-math="3\,\text{s}">3\,\text{s}</span>, <span data-math="0">0</span> for <span data-math="3">3</span> to <span data-math="5\,\text{s}">5\,\text{s}</span> and <span data-math="1">1</span> for <span data-math="5">5</span> to <span data-math="6\,\text{s}">6\,\text{s}</span>
B:
The velocity vs. time curve is discontinuous with horizontal lines at <span data-math="1">1</span> for <span data-math="0">0</span> to <span data-math="2\,\text{s}">2\,\text{s}</span>, <span data-math="{-5}">{-5}</span> for <span data-math="2">2</span> to <span data-math="3\,\text{s}">3\,\text{s}</span>, <span data-math="0">0</span> for <span data-math="3">3</span> to <span data-math="5\,\text{s}">5\,\text{s}</span> and <span data-math="1">1</span> for <span data-math="5">5</span> to <span data-math="6\,\text{s}">6\,\text{s}</span>
C:
The velocity vs. time curve is continuous with increasing, straight lines at <span data-math="2\,\text{s}">2\,\text{s}</span>, <span data-math="3\,\text{s}">3\,\text{s}</span>, <span data-math="5\,\text{s}">5\,\text{s}</span> and <span data-math="6\,\text{s}">6\,\text{s}</span>.
D:
The velocity vs. time curve is discontinuous with a decreasing straight line from <span data-math="1">1</span> to <span data-math="3\,\text{s}">3\,\text{s}</span>, an increasing straight line from <span data-math="3">3</span> to <span data-math="5\,\text{s}">5\,\text{s}</span>, and an increasing straight line from <span data-math="5">5</span> to <span data-math="6\,\text{s}">6\,\text{s}</span>.

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot081

ID: 1979@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.578Z

Question:
What is the net displacement as calculated from the velocity vs. time graph you just made and how does it compare to the original graph?
A:
Net displacement is <span data-math="-2\,\text{m}">-2\,\text{m}</span>, and it is same as displacement shown in the position vs. time graph.
B:
Net displacement is <span data-math="{-2}\,\text{m}">{-2}\,\text{m}</span>, and it is different from the displacement shown in the position vs. time graph.
C:
Net displacement is <span data-math="8\,\text{m}">8\,\text{m}</span> and it is the same as the displacement shown in the position vs. time graph.
D:
Net displacement is <span data-math="8\,\text{m}">8\,\text{m}</span>, and it is different from the displacement shown in the position vs. time graph.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot082

ID: 1980@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.583Z

Question:
Which of the following provides evidence to support or deny if the object in your velocity vs. time graph is accelerating?
A:
No, the object is not accelerating as the corresponding velocity vs. time graph consists of discontinuous horizontal lines that are parallel to the x-axis.
B:
No, the object is not accelerating, as the corresponding velocity vs. time graph consists of discontinuous straight lines which are aligned to the x-axis.
C:
Yes, the object is accelerating, as the corresponding velocity vs. time graph consists of discontinuous horizontal lines that are parallel to the x-axis.
D:
Yes, the object is accelerating, as the corresponding velocity vs. time graph consists of discontinuous straight lines that are inclined to the x-axis.

Tags:

dok3 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot083

ID: 1981@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.600Z

Question:
Which of the following correctly explains why the velocity vs. time graph is or is not a realistic representation of a moving object?
A:
No, it is not a realistic representation as it does not show the accelerations needed for the object to change velocity between the different time segments.
B:
No, it is not a realistic representation as it shows the change in the motion of the object with respect to different reference frames.
C:
Yes, it is a realistic representation as it also tells us about the actual directions of the moving object.
D:
Yes, it is a realistic representation as it shows the transitions needed for the object to accelerate and decelerate between the different time segments.

Tags:

dok3 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch02 k12phys-ch02-s04 k12phys-ch02-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch02-ot084

ID: 1982@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.611Z

Question:
Two similar cars are shown. The first car is speeding up as indicated by a velocity vector and an acceleration vector pointing to the right. The second car is slowing down as indicated by a velocity vector pointing to the right and an acceleration vector pointing to the left. Unlabeled x and y-axes are shown for reference. Which part, (a) or (b), is represented when the velocity vector is on the positive side of the scale and the acceleration vector is set on the negative side of the scale? What does the car’s motion look like for the given scenario?
A:
Part (a). The car is slowing down because the acceleration and the velocity vectors are acting in the opposite direction.
B:
Part (a). The car is speeding up because the acceleration and the velocity vectors are acting in the same direction.
C:
Part (b). The car is slowing down because the acceleration and velocity vectors are acting in the opposite directions.
D:
Part (b). The car is speeding up because the acceleration and the velocity vectors are acting in the same direction.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex001

ID: 1983@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.616Z

Question:
A subway train accelerates from rest to $30.0\,\text{km/h}$ in $20.0\,\text{s}$ . What is the average acceleration during that time interval?
A:
<span data-math="{-1.5}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-1.5}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-0.42}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-0.42}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.42\,\text{m/s}^2">0.42\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.5\,\text{m/s}^2">1.5\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex002

ID: 1984@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.627Z

Question:
Now suppose that the same train is nearing the end of its trip. The train slows to a stop from a speed of $30.0\,\text{km/h}$ in $8.0\,\text{s}$ . What is the train’s average acceleration while stopping?
A:
<span data-math="{-3.75}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-3.75}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-1.04}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-1.04}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.04\,\text{m/s}^2">1.04\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.75\,\text{m/s}^2">3.75\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex003

ID: 1985@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.638Z

Question:
A cheetah can accelerate from rest to a speed of $30.0\,\text{m/s}$ in $7.00\,\text{s}$ . What is its acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="{-0.23}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-0.23}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-4.29}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-4.29}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.23\,\text{m/s}^2">0.23\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.29\,\text{m/s}^2">4.29\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex004

ID: 1986@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.650Z

Question:
A women backs her car out of her garage with an acceleration of $1.40\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . How long does it take her to reach a speed of $2.00\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.70\,\text{s}">0.70\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.43\,\text{s}">1.43\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.80\,\text{s}">2.80\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.40\,\text{s}">3.40\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex005

ID: 1987@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.666Z

Question:
Why is acceleration a vector quantity?
A:
It is a vector quantity because it has magnitude as well as the direction.
B:
It is a vector quantity because it has magnitude but no direction.
C:
It is a vector quantity because it is calculated from distance and time.
D:
It is a vector quantity because it is calculated from speed and time.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex006

ID: 1988@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.958Z

Question:
What will be the change in velocity each second if acceleration is 10 m/s/s?
A:
An acceleration of <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s/s}">10\,\text{m/s/s}</span> means that every second, the velocity increases by <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>.
B:
An acceleration of <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s/s}">10\,\text{m/s/s}</span> means that every second, the velocity decreases by <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
An acceleration of <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s/s}">10\,\text{m/s/s}</span> means that every <span data-math="10\,\text{seconds}">10\,\text{seconds}</span>, the velocity increases by <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>.
D:
An acceleration of <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s/s}">10\,\text{m/s/s}</span> means that every <span data-math="10\,\text{seconds}">10\,\text{seconds}</span>, the velocity decreases by <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex007

ID: 1989@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.683Z

Question:
If you graph the average velocity (x-axis) vs. the elapsed time (y-axis), what would the graph look like if acceleration is uniform?
A:
A horizontal line on the graph
B:
A vertical line on the graph
C:
An upward facing parabola on the graph
D:
A downward facing parabola on the graph

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex008

ID: 1990@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.700Z

Question:
What are three ways an object can accelerate?
A:
By speeding up, maintaining constant velocity, or changing the direction
B:
By speeding up, slowing down, or changing direction
C:
By maintaining constant velocity, slowing down, or changing direction
D:
By speeding up, slowing down, or maintaining constant velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex009

ID: 1991@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.712Z

Question:
What is the difference between average acceleration and instantaneous acceleration?
A:
Average acceleration is the change in displacement divided by the elapsed time whereas instantaneous acceleration is the acceleration at a given point in time.
B:
Average acceleration is acceleration at a given point in time whereas instantaneous acceleration is the change in displacement divided by the elapsed time.
C:
Average acceleration is the change in velocity divided by the elapsed time whereas instantaneous acceleration is the acceleration at a given point in time
D:
Average acceleration is acceleration at a given point in time whereas instantaneous acceleration is the change in velocity divided by the elapsed time.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex010

ID: 1992@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.718Z

Question:
How can you use the definition of acceleration to explain the units in which acceleration is measured?
A:
Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity. Therefore its unit is <span data-math="\text{m/s}^2">\text{m/s}^2</span>.
B:
Acceleration is the rate of change of displacement. Therefore its unit is <span data-math="\text{m/s}">\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
Acceleration is rate of change of velocity. Therefore its unit is <span data-math="\text{m}^2\text{/s}">\text{m}^2\text{/s}</span>.
D:
Acceleration is the rate of change of displacement. Therefore, its unit is <span data-math="\text{m}^2\text{/s}">\text{m}^2\text{/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-5 k12phys concept k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex011

ID: 1993@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.734Z

Question:
Imagine that a car is traveling from your left to your right at a constant velocity. Which two actions could the driver take that may be represented as (a) a velocity vector and an acceleration vector both pointing to the right and then (b) changing so the velocity vector points to the right and the acceleration vector points to the left?
A:
(a) Push down on the accelerator and then (b) push down again on the accelerator a second time.
B:
(a) Push down on the accelerator and then (b) push down on the brakes.
C:
(a) Push down on the brakes and then (b) push down on the brakes a second time.
D:
(a) Push down on the brakes and then (b) push down on the accelerator.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex012

ID: 1994@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.964Z

Question:
The driver of a sports car traveling at $10\,\text{m/s}$ steps down hard on the accelerator for $5\,\text{s}$ and the velocity increases to $30\,\text{m/s}$ . What was the average acceleration of the car during the $5\,\text{s}$ time interval?
A:
<span data-math="{-100}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-100}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-4}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-4}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="4\,\text{m/s}^2">4\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="100\,\text{m/s}^2">100\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex013

ID: 1995@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.861Z

Question:
A girl rolls a basketball across a basketball court. The ball slowly decelerates at a rate of ${-0.20}\,\text{m/s}^2$ . If the initial velocity was $2.0\,\text{m/s}$ and the ball rolled to a stop at $5.0\,\text{sec}$ after $12\text{:}00$ PM, at what time did she start the ball rolling?
A:
<span data-math="0.1\,\text{seconds}">0.1\,\text{seconds}</span> before noon
B:
<span data-math="0.1\,\text{seconds}">0.1\,\text{seconds}</span> after noon
C:
<span data-math="5\,\text{seconds}">5\,\text{seconds}</span> before noon
D:
<span data-math="5\,\text{seconds}">5\,\text{seconds}</span> after noon

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-5 k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex014

ID: 1996@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.879Z

Question:
Which variable represents displacement: $a,\,d,\,t,\,\text{or}\,v$ ?
A:
<span data-math="a">a</span>
B:
<span data-math="d">d</span>
C:
<span data-math="t">t</span>
D:
<span data-math="v">v</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex015

ID: 1997@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.885Z

Question:
If a velocity increases from $0$ to $20\,\text{m/s}$ in $10\,\text{s}$ , what is the average acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{m/s}^2">0.5\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
2 <span data-math="\text{m/s}^2">\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}^2">10\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="30\,\text{m/s}^2">30\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex016

ID: 1998@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.970Z

Question:
True or False: The vector for a negative acceleration points in the opposite direction when compared to the vector for a positive acceleration.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex017

ID: 1999@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.913Z

Question:
If a car decelerates from $20\,\text{m/s}$ to $15\,\text{m/s}$ in $5\,\text{s}$ , what is $\Delta v$ ?
A:
-5 m/s
B:
-1 m/s
C:
1 m/s
D:
5 m/s

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex018

ID: 2000@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.975Z

Question:
How is the vector arrow representing an acceleration of $3\,\text{m/s}^2$ different from the vector arrow representing a negative acceleration of $3\,\text{m/s}^2$ ?
A:
They point in the same direction.
B:
They are perpendicular, forming a <span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span> angle between each other.
C:
They point in the opposite directions.
D:
They are perpendicular, forming a <span data-math="{270}^\circ">{270}^\circ</span> angle between each other.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex019

ID: 2001@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.931Z

Question:
How long does it take to accelerate from $8.0\,\text{m/s}$ to $20\,\text{m/s}$ at a rate of acceleration of $3.0\,\text{m/s}^2$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.25\,\text{seconds}">0.25\,\text{seconds}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4\,\text{seconds}">4\,\text{seconds}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.33\,\text{seconds}">9.33\,\text{seconds}</span>
D:
<span data-math="36\,\text{seconds}">36\,\text{seconds}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex020

ID: 2002@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.943Z

Question:
A test car carrying a crash test dummy accelerates from $0$ to $30\,\text{m/s}$ and then crashes into a brick wall. Describe the direction of the initial acceleration vector and compare the initial acceleration vector’s magnitude with respect to the crash acceleration magnitude.
A:
The direction of the initial acceleration vector will point towards the wall and its magnitude will be less than the acceleration vector of the crash.
B:
The direction of the initial acceleration vector will point away from the wall and its magnitude will be less than the vector of the crash.
C:
The direction of the initial acceleration vector will point towards the wall and its magnitude will be more than the acceleration vector of the crash.
D:
The direction of the initial acceleration vector will point away from the wall and its magnitude will be more than the acceleration vector of the crash.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex021

ID: 2003@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.962Z

Question:
A car accelerates from rest at a stop sign at a rate of $3.0\,\text{m/s}^2$ to a speed of $21.0\,\text{m/s}$ and then immediately begins to decelerate to a stop at the next stop sign at a rate of $4.0\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . How long did it take the car to travel from the first stop sign to the second stop sign? Show your work.
A:
<span data-math="1.7\,\text{seconds}">1.7\,\text{seconds}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.3\,\text{seconds}">5.3\,\text{seconds}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.0\,\text{seconds}">7.0\,\text{seconds}</span>
D:
<span data-math="12\,\text{seconds}">12\,\text{seconds}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex022

ID: 2004@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.967Z

Question:
On a velocity versus time plot, what does the slope represent?
A:
acceleration
B:
displacement
C:
distance covered
D:
instantaneous velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex023

ID: 2005@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.985Z

Question:
On a position versus time plot, what does the slope represent?
A:
acceleration
B:
displacement
C:
distance covered
D:
instantaneous velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex024

ID: 2006@1

2015-08-20T13:11:31.997Z

Question:
A dragster crosses the finish line with a velocity of $140\,\text{m/s}$ . Assuming the vehicle maintained a constant acceleration from start to finish, what was its average velocity for the race?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="35\,\text{m/s}">35\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="70\,\text{m/s}">70\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="140\,\text{m/s}">140\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex025

ID: 2007@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.009Z

Question:
The time it takes for a dragster to cross the finish line is unknown. The dragster accelerates uniformly from rest at a rate of $26.0\,\text{m/s}^2$ for a quarter mile $(0.250\,\text{miles})$ . What is the final velocity of the dragster?
A:
<span data-math="3.60\,\text{m/s}">3.60\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="13.0\,\text{m/s}">13.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="146\,\text{m/s}">146\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="20\text{,}900\,\text{m/s}">20\text{,}900\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex026

ID: 2008@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.015Z

Question:
If a dragster accelerates at a rate of $39.2\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ , how many Gs does the driver experience?
A:
<span data-math="1.5\,\text{G}">1.5\,\text{G}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.0\,\text{G}">4.0\,\text{G}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10.5\,\text{G}">10.5\,\text{G}</span>
D:
<span data-math="24.5\,\text{G}">24.5\,\text{G}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex027

ID: 2009@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.027Z

Question:

A person standing on the edge of a high cliff throws a rock straight up with an initial velocity, $v_0$ , of $13.0\,\text{m/s}$ . On the way back down the rock misses the edge of the cliff and continues to fall. Ignoring the effects of air resistance, calculate the position and velocity of the rock at:

  1. $1.00\,\text{s}$ after it is thrown
  2. $2.00\,\text{s}$ after it is thrown
  3. $3.00\,\text{s}$ after it is thrown
A:
<ol> <li><span data-math="d = 8.10\,\text{m},\;v = 3.20\,\text{m/s}">d = 8.10\,\text{m},\;v = 3.20\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="d = 6.40\,\text{m},\;v = 6.60\,\text{m/s}">d = 6.40\,\text{m},\;v = 6.60\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="d = 5.10\,\text{m},\;v = 16.4\,\text{m/s}">d = 5.10\,\text{m},\;v = 16.4\,\text{m/s}</span></li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li><span data-math="d = 8.10\,\text{m},\;v = 3.20\,\text{m/s}">d = 8.10\,\text{m},\;v = 3.20\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="d = 6.40\,\text{m},\;v = 6.60\,\text{m/s}">d = 6.40\,\text{m},\;v = 6.60\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="d = {-5.10}\,\text{m},\;v = 16.4\,\text{m/s}">d = {-5.10}\,\text{m},\;v = 16.4\,\text{m/s}</span></li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li><span data-math="d = 8.10\,\text{m},\;v = 3.20\,\text{m/s}">d = 8.10\,\text{m},\;v = 3.20\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="d = 6.40\,\text{m},\;v = 6.60\,\text{m/s}">d = 6.40\,\text{m},\;v = 6.60\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="d = 5.10\,\text{m},\;v = {-16.4}\,\text{m/s}">d = 5.10\,\text{m},\;v = {-16.4}\,\text{m/s}</span></li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li><span data-math="d = 8.10\,\text{m},\;v = 3.20\,\text{m/s}">d = 8.10\,\text{m},\;v = 3.20\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="d = 6.40\,\text{m},\;v = 6.60\,\text{m/s}">d = 6.40\,\text{m},\;v = 6.60\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="d = {-5.10}\,\text{m},\;v = {-16.4}\,\text{m/s}">d = {-5.10}\,\text{m},\;v = {-16.4}\,\text{m/s}</span></li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex028

ID: 2010@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.045Z

Question:
A person standing on the edge of a high cliff throws a rock straight up with an initial velocity, $v_0$ , of $13.0\,\text{m/s}$ . On the way back down the rock misses the edge of the cliff and continues to fall. What will be the shape of the position versus time graph and the velocity versus time graph?
A:
The position-time graph will be a straight line and the velocity-time graph will be a parabola.
B:
The position-time graph will be a parabola and the velocity-time graph will be a straight line.
C:
The position-time graph and the velocity-time graph will both be straight lines.
D:
The position-time graph and the velocity-time graph will both be parabolas.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex029

ID: 2011@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.057Z

Question:
A cliff diver jumps horizontally from a cliff and lands in the ocean $2.00\,\text{s}$ later. How fast was he going when he entered the water?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="19.0\,\text{m/s}">19.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="19.6\,\text{m/s}">19.6\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="20.0\,\text{m/s}">20.0\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex030

ID: 2012@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.069Z

Question:
Dragsters can reach a top speed of $145\,\text{m/s}$ in only $4.45\,\text{s}$ . Calculate the average acceleration for such a dragster.
A:
<span data-math="{-32.6}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-32.6}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}^2">0\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="32.6\,\text{m/s}^2">32.6\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="145\,\text{m/s}^2">145\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex031

ID: 2013@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.075Z

Question:
Identify the four variables found in the kinematic equations.
A:
Displacement, Force, Mass and Time
B:
Acceleration, Displacement, Time and Velocity
C:
Final Velocity, Force, Initial Velocity and Mass
D:
Acceleration, Final Velocity, Force and Initial Velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex032

ID: 2014@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.982Z

Question:
Which of the following steps is always required to solve a kinematics problem?
A:
Find the force acting on the body.
B:
Find the acceleration of a body.
C:
Find the initial velocity of a body.
D:
Find a suitable kinematic equation and then solve for the unknown quantity.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-5 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex033

ID: 2015@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.099Z

Question:
A student calculated the final velocity of a train that decelerated from $30.5\,\text{m/s}$ and got an answer of ${-43.34}\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . Which of the following might indicate that he made a mistake in his calculation?
A:
The sign of the final velocity is wrong.
B:
The magnitude of the answer is too small.
C:
There are too few significant digits in the answer.
D:
The units in the initial velocity are incorrect.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc k12phys concept k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex034

ID: 2016@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.110Z

Question:

A student is asked to solve a problem:

An object falls from a height for $2.0\,\text{s}$ , at which point it is still $60\,\text{m}$ above the ground. What will be the velocity of the object when it hits the ground?

Which of the following provides the correct order of kinematic equations that can be used to solve the problem?

A:
First use: <span data-math="v^2 = {v_0}^2 + 2a\,(d - d_0)">v^2 = {v_0}^2 + 2a\,(d - d_0)</span>Then use: <span data-math="v = v_0 + at">v = v_0 + at</span>
B:
First use: <span data-math="v = v_0 + at">v = v_0 + at</span> Then use: <span data-math="v^2 = {v_0}^2 + 2a\,(d - d_0)">v^2 = {v_0}^2 + 2a\,(d - d_0)</span>
C:
First use: <span data-math="d = d_0 + v_0t + \frac{1}{2}at^2">d = d_0 + v_0t + \frac{1}{2}at^2</span> Then use: <span data-math="v = v_0 + at">v = v_0 + at</span>
D:
First use: <span data-math="v = v_0 + at">v = v_0 + at</span> Then use: <span data-math="d - d_0 = v_0t + \frac{1}{2}at^2">d - d_0 = v_0t + \frac{1}{2}at^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc time-long critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex035

ID: 2017@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.128Z

Question:
A swan on a lake gets airborne by flapping its wings and running on top of the water. If the swan must reach a velocity of $6.00\,\text{m/s}$ to take off and it accelerates from rest at an average rate of $0.350\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ , how far will it travel before becoming airborne?
A:
<span data-math="{-8.60}\,\text{m}">{-8.60}\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="8.60\,\text{m}">8.60\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="{-51.4}\,\text{m}">{-51.4}\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="51.4\,\text{m}">51.4\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex036

ID: 2018@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.134Z

Question:
A swimmer bounces straight up from a diving board and falls feet first into a pool. She starts with a velocity of $4.00\,\text{m/s}$ and her takeoff point is $8\,\text{m}$ above the pool. How long are her feet in the air?
A:
<span data-math="0.408\,\text{s}">0.408\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.816\,\text{s}">0.816\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.34\,\text{s}">1.34\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.75\,\text{s}">1.75\,\text{s}</span>
E:
1.28 s

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-5 k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex037

ID: 2019@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.151Z

Question:
For the motion of a falling object, which graphs are straight lines?
A:
acceleration versus time only
B:
displacement versus time only
C:
displacement versus time and acceleration versus time
D:
velocity versus time and acceleration versus time

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex038

ID: 2020@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.163Z

Question:
A bullet in a gun is accelerated from the firing chamber to the end of the barrel at an average rate of $6.30 \times 10^5\text{m/s}^2$ for $8.10 \times 10^{-4}\text{s}$ . What is the bullet’s final velocity when it leaves the barrel, more commonly known as the muzzle velocity?
A:
<span data-math="7.79\,\text{m/s}">7.79\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="51.0\,\text{m/s}">51.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="510\,\text{m/s}">510\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1020\,\text{m/s}">1020\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex039

ID: 2021@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.175Z

Question:
If a plot of displacement versus time is linear, what can be said about the acceleration?
A:
acceleration is 0
B:
acceleration is constant
C:
acceleration is positive
D:
acceleration is negative

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex040

ID: 2022@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.186Z

Question:
A velocity versus time line graph is shown. The x-axis is label time in seconds with a scale of zero to thirty-five in increments of five. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per seconds with a scale of zero to one hundred eighty in increments of twenty. The graphed line is a directly proportional relationship between time and velocity with data points including five, forty and twenty, one hundred twenty. True or False: The image shows a velocity vs. time graph for a jet car. If you take the slope at any point on the graph the jet car’s acceleration will be $5.0\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ .
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex041

ID: 2023@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.192Z

Question:
Which of the following pair of lines, when plotted on the blank plots, would show the motion of an object that has uniformly accelerated from $2\,\text{m/s}$ to $8\,\text{m/s}$ in $3\,\text{s}$ ? Two x and y-axes are shown, side-by-side. On the left, the x-axis is labeled time in seconds and the scale is from zero to four in increments of one. The y-axis is labeled velocity in meters per second and the scale is from zero to eight in increments of two. On the right, the x-axis is labeled time in seconds and the scale is from zero to four in increments of one. The y-axis is labeled acceleration in meters per second squared and the scale is from zero to four in increments of one.
A:
The plot on the left shows a line from (0,2) to (3,8) while the plot on the right shows a line from (0,2) to (3,2).
B:
The plot on the left shows a line from (0,2) to (3,8) while the plot on the right shows a line from (0,3) to (3,3).
C:
The plot on the left shows a line from (0,8) to (3,2) while the plot on the right shows a line from (0,2) to (3,2).
D:
The plot on the left shows a line from (0,8) to (3,2) while the plot on the right shows a line from (0,3) to (3,3).

Tags:

inbook-yes blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc time-long k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex042

ID: 2024@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.209Z

Question:
When is a plot of velocity versus time a straight line and when is it a curved line?
A:
It is a straight line when acceleration is changing and is a curved line when acceleration is constant.
B:
It is a straight line when acceleration is constant and it is a curved line when acceleration is changing.
C:
It is a straight line when velocity is constant and it is a curved line when velocity is changing.
D:
It is a straight line when velocity is changing and it is a curved line when velocity is constant.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex043

ID: 2025@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.215Z

Question:
True or False: Consider an object moving with constant acceleration. The plot of displacement versus time for such motion is a curved line while the plot of displacement versus time squared is a straight line.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 blooms-4 display-simple-mc time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ex044

ID: 2026@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.232Z

Question:
You throw a ball straight up with an initial velocity of 15.0 m/s. It passes a tree branch on the way up at a height of 7.00 m. How much additional time will pass before the ball passes the tree branch on the way back down?
A:
0.574 s
B:
0.956 s
C:
1.53 s
D:
1.91 s

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex045

ID: 2027@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.244Z

Question:
A girl drops a pebble from a high cliff into a lake far below. She sees the splash of the pebble hitting the water $2.00\,\text{s}$ later. How fast was the pebble going when it hit the water?
A:
<span data-math="9.80\,\text{m/s}">9.80\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10.0\,\text{m/s}">10.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="19.6\,\text{m/s}">19.6\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="20.0\,\text{m/s}">20.0\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex046

ID: 2028@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.255Z

Question:
An Olympic-class sprinter starts a race with an acceleration of $4.50\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . Assuming she can maintain that acceleration, what is her speed $2.40\,\text{s}$ later?
A:
<span data-math="4.50\,\text{m/s}">4.50\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10.8\,\text{m/s}">10.8\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="19.6\,\text{m/s}">19.6\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="44.1\,\text{m/s}">44.1\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ex047

ID: 2029@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.267Z

Question:
A greyhound dog can accelerate from rest to a speed of $19.4\,\text{m/s}$ in $3.1\,\text{s}$ . What is its acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="{-60.14}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-60.14}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-6.30}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-6.30}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="6.30\,\text{m/s}^2">6.30\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="60.14\,\text{m/s}^2">60.14\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot001

ID: 2030@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.273Z

Question:
As a driver pulls onto the freeway, she increases her speed from $15.0\,\text{m/s}$ to $30.0\,\text{m/s}$ in $5.00\,\text{s}$ . What is her acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="{-9}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-9}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-3}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-3}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="3\,\text{m/s}^2">3\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="9\,\text{m/s}^2">9\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot002

ID: 2031@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.988Z

Question:
A driver pulls into a parking space at a speed of $1.6\,\text{m/s}$ and breaks to a stop in $0.8\,\text{s}$ . What is the car’s rate of acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="{-1.3}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-1.3}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-2.00}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-2.00}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.3\,\text{m/s}^2">1.3\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.00\,\text{m/s}^2">2.00\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot003

ID: 2032@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.296Z

Question:
A cyclist traveling at $9.0\,\text{m/s}$ breaks to a stop at a traffic light with an acceleration of $-3.00\,\text{m/s}^2$ . How long does it take the cyclist to come to a complete stop?
A:
<span data-math="0.3\,\text{seconds}">0.3\,\text{seconds}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.00\,\text{seconds}">3.00\,\text{seconds}</span>
C:
<span data-math="6.00\,\text{seconds}">6.00\,\text{seconds}</span>
D:
<span data-math="27\,\text{seconds}">27\,\text{seconds}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot004

ID: 2033@2

2015-08-27T19:43:52.994Z

Question:
What is the rate of change of velocity called?
A:
Time
B:
Displacement
C:
Velocity
D:
Acceleration

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot005

ID: 2034@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.325Z

Question:
What are the SI units of acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="\text{m}^2\text{/s}">\text{m}^2\text{/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{cm}^2\text{/s}">\text{cm}^2\text{/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}^2">\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{cm/s}^2">\text{cm/s}^2</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot006

ID: 2035@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.337Z

Question:
A train slows down as it pulls into a station. If the train is moving from your left to your right, what are the directions of the vectors for velocity and acceleration?
A:
The velocity vector points to the left and the acceleration vector also points to the left.
B:
The velocity vector points to the right and the acceleration vector points to the left.
C:
The velocity vector points to the left and the acceleration vector points to the right.
D:
The velocity vector points to the right and the acceleration vector also points to the right

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot007

ID: 2036@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.349Z

Question:
Which of the following statements explains why a racecar going around a curve is accelerating, even if the speed is constant?
A:
The car is accelerating because the magnitude as well as the direction of velocity is changing.
B:
The car is accelerating because the magnitude of velocity is changing.
C:
The car is accelerating because the direction of velocity is changing.
D:
The car is accelerating because neither the magnitude nor the direction of velocity is changing.

Tags:

time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot008

ID: 2037@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.360Z

Question:
How can you use the definition of acceleration to explain the units in which acceleration is measured?
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

time-medium blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot009

ID: 2038@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.366Z

Question:
How can you use the definition of acceleration to explain the units in which acceleration is measured?
A:
Instantaneous acceleration equals final velocity minus initial velocity divided by the final time minus the initial time
B:
Average acceleration equals final velocity minus initial velocity divided by the final time minus the initial time
C:
Instantaneous acceleration equals initial velocity minus final velocity divided by the initial time minus the final time
D:
Average acceleration equals initial velocity minus final velocity divided by the initial time minus the final time

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot010

ID: 2039@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.382Z

Question:
Imagine that a car is traveling from your left to your right at a constant velocity. (a) How will the velocity and acceleration vectors look after the driver lets up on the accelerator? (b) How will the velocity and acceleration change when the driver pushes down on the accelerator?
A:
(a) The velocity and acceleration vectors will point in the same direction and then (b) continue pointing in the same direction.
B:
(a) The velocity and acceleration vectors will point in opposite directions and then (b) they will point in the same direction.
C:
(a) The velocity and acceleration vectors will point in the same direction and then (b) they will point in opposite directions.
D:
(a) The velocity and acceleration vectors will point in opposite directions and then (b) continue pointing in opposite directions.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot011

ID: 2040@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.388Z

Question:
Imagine that a car is traveling from your left to your right at a constant velocity. (a) How will the velocity and acceleration vectors look after the driver lets up on the accelerator? (b) How will the velocity and acceleration change when the driver pushes down on the accelerator?
A:
When the marble rolls up the slope it is speeding up and the acceleration is in the negative direction.
B:
When the marble rolls up the slope, the marble is speeding up and the acceleration is in the positive direction.
C:
When the marble rolls down the slope the marble is speeding up and the acceleration is in the negative direction.
D:
When the marble rolls down the slope, the marble is speeding up and the acceleration is in the positive direction.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot012

ID: 2041@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.405Z

Question:
Over a period of $15\,\text{s}$ , a train traveling at $20\,\text{m/s}$ slows to $7.0\,\text{m/s}$ for a highway crossing. What was the average acceleration of the train during that $15\,\text{s}$ time interval?
A:
<span data-math="-1.15\,\text{s}">-1.15\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-0.87}\,\text{s}">{-0.87}\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.87\,\text{s}">0.87\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.15\,\text{s}">1.15\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot013

ID: 2042@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.416Z

Question:
At the beginning of the 100 meter dash, a runner accelerates at a rate of $5\,\text{m/s}^2$ until he reaches his maximum speed of $10\,\text{m/s}$ . How long does it take him to reach his maximum speed?
A:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{s}">0.5\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2\,\text{s}">2\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{s}">10\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="20\,\text{s}">20\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot014

ID: 2043@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.422Z

Question:
A motorcycle moving at a constant velocity suddenly accelerates at a rate of $4.0\,\text{m/s}^2$ to a speed of $35\,\text{m/s}$ in $5.0\,\text{s}$ . What was the initial speed of the motorcycle?
A:
<span data-math="{-33.75}\,\text{m/s}">{-33.75}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-15.00}\,\text{m/s}">{-15.00}\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="15.00\,\text{m/s}">15.00\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="33.75\,\text{m/s}">33.75\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot015

ID: 2044@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.438Z

Question:
A motorist sees a reduced speed sign and quickly reduces her speed to $10\,\text{m/s}$ . If the car decelerates at a rate of ${-5.0}\,\text{m/s}^2$ in $4.0\,\text{s}$ , what was her initial speed?
A:
<span data-math="{-30}\,\text{m/s}">{-30}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-10}\,\text{m/s}">{-10}\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="30\,\text{m/s}">30\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot016

ID: 2045@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.444Z

Question:
At the end of a race, a runner decelerates from a velocity of $9.00\,\text{m/s}$ at a rate of $2.0\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . How far does she travel in the next $5.00\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="20\,\text{m}">20\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="40\,\text{m}">40\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="50\,\text{m}">50\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="70\,\text{m}">70\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot019

ID: 2046@2

2015-08-27T19:43:53.002Z

Question:
Freight trains can produce only relatively small accelerations. What is the final velocity of a freight train that accelerates at a rate of $0.050\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ for $8.00\,\text{min}$ and has an initial velocity of $4.00\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="4.40\,\text{m/s}">4.40\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="20.0\,\text{m/s}">20.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="28.0\,\text{m/s}">28.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1,440\,\text{m/s}">1,440\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot020

ID: 2047@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.473Z

Question:
Which of the following provides a correct answer for a problem that can be solved using the kinematic equations?
A:
A body starts from rest and accelerates at <span data-math="4\,\text{m/s}^2\!">4\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span> for <span data-math="2\,\text{s}">2\,\text{s}</span>. The body’s final velocity is <span data-math="8\,\text{m/s}">8\,\text{m/s}</span>.
B:
A body starts from rest and accelerates at <span data-math="4\,\text{m/s}^2\!">4\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span> for <span data-math="2\,\text{s}">2\,\text{s}</span>. The body’s final velocity is <span data-math="16\,\text{m/s}">16\,\text{m/s}</span>.
C:
A body with a mass of <span data-math="2\,\text{kg}">2\,\text{kg}</span> is acted upon by a force of <span data-math="4\,\text{N}">4\,\text{N}</span>. The acceleration of the body is <span data-math="2\,\text{m/s}^2\!">2\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>.
D:
A body with a mass of <span data-math="2\,\text{kg}">2\,\text{kg}</span> is acted upon by a force of <span data-math="4\,\text{N}">4\,\text{N}</span>. The acceleration of the body is <span data-math="0.5\,\text{m/s}^2\!">0.5\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>.

Tags:

dok2 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot021

ID: 2048@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.485Z

Question:
Create your own kinematics problem. Then create a flow chart showing the steps someone would need to take to solve the problem.
A:
Differential equations
B:
Equations of motion
C:
Kinematic equations
D:
Linear equations

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot022

ID: 2049@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.491Z

Question:
Create your own kinematics problem. Then create a flow chart showing the steps someone would need to take to solve the problem.
A:
Acceleration
B:
Distance
C:
Displacement
D:
Force

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot023

ID: 2050@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.508Z

Question:
Create your own kinematics problem. Then create a flow chart showing the steps someone would need to take to solve the problem.
A:
Evaluate the force
B:
Evaluate the unknowns
C:
Identify the known values and the unknown variables
D:
Identify the direction of acceleration

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot024

ID: 2051@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.513Z

Question:
Create your own kinematics problem. Then create a flow chart showing the steps someone would need to take to solve the problem.
A:
Find the average velocity.
B:
Find the area under the curve.
C:
Find the slope of the tangent to the curve at that point.
D:
Find the slope of the secant to the curve close to that point.

Tags:

time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot025

ID: 2052@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.525Z

Question:
Which kinematic equation would you use to find the velocity of a skydiver $2.0\,\text{s}$ after she jumps from a plane and before she opens her parachute?
A:
<span data-math="v = v_0 + at">v = v_0 + at</span>
B:
<span data-math="v = v_0 - at">v = v_0 - at</span>
C:
<span data-math="v^2 = {v_0}^2 + at">v^2 = {v_0}^2 + at</span>
D:
<span data-math="v^2 = {v_0}^2 - at">v^2 = {v_0}^2 - at</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot026

ID: 2053@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.536Z

Question:

Skydivers are affected by acceleration due to gravity and by air resistance. Eventually, they reach a speed where the force of gravity is almost equal to the force of air resistance. As they approach that point, their acceleration decreases to near zero.

  1. Describe the shape of the acceleration versus time graph for a falling skydiver.
  2. Describe the shape of the velocity versus time graph for a falling skydiver.
  3. Describe the shape of the displacement versus time graph for a falling skydiver.
A:
<ol> <li>a downward slope that begins with a non-zero y-intercept and levels off at 0</li> <li>an upward slope that begins at 0 and decreases until it levels off</li> <li>an upward slope that begins at 0 and increases until it becomes a positive constant</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>an upward slope that begins with a non-zero y-intercept and levels off at 0</li> <li>an upward slope that begins at 0 and decreases until it levels off</li> <li>an upward slope that begins at 0 and increases until it becomes a positive constant</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>a downward slope that begins with a non-zero y-intercept and levels off at 0</li> <li>a downward slope that begins at 0 and decreases until it levels off</li> <li>an upward slope that begins at 0 and increases until it becomes a positive constant</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>an upward slope that begins with a non-zero y-intercept and levels off at 0</li> <li>a downward slope that begins at 0 and decreases until it levels off</li> <li>an upward slope that begins at 0 and increases until it becomes a positive constant</li> </ol>

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dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot027

ID: 2054@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.547Z

Question:
Which of the following graphs have a positive slope?
A:
Displacement versus time only
B:
acceleration versus time and velocity versus time
C:
velocity versus time and displacement versus time
D:
acceleration versus time and displacement versus time

Tags:

dok3 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc time-long critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot028

ID: 2055@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.558Z

Question:
Consider a gray squirrel falling out of a tree to the ground from a height of $3.0\,\text{m}$ . If we ignore air resistance, what is the squirrel’s velocity just before it hits the ground?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.5\,\text{m/s}">5.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.7\,\text{m/s}">7.7\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="58.8\,\text{m/s}">58.8\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot029

ID: 2056@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.575Z

Question:
An express train passes through a station. It enters with an initial velocity of $22.0\,\text{m/s}$ and decelerates at a rate of $0.150\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ as it passes through. The station is $210\,\text{m}$ long. How fast is the train going when the nose leaves the station?
A:
<span data-math="20.5\,\text{m/s}">20.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="23.4\,\text{m/s}">23.4\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="421\,\text{m/s}">421\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="547\,\text{m/s}">547\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot030

ID: 2057@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.581Z

Question:
A kangaroo can jump over an object $2.50\,\text{m}$ high. Calculate its vertical speed when it leaves the ground.
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.50\,\text{m/s}">2.50\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.00\,\text{s}">7.00\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="49.0\,\text{m/s}">49.0\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot031

ID: 2058@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.600Z

Question:
Standing at the base of a cliff, a hiker hears a rock break loose from a height of $105\,\text{m}$ . He can’t see the rock right away but then he does $1.50\,\text{s}$ later. How far above the hiker is the rock when he can see it?
A:
<span data-math="11.0\,\text{m}">11.0\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="94.0\,\text{m}">94.0\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="105\,\text{m}">105\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="116\,\text{m}">116\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s02 k12phys-ch03-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch03-ot032

ID: 2059@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.606Z

Question:
Which variable represents average acceleration: $a,\,d,\,\bar a,\,\text{or}\,v$ ?
A:
<span data-math="a">a</span>
B:
<span data-math="d">d</span>
C:
<span data-math="\bar a">\bar a</span>
D:
<span data-math="v">v</span>

Tags:

dok1 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch03 k12phys-ch03-s01 k12phys-ch03-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch03-ot033

ID: 2060@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.617Z

Question:
What is kinematics?
A:
Kinematics is the study of motion.
B:
Kinematics is the study of the cause of motion.
C:
Kinematics is the study of dimensions.
D:
Kinematics is the study of atomic structures.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex001

ID: 2061@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.634Z

Question:
Do two bodies have to be in physical contact to exert a force upon one another? Explain with an example.
A:
No, the gravitational force is a field force and does not require physical contact to exert a force.
B:
No, the gravitational force is a contact force and does not require physical contact to exert a force.
C:
Yes, the gravitational force is a field force and requires physical contact to exert a force.
D:
Yes, the gravitational force is a contact force and requires physical contact to exert a force.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex002

ID: 2062@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.639Z

Question:
What kind of physical quantity is force?
A:
Force is a scalar quantity.
B:
Force is a vector quantity.
C:
Force is both a vector quantity and a scalar quantity.
D:
Force is neither a vector nor a scalar quantity.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex003

ID: 2063@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.656Z

Question:
Which forces can be represented in a free-body diagram?
A:
internal forces
B:
External forces
C:
Both internal and external forces
D:
A body that is not influenced by any force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex004

ID: 2064@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.662Z

Question:
What is dynamics?
A:
Dynamics is the study of internal forces.
B:
Dynamics is the study of study of forces and their effect on motion.
C:
Dynamics describes the motion of points, bodies and systems without consideration of the cause of motion.
D:
Dynamics describes the effect of forces on each other.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex005

ID: 2065@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.673Z

Question:
Two forces acting upon an object are perpendicular to one another. How would you draw these in a free-body diagram?
A:
The two force arrows will be drawn at a right angle to one another.
B:
The two force arrows will be pointing in opposite directions.
C:
The two force arrows will be at a <span data-math="45^\circ\!">45^\circ\!</span> angle to one another.
D:
The two force arrows will be at a <span data-math="180^\circ\!">180^\circ\!</span> angle to one another.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex006

ID: 2066@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.685Z

Question:
Only two forces are acting on an object: force A to the left and force B to the right. If force B is greater than force A, in which direction will the object move?
A:
to the right
B:
to the left
C:
upward
D:
the object does not move

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex007

ID: 2067@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.697Z

Question:
In a free-body diagram the arrows representing tension and weight have the same length but point away from one another. What does this indicate?
A:
They are equal in magnitude and act in the same direction.
B:
They are equal in magnitude and act in opposite directions.
C:
They are unequal in magnitude and act in the same direction.
D:
They are unequal in magnitude and act in opposite directions.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex008

ID: 2068@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.714Z

Question:
Which of these is a physical quantity that can be described by dynamics but not by kinematics?
A:
velocity
B:
acceleration
C:
force

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex009

ID: 2069@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.726Z

Question:
Which of these is used to represent an object in a free-body diagram?
A:
a point
B:
a line
C:
a vector

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex010

ID: 2070@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.732Z

Question:
True or False: An external force is defined as a force generated outside the system of interest that acts on an object inside the system.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex011

ID: 2071@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.744Z

Question:
By convention, which sign is assigned to an object moving downward?
A:
A positive sign ( <span data-math="+">+</span> )
B:
A negative sign ( <span data-math="-">-</span> )
C:
Either a positive or negative sign ( <span data-math="\pm">\pm</span> )
D:
No sign is assigned

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex012

ID: 2072@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.756Z

Question:
A body is pushed downward by a force of $5$ units and upward by a force of $2$ units. How would you draw a free-body diagram to represent this?
A:
two force vectors acting at a point, both pointing up with lengths of 5 units and 2 units
B:
two force vectors acting at a point, both pointing down with lengths of <span data-math="5">5</span> units and <span data-math="2">2</span> units
C:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing up with a length of <span data-math="5">5</span> units and the other pointing down with a length of <span data-math="2">2</span> units
D:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing down with a length of <span data-math="5">5</span> units and the other pointing up with a length of <span data-math="2">2</span> units

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex013

ID: 2073@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.767Z

Question:
A body is pushed eastward by a force of four units and southward by a force of three units. How would you draw a free-body diagram to represent this?
A:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing left with a length of 4 units and the other pointing down with a length of 3 units
B:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing left with a length of <span data-math="4">4</span> units and the other pointing up with a length of <span data-math="3">3</span> units
C:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing right with a length of <span data-math="4">4</span> units and the other pointing down with a length of <span data-math="3">3</span> units
D:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing right with a length of <span data-math="4">4</span> units and the other pointing up with a length of <span data-math="3">3</span> units

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex014

ID: 2074@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.779Z

Question:
True or False: When two unequal forces act on a body, the body may not move in the direction of the weaker force.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-simple-mc blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex015

ID: 2075@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.797Z

Question:
Three diagrams are shown: a, b, and c. Diagram a shows an unstretched spring with a length of x. Diagram b shows the spring being stretched a distance of a change in $x$ labeled $\Delta x$, with a resisting force labeled $F_\text{restore}$. Diagram c shows a spring scale being stretched a distance of a change in $x$ labeled $\Delta x$, with a resisting force at the end of the spring scale with the hook. The resistance force is labeled F restore. In the figure given, what is $F_\text{restore}$ ? What is its magnitude?
A:
<span data-math="F_\text{restore}">F_\text{restore}</span> is the force exerted by the hand on the spring. Its magnitude is 6 units and it pulls to the right.
B:
<span data-math="F_\text{restore}">F_\text{restore}</span> is the force exerted by the spring on the hand. Its magnitude is <span data-math="6">6</span> units and it pulls to the left.
C:
<span data-math="F_\text{restore}">F_\text{restore}</span> is the force exerted by the hand on the spring. Its magnitude is <span data-math="6">6</span> units and it pulls to the left.
D:
<span data-math="F_\text{restore}">F_\text{restore}</span> is the force exerted by the spring on the hand. Its magnitude is <span data-math="6">6</span> units and it pulls to the right.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex016

ID: 2076@2

2015-08-27T19:43:53.008Z

Question:
Before we understood that objects have a tendency to maintain their velocity in a straight line unless acted upon by a net force, people thought that objects have a tendency to stop on their own. This happened because a specific force was not yet understood. What was that force?
A:
Gravitational force
B:
Electrostatic force
C:
Nuclear force
D:
Frictional force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex017

ID: 2077@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.820Z

Question:
What does Newton’s First Law state?
A:
A body at rest tends to remain at rest and a body in motion tends to remain in motion at a constant acceleration unless acted on by a net external force.
B:
A body at rest tends to remain at rest and a body in motion tends to remain in motion at a constant velocity unless acted on by a net external force.
C:
The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the external force applied to the body.
D:
The rate of change of momentum of a body is inversely proportional to the external force applied to the body.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex018

ID: 2078@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.832Z

Question:
According to Newton’s first law, a body in motion tends to remain in motion at a constant velocity. However, when you slide an object across a surface the object eventually slows down and stops. Why?
A:
The object experiences a frictional force exerted by the surface, which opposes its motion.
B:
The object experiences the gravitational force exerted by the Earth, which opposes its motion
C:
The object experiences an internal force exerted by the body itself, which opposes its motion.
D:
The object experiences a pseudo force from the body in motion, which opposes its motion.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex019

ID: 2079@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.838Z

Question:
What is inertia?
A:
Inertia is an object’s tendency to maintain its mass.
B:
Inertia is an object’s tendency to remain at rest.
C:
Inertia is an object’s tendency to remain in motion
D:
Inertia is an object’s tendency to remain at rest or, if moving, to remain in motion.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex020

ID: 2080@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.849Z

Question:
What is mass? What does it depend on?
A:
Mass is the weight of an object and depends on the gravitational force acting on the object.
B:
Mass is the weight of an object and depends on the number and types of atoms in the object.
C:
Mass is the quantity of matter contained in an object and depends on the gravitational force acting on the object.
D:
Mass is the quantity of matter contained in an object and depends on the number and types of atoms in the object.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex021

ID: 2081@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.866Z

Question:
A ball rolls along the ground moving from north to south. What direction is the frictional force that acts on the ball?
A:
North to south
B:
South to north
C:
West to east
D:
East to west

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex022

ID: 2082@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.872Z

Question:
The tires you choose to drive over icy roads will create more friction with the road than your summer tires. Give another example where more friction is desirable.
A:
Children’s slide
B:
Air hockey table
C:
Ice skating rink
D:
Jogging track

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex023

ID: 2083@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.883Z

Question:
Two people push a cart on a horizontal surface by applying forces $F_1$ and $F_2$ in the same direction. Is the net force acting on the cart, $F_\text{net}$ equal to, greater than, or less than $F_1 + F_2$ ? Why?
A:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} < F_1 + F_2">F_\text{net} < F_1 + F_2</span> because the net force will not include the frictional force.
B:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = F_1 + F_2">F_\text{net} = F_1 + F_2</span> because the net force will not include the frictional force
C:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} < F_1 + F_2">F_\text{net} < F_1 + F_2</span> because the net force will include the component of frictional force
D:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = F_1 + F_2">F_\text{net} = F_1 + F_2</span> because the net force will include the frictional force

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex024

ID: 2084@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.900Z

Question:
True or False: A book placed on a balance scale is balanced by a standard $1\,\text{kg}$ iron weight placed on the opposite side of the balance. If these objects are taken to the Moon and similar exercise is performed, the balance is still level because gravity is uniform on the Moon’s surface as it is on the Earth’s surface.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex025

ID: 2085@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.906Z

Question:
What kind of force is friction?
A:
external
B:
internal
C:
net force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex026

ID: 2086@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.917Z

Question:
What is another name for Newton’s First Law?
A:
law of infinite motion
B:
law of inertia
C:
law of friction

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex027

ID: 2087@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.934Z

Question:
A body with mass $m$ is pushed along a horizontal surface by a force $F$ and is opposed by a frictional force $f$ . How would you draw a free-body diagram to represent this situation?
A:
A dot with an arrow pointing right, labeled <span data-math="\text{F}">\text{F}</span>, and an arrow pointing left labeled <span data-math="\text{f}">\text{f}</span> that is of equal length or shorter than <span data-math="\text{F}">\text{F}</span>
B:
A dot with an arrow pointing right, labeled <span data-math="\text{F}">\text{F}</span>, and an arrow pointing right labeled <span data-math="\text{f}">\text{f}</span> that is of equal length or shorter than <span data-math="\text{F}">\text{F}</span>
C:
A dot with an arrow pointing right, labeled <span data-math="\text{F}">\text{F}</span>, and a smaller arrow pointing up, labeled <span data-math="\text{f}">\text{f}</span>, that is of equal length or longer than <span data-math="\text{F}">\text{F}</span>
D:
(d) A dot with an arrow pointing right, labeled <span data-math="\text{F}">\text{F}</span>, and a smaller arrow pointing down, labeled <span data-math="\text{f}">\text{f}</span>, that is of equal length or longer than <span data-math="\text{F}">\text{F}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex028

ID: 2088@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.946Z

Question:
Two objects rest on a uniform surface. A person pushes both with equal force. If the first object starts to move faster than the second, what can be said about their masses?
A:
The mass of the first object is less than that of the second object.
B:
The mass of the first object is equal to the mass of the second object.
C:
The mass of the first object is greater than that of the second object.
D:
No inference can be made because mass and force are not related to each other.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex029

ID: 2089@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.957Z

Question:
Two similar boxes rest on a table. One is empty and the other is filled with pebbles. Without opening or lifting either, how can you tell which box is full? Why?
A:
By applying an internal force. Whichever box accelerates faster is lighter and so must be empty.
B:
By applying an internal force. Whichever box accelerates faster is heavier and so the other box must be empty.
C:
By applying an external force. Whichever box accelerates faster is lighter and so must be empty.
D:
By applying an external force. Whichever box accelerates faster is heavier and so the other box must be empty.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex030

ID: 2090@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.969Z

Question:
True or False: An external force is required to set a stationary object in motion in outer space away from all gravitational influences and atmospheric friction.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex031

ID: 2091@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.981Z

Question:
Two people apply the same force to throw two identical balls in the air. Will the balls necessarily travel the same distance? Why or why not?
A:
No, the balls will not necessarily travel the same distance because the gravitational force acting on them is different.
B:
No, the balls will not necessarily travel the same distance because the angle at which they are thrown may differ.
C:
Yes, the balls will travel the same distance because the gravitational force acting on them is the same.
D:
Yes, the balls will travel the same distance because the angle at which they are thrown may differ.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex032

ID: 2092@1

2015-08-20T13:11:32.993Z

Question:
A person pushes a box from left to right and then lets the box slide freely across the floor. The box slows down as it slides across the floor. When the box is sliding freely, what is the direction of the net external force? Why?
A:
The net external force acts from left to right.
B:
The net external force acts from right to left.
C:
The net external force acts upward.
D:
The net external force acts downward.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex033

ID: 2093@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.005Z

Question:
While standing on a bathroom scale, push down on a table next to you. What happens to the reading? Why?
A:
Reading increases because part of your weight is applied to the table and the table exerts a matching force on you that acts in the direction of your weight
B:
Reading increases because part of your weight is applied to the table and the table exerts a matching force on you that acts in the direction opposite to your weight
C:
Reading decreases because part of your weight is applied to the table and the table exerts a matching force on you that acts in the direction of your weight
D:
Reading decreases because part of your weight is applied to the table and the table exerts a matching force on you that acts in the direction opposite to your weight

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex034

ID: 2094@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.011Z

Question:
True or False: If you want to reduce the acceleration of an object to half its original value, then you would need to reduce the net external force by half.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex035

ID: 2095@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.023Z

Question:
Suppose that the net external force (push minus friction) exerted on a lawn mower is $51\,\text{N}$ parallel to the ground. A man is facing to the right and is pushing a lawn mover forward. The force exerted on the lawn mower is labeled with a right-facing vector, $F_{\text{net}}$. The mass of the mower is $240\,\text{kg}$ . What is its acceleration? What can you say about the external force acting on the system?
A:
Acceleration is <span data-math="0.21\,\text{m/s}^2">0.21\,\text{m/s}^2</span>. The force exerted by the person pushing the mower must be less than the friction opposing the motion
B:
Acceleration is <span data-math="0.21\,\text{m/s}^2">0.21\,\text{m/s}^2</span>. The force exerted by the person pushing the mower must be greater than the friction opposing the motion
C:
Acceleration is <span data-math="4.71\,\text{m/s}^2">4.71\,\text{m/s}^2</span>. The force exerted by the person pushing the mower must be less than the friction opposing the motion
D:
Acceleration is <span data-math="4.71\,\text{m/s}^2">4.71\,\text{m/s}^2</span>. The force exerted by the person pushing the mower must be greater than the friction opposing the motion

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex036

ID: 2096@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.034Z

Question:
An accelerating right-facing rocket sled is shown on tracks. Four thrust force vectors are behind the sled and are pointing to the right. An acceleration vector is above the sled and is pointing to the right. A friction force vector is in front of the sled and is pointing to the left. A Newton vector is below the sled and is pointing upward. A weight vector is also below the sled and is pointing downward. A free body diagram illustrates the force vectors. Calculate the magnitude of force exerted by each rocket, called its thrust $T$ , for the four-rocket propulsion system shown. The sled’s initial acceleration is $49\,\text{m/s}^2$ , the mass of the system is $2100\,\text{kg}$ , and the force of friction opposing the motion is $650\,\text{N}$ .
A:
<span data-math="2.57\times10^4\,\text{N}">2.57\times10^4\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.59\times10^4\,\text{N}">2.59\times10^4\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.03\times10^5\,\text{N}">1.03\times10^5\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.04\times10^5\,\text{N}">1.04\times10^5\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex037

ID: 2097@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.052Z

Question:
If $1\,\text{N}$ is equal to $0.225\,\text{lb}$ , how many pounds is $5\,\text{N}$ of force?
A:
<span data-math="0.045\, \text{lb}">0.045\, \text{lb}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.125\,\text {lb}">1.125\,\text {lb}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.025\,\text{lb}">2.025\,\text{lb}</span>
D:
<span data-math="5.000\,\text{lb}">5.000\,\text{lb}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex038

ID: 2098@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.064Z

Question:
How much force needs to be applied to a $5\,\text{kg}$ object for it to accelerate at $20\,\text{m/s}^2$ ?
A:
<span data-math="1\,\text{N}">1\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10\,\text {N}">10\,\text {N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="100\,\text{N}">100\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1000\,\text{N}">1000\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex039

ID: 2099@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.070Z

Question:
What is the mathematical statement for Newton’s second law of motion?
A:
<span data-math="F = ma">F = ma</span>
B:
<span data-math="F = 2ma">F = 2ma</span>
C:
<span data-math="F = \frac{m}{a}">F = \frac{m}{a}</span>
D:
<span data-math="F = ma^2">F = ma^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex040

ID: 2100@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.087Z

Question:
Newton’s Second Law describes the relationship between which quantities?
A:
Force, mass, and time
B:
Force, mass, and displacement
C:
Force, mass, and velocity
D:
Force, mass, and acceleration.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex041

ID: 2101@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.098Z

Question:
What does it mean for two quantities to be inversely proportional to each other?
A:
When one variable increases, the other variable decreases.
B:
When one variable increases, the other variable also increases.
C:
When one variable increases, the other variable decreases by the same factor.
D:
When one variable increases, the other variable also increases by the same factor.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex042

ID: 2102@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.109Z

Question:
From the equation for Newton’s Second Law, we see that $F_\text{net}$ is directly proportional to a and that the constant of proportionality is m. What does this mean practically?
A:
An increase in applied force will cause an increase in acceleration if the mass is constant.
B:
An increase in applied force will cause a decrease in acceleration if the mass is constant.
C:
An increase in applied force will cause an increase in acceleration even if the mass varies.
D:
An increase in applied force will cause an increase in acceleration and mass.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex043

ID: 2103@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.115Z

Question:
An object has a mass of $1\,\text{kg}$ on Earth. What is its weight on the moon?
A:
<span data-math="1\,\text {N}">1\,\text {N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.67\,\text {N}">1.67\,\text {N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.8\,\text{N}">9.8\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="10\,\text{N}">10\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex044

ID: 2104@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.126Z

Question:
A bathroom scale shows your mass as $55\,\text{kg}$ . What will it read on the moon?
A:
<span data-math="9.4\,\text {kg}">9.4\,\text {kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10.5\,\text {kg}">10.5\,\text {kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="55.0\,\text{kg}">55.0\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="91.9\,\text{kg}">91.9\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex045

ID: 2105@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.143Z

Question:
In the equation for Newton’s Second Law, what does $F_{\text{net}}$ stand for?
A:
internal force
B:
net external force
C:
frictional force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex046

ID: 2106@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.155Z

Question:
What is the SI unit of force?
A:
kilogram
B:
dyne
C:
newton

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex047

ID: 2107@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.160Z

Question:
A steadily rolling ball is pushed in the direction from east to west, which causes the ball to move faster in the same direction. What is the direction of the acceleration?
A:
North to South
B:
South to North
C:
East to West
D:
West to East

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex048

ID: 2108@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.178Z

Question:
A ball travels from north to south at $60\,\text{km/h}$ . After being hit by a bat, it travels from west to east at $60\,\text{km/h}$ . Is there a change in velocity?
A:
Yes, because velocity is a scalar.
B:
Yes, because velocity is a vector.
C:
No, because velocity is a scalar.
D:
No, because velocity is a vector.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex049

ID: 2109@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.184Z

Question:
What is the weight of a $5\,\text{kg}$ object on Earth and on the Moon?
A:
On Earth, the weight is <span data-math="1.67\,\text{N}">1.67\,\text{N}</span>, and on the Moon the weight is <span data-math="1.67\,\text{N}">1.67\,\text{N}</span>.
B:
On Earth the weight is <span data-math="5\,\text{N}">5\,\text{N}</span>, and on the Moon the weight is <span data-math="5\,\text{N}">5\,\text{N}</span>.
C:
On Earth the weight is <span data-math="49\,\text{N}">49\,\text{N}</span>, and on the Moon the weight is <span data-math="8.35\,\text{N}">8.35\,\text{N}</span>.
D:
On Earth the weight is <span data-math="8.35\,\text{N}">8.35\,\text{N}</span>, and on the Moon the weight is <span data-math="49\,\text{N}">49\,\text{N}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex050

ID: 2110@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.201Z

Question:
An object weighs $294\,\text{N}$ on Earth. What is its weight on the Moon?
A:
<span data-math="50.1\,\text{N}">50.1\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="30.0\,\text{N}">30.0\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="249\,\text{N}">249\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1461\,\text{N}">1461\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex051

ID: 2111@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.207Z

Question:
A $55\,\text{kg}$ lady stands on a bathroom scale inside an elevator. The scale reads $70\,\text{kg}$ . What do you know about the motion of the elevator?
A:
The elevator must be accelerating upward.
B:
The elevator must be accelerating downward.
C:
The elevator must be moving upward with constant velocity.
D:
The elevator must be moving downward with constant velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex052

ID: 2112@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.219Z

Question:
A sky diver initially accelerates in his jump. Later, he achieves a state of constant velocity called terminal velocity. Does this mean the sky diver becomes weightless?
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex053

ID: 2113@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.230Z

Question:
If a problem has more than one system of interest, more than one free-body diagram is required to describe the external forces acting on the different systems
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex054

ID: 2114@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.247Z

Question:
If the astronaut in the video wanted to move upward, in which direction should he throw the object? Why?
A:
He should throw the object upward because, according to Newton’s third law, the object will then exert a force on him in the same direction (i.e., upward).
B:
He should throw the object upward because, according to Newton’s third law, the object will then exert a force on him in the opposite direction (i.e., downward).
C:
He should throw the object downward because, according to Newton’s third law, the object will then exert a force on him in the opposite direction (i.e., upward).
D:
He should throw the object downward because, according to Newton’s third law, the object will then exert a force on him in the same direction (i.e., downward).

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex055

ID: 2115@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.252Z

Question:
A teacher is standing and facing to the right. She is pushing a cart with various items on it including books and boxes. The teacher and cart are labeled, "System." A force vector labeled $F$ teacher shows the force of the teacher's push on the cart and points to the right. A force vector of equal length labeled $F$ cart show the force exerted by the cart and points to the left. A friction force vector at the bottom area of the cart points to the left. A force vector labeled $F$ floor shows the force of the floor on the teacher's feet and points to the right. A force vector of equal length labeled $F$ foot show the force exerted by teacher foot as she walks and points to the left. A free-body diagram of the system illustrates the friction force pointing to the left, the weight force pointing downward, the Newton force pointing upward, and the $F$ floor force pointing to the right. A physics teacher pushes a cart of demonstration equipment to a classroom, as in Image 4.12 Her mass is $65\,\text{kg}$ , the cart’s mass is $12\,\text{kg}$ , and the equipment’s mass is $7.0\,\text{kg}$ . To push the cart forward, the teacher’s foot applies a force of $150\,\text{N}$ in the opposite direction (backward) on the floor. Calculate the acceleration produced by the teacher. The force of friction, which opposes the motion, is $24.0\,\text{N}$ .
A:
<span data-math="0.29\,\text{m/s}^2">0.29\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.5\,\text{m/s}^2">1.5\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.8\,\text{m/s}^2">1.8\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.1\,\text{m/s}^2">2.1\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex056

ID: 2116@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.264Z

Question:
What is the equation for the normal force for a body with mass $m$ that is at rest on a horizontal surface?
A:
<span data-math="N =\,m">N =\,m</span>
B:
<span data-math="N =\,m\text{g}">N =\,m\text{g}</span>
C:
<span data-math="N =\,mv">N =\,mv</span>
D:
<span data-math="N =\text{g}">N =\text{g}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex057

ID: 2117@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.275Z

Question:
An object with mass $m$ is at rest on the floor. What is the magnitude and direction of the normal force acting on it?
A:
<span data-math="{N = mv}">{N = mv}</span> in upward direction
B:
<span data-math="N = m\text{g}">N = m\text{g}</span> in upward direction
C:
<span data-math="N = mv">N = mv</span> in downward direction
D:
<span data-math="N = m\text{g}">N = m\text{g}</span> in downward direction

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex058

ID: 2118@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.287Z

Question:
What is Newton’s third law of motion?
A:
Whenever a first body exerts a force on a second body, the first body experiences a force that is twice the magnitude and acts in the direction of the applied force
B:
Whenever a first body exerts a force on a second body, the first body experiences a force that is equal in magnitude and acts in the direction of the applied force
C:
Whenever a first body exerts a force on a second body, the first body experiences a force that is twice the magnitude but acts in the direction opposite the direction of the applied force
D:
Whenever a first body exerts a force on a second body, the first body experiences a force that is equal in magnitude but acts in the direction opposite the direction of the applied force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex059

ID: 2119@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.298Z

Question:
Considering Newton’s third law, why don’t two equal and opposite forces cancel out each other?
A:
Because the two forces act in the same direction
B:
Because the two forces have different magnitudes
C:
Because the two forces acts on different systems
D:
Because the two forces act in perpendicular directions

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex060

ID: 2120@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.310Z

Question:
Which forces cause the motion of a system?
A:
internal forces
B:
external forces
C:
both internal and external forces
D:
neither internal nor external forces

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex061

ID: 2121@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.321Z

Question:
A person accelerates while walking on the ground by exerting force . The ground in turn exerts force ${F_2}$ on the person. $F$ and ${F_2}$ are equal in magnitude but act in opposite directions. The person is able to walk because the two forces act on the different systems and the net force acting on the person is nonzero.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex062

ID: 2122@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.333Z

Question:
A person pushes an object of mass $5.0\,\text{kg}$ along the floor by applying a force. If the object experiences a friction force of $10\,\text{N}$ and accelerates at $18\,\text{m/s}^2$ , what is the force exerted by the person?
A:
<span data-math="-90\,\text{N}">-90\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-80\,\text{N}">-80\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="90\,\text{N}">90\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="100\,\text{N}">100\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex063

ID: 2123@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.345Z

Question:
A car weighs $2000\,\text{kg}$ . It moves along a road by applying a force of $560\,\text{N}$ on the road. There are two passengers in the car, each weighing $55\,\text{kg}$ . If the force of friction experienced by the car is $45\,\text{N}$ , what is the acceleration of the car?
A:
<span data-math="0.242\,\text{m/s}^2">0.242\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.265\,\text{m/s}^2">0.265\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="4.00\,\text{m/s}^2">4.00\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.10\,\text{m/s}^2">4.10\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex064

ID: 2124@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.356Z

Question:
One object exerts a force of magnitude $F_1$ on another object and experiences a force of magnitude $F_2$ in return. What is true for $F_1$ and $F_2$ ?
A:
<span data-math="F_1 &gt; F_2">F_1 &gt; F_2</span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ F_1 &lt; F_2 %]]&gt;">% </span>
C:
<span data-math="F_1 = F_2">F_1 = F_2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex065

ID: 2125@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.374Z

Question:
A weight is suspended with a rope and hangs freely. In what direction is the tension in the rope?
A:
parallel to the rope
B:
perpendicular to the rope

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex066

ID: 2126@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.379Z

Question:
A large semi-truck, with mass $30\,\text{m}$ crashes into a small sedan with mass $m$ . If the semi-truck exerts a force $F$ on the sedan, what force will the sedan exert on the semi-truck?
A:
<span data-math="\frac{F}{30}">\frac{F}{30}</span>
B:
<span data-math="F">F</span>
C:
<span data-math="2F">2F</span>
D:
<span data-math="30F">30F</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex067

ID: 2127@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.391Z

Question:
A fish pushes water backward with its fins. How does this propel the fish forward?
A:
The water exertsan internal force on the fish in the opposite direction, pushing the fish forward.
B:
The water exerts an external force on the fish in the opposite direction, pushing the fish forward.
C:
The water exerts an internal force on the fish in the same direction, pushing the fish forward.
D:
The water exerts an external force on the fish in the same direction,pushing the fish forward.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex068

ID: 2128@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.408Z

Question:
Tension is the force in a connector, such as a string, rope, chain or cable that pulls each point of the connector apart in the direction parallel to the length of the connector. At the ends of the connector the tension pulls toward the center of the connector.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex069

ID: 2129@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.413Z

Question:
Normal reaction is the force that opposes the force of gravity and acts in the direction of the force of gravity
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex070

ID: 2130@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.424Z

Question:
How do rockets propel themselves in space?
A:
Rockets expel gas in the forward direction at high velocity and the gas, which providesan internal force, in turn pushes the rockets forward.
B:
Rockets expel gas in the forward direction at high velocity and the gas, which providesan external force, in turn pushes the rockets forward.
C:
Rockets expel gas in the backward direction at high velocity and the gas in, which is an internal force, in turn pushes the rockets forward
D:
Rockets expel gas in the backward direction at high velocity and the gas, which provides an external force, in turn pushes the rockets forward.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ex071

ID: 2131@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.436Z

Question:
Are rockets more efficient in Earth’s atmosphere or in outer space? Why?
A:
Rockets are more efficient in Earth’s atmosphere than in outer space becausethe air in Earth’satmosphere helps toprovide thrust forthe rocket, and Earth has more air friction than outer space
B:
Rockets are more efficient in Earth’s atmosphere than in outer space because theair in earth’s atmosphere helps toprovide thrust to the rocket and earth has less air friction than the outer space.
C:
Rockets are more efficient in outer space than in Earth’s atmosphere because the air in Earth’s atmosphere does not provide thrust but does createmore air friction than in outer space.
D:
Rockets are more efficient in outer space than in Earth’s atmosphere because the air in Earth’s atmosphere does not provide thrust but does create less air friction than in outer space.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex072

ID: 2132@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.447Z

Question:
Click on the tab for the Acceleration Lab and check the Sum of Forces option. Push the box to the right and then release. Notice which direction the sum of forces arrow points after the person stops pushing the box and lets it continue moving to the right on its own. At this point, in which direction is the net force, the sum of forces, pointing? Why?
A:
The net force acts to the right because the applied external force acted to the right.
B:
The net force acts to the left because the applied external force acted to the left.
C:
The net force acts to the right because the frictional force acts to the right.
D:
The net force acts to the left because the frictional force acts to the left.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-5 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ex073

ID: 2133@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.458Z

Question:
What type of physical quantity causes motion?
A:
velocity
B:
Acceleration
C:
Momentum
D:
Force

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot001

ID: 2134@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.470Z

Question:
What is a net external force?
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot002

ID: 2135@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.481Z

Question:
What does it mean when we say that force is a vector quantity?
A:
Force has magnitude only.
B:
Force has direction only.
C:
Force has both magnitude and direction.
D:
Force has neither magnitude nor direction.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot003

ID: 2136@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.499Z

Question:
A cannon applies a force to shoot a cannonball, which is a relatively strong force. Give an example of a weaker force.
A:
A feather lands on the floor.
B:
The force of gravity holding the Earth in orbit around the Sun
C:
A speeding car crashing into a wall
D:
The force required to propel an aircraft carrier at maximum acceleration

Tags:

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ID: 2137@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.505Z

Question:
A free-body diagram shows the forces acting upon an object. How is that object represented in the diagram?
A:
a single point
B:
a square box
C:
a unit circle
D:
the object as it is

Tags:

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ID: 2138@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.522Z

Question:
How does a free-body diagram represent the various forces acting upon an object?
A:
an arrow pointing in the direction in which the force is applied
B:
a straight line set in the direction in which the force is applied
C:
an arrow pointing in the direction perpendicular to the direction in which the force is applied
D:
a straight line set in the direction perpendicular to the direction in which the force is applied

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot006

ID: 2139@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.533Z

Question:
Which forces are considered in a free-body diagram?
A:
internal forces
B:
external forces
C:
both internal and external forces
D:
neither internal nor external forces

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot007

ID: 2140@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.545Z

Question:
In a free-body diagram what does the length of an arrow indicate?
A:
The length can be ignored; only the direction matters.
B:
The length indicates the type of force being shown.
C:
The length indicates the magnitude of the force.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot008

ID: 2141@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.556Z

Question:
What do Newton’s Laws describe?
A:
Newton’s Laws describe motion and the effect forces have on motion.
B:
Newton’s Laws describe forces and the effect forces have on each other.
C:
Newton’s Laws describe motion.
D:
Newton’s Laws describe the different types of internal and external forces.

Tags:

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ID: 2142@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.569Z

Question:
What can Newton’s laws be applied to?
A:
Newton’s Laws are universal and are not applicable to all objects in the universe.
B:
Newton’s Laws are universal and can be applied to all objects in the universe.
C:
Newton’s Laws are not universal and do not apply to all objects in the universe.
D:
Newton’s Laws are not universal but can be applied to all objects in the universe.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot010

ID: 2143@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.575Z

Question:
You see Max standing with Marie to the left and Robert to the right. Marie pushes Max to the right with a force of $10$ units while Robert pushes Max to the left with a force of $12$ units. How would you draw a free-body diagram to represent the forces acting upon Max?
A:
two force vectors acting at a point, both pointing to the right, with lengths of <span data-math="10">10</span> and <span data-math="12">12</span> units
B:
two force vectors acting at a point, both pointing to the left, with lengths of <span data-math="10">10</span> and <span data-math="12">12</span> units
C:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing to the left with a length of 12 units and the other pointing to the right with a length of 10 units
D:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing to the left with a length of 10 units and the other pointing to the right with a length of 12 units
E:
one force vector acting at a point pointing to the left with a length of 2 units
F:
one force vector acting at a point pointing to the right with a length of <span data-math="2">2</span> units

Tags:

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ID: 2144@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.586Z

Question:
A person is trying to lift a box placed on the floor by exerting a force of $5$ units on it. However, that box is being pulled downward by a gravitational force of $7$ units. How would you draw a free-body diagram to represent the forces acting upon the box?
A:
two force vectors acting at a point, both pointing upwards with lengths of <span data-math="5">5</span> units and <span data-math="7">7</span> units
B:
two force vectors acting at a point, both pointing downward with lengths of <span data-math="5">5</span> units and <span data-math="7">7</span> units
C:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing upward with a length of 5 units and the other pointing downward with a length of 7 units
D:
two force vectors acting at a point, one pointing downward with a length of 5 units and the other pointing upward with a length of 7 units

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot012

ID: 2145@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.603Z

Question:
An object is at rest. Two forces, X and Y, are acting on it. Force X has a magnitude of $x$ and acts in the downward direction. What is the magnitude and direction of Y?
A:
The magnitude would be <span data-math="x">x</span> and point in the upward direction.
B:
The magnitude would be <span data-math="2x">2x</span> and point in the upward direction.
C:
The magnitude would be <span data-math="x">x</span> and point in the downward direction.
D:
The magnitude would be <span data-math="2x">2x</span> and point in the downward direction.

Tags:

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ID: 2146@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.615Z

Question:
Three forces, A, B and C, are acting upon the same object with forces $a$ , $b$ and $c$ , respectively. Force A acts to the right, force B acts to the left and force C acts downward. What is a necessary condition for the object to move straight down?
A:
The magnitude of force A must be greater than the magnitude of force B so <span data-math="a > b">a > b</span>.
B:
The magnitude of force A must be equal to the magnitude of force B so <span data-math="a = b">a = b</span>.
C:
The magnitude of force A must be greater than the magnitude of force C so <span data-math="A > C">A > C</span>.
D:
The magnitude of force C must be greater than the magnitude of forces A or B so <span data-math="A < C > B">A < C > B</span>.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot014

ID: 2147@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.626Z

Question:
If a force pushes a body to the east and another force of equal strength pushes it to the north, in what direction will the body move?
A:
North
B:
East
C:
Northeast
D:
The body remains at rest.

Tags:

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ID: 2148@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.638Z

Question:
Two people are pushing a box with forces of equal strength: one to the west and one to the north. In what direction must you apply force to prevent the box from moving?
A:
North
B:
Northeast
C:
South
D:
Southeast

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s01 k12phys-ch04-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot016

ID: 2149@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.649Z

Question:
How do you express, mathematically, that no external force is acting on a body?
A:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = {-1}">F_\text{net} = {-1}</span>
B:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = 0">F_\text{net} = 0</span>
C:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = 1">F_\text{net} = 1</span>
D:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \infty">F_\text{net} = \infty</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2150@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.660Z

Question:
What is friction?
A:
Friction is an internal force that opposes the motion of objects.
B:
Friction is an internal force that accelerates the motion of objects.
C:
Friction is an external force that opposes the motion of objects.
D:
Friction is an external force that accelerates the motion of objects.

Tags:

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ID: 2151@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.672Z

Question:
Name one thing that the friction between two surfaces may depend on.
A:
Color of the surfaces
B:
Length of the surfaces
C:
Width of the surfaces
D:
Roughness of the surfaces

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot019

ID: 2152@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.683Z

Question:
True or False: A figure skater slides more easily on ice than on a wooden floor because there is more friction between the ice and the skates than there is between the wooden floor and the skates.
A:
True
B:
False

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dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot020

ID: 2153@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.695Z

Question:
What is the inertia of an object proportional to?
A:
Mass
B:
Volume
C:
Shape
D:
Temperature

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot021

ID: 2154@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.706Z

Question:
True or False: In the context of Newton’s First Law, a system is one or more objects we wish to study.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok1 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot022

ID: 2155@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.718Z

Question:
What is the difference between mass and weight?
A:
Mass is the force exerted by gravity on an object, and weight is the quantity of matter contained in the object.
B:
Mass is the quantity of matter contained in an object, and weight is the force exerted by gravity on the object.
C:
Both mass and weight are the force exerted by gravity on an object.
D:
Both mass and weight are the quantity of matter contained in an object.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot023

ID: 2156@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.729Z

Question:
True or False: Determining the mass of an object by counting the number of atoms and molecules in it is an impossible task. Therefore the mass of an object is often given by the object’s weight as the force of gravity is almost constant, that is, uniform on the surface of Earth.
A:
True
B:
False

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dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot024

ID: 2157@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.740Z

Question:
A bowling lane is an example where a smooth surface with less friction is desirable so that the ball can slide smoothly. Give another example where a surface with less friction is desirable.
A:
Tennis court
B:
Race track
C:
Air-hockey table
D:
Handle of a hammer

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot025

ID: 2158@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.752Z

Question:
Which forces affect the motion of a system?
A:
Internal forces
B:
External forces
C:
Both internal and external forces
D:
Neither internal nor external force

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot026

ID: 2159@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.763Z

Question:
A body has a weight of $30$ units on Earth. Compared with its weight on Earth, will the body weigh more, less or the same on the Moon?
A:
Less
B:
More
C:
Same
D:
Zero

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot027

ID: 2160@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.779Z

Question:
A body has a mass of $30\,\text{kg}$ on Earth. Will its mass be more, less, or the same on the Moon?
A:
Less
B:
More
C:
Same
D:
Zero

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot028

ID: 2161@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.798Z

Question:
True or False: A rocket is launched into space and escapes the Earth’s gravitational pull. It will continue to travel in a straight line until it is acted on by another force.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot029

ID: 2162@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.804Z

Question:
A person rolls a ball on the floor from west to east by applying a force $F_1$ . A frictional force, $f$ , opposes the motion of the ball. What is the magnitude and direction of the additional force that should be applied to the ball to keep it moving at the same velocity?
A:
<span data-math="f">f</span> in the direction from west to east
B:
<span data-math="f">f</span>in the direction from east to west
C:
<span data-math="{F_1} - f">{F_1} - f</span> in the direction from west to east
D:
<span data-math="{F_1} - f">{F_1} - f</span> in the direction from east to west

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot030

ID: 2163@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.815Z

Question:
A $2000\,\text{kg}$ car travels at $60\,\text{km/h}$ . A bike and rider with a total mass of $60\,\text{kg}$ are travelling on the same road at $10\,\text{km/h}$ . Which system has more inertia? Why?
A:
Car has more inertia as its mass is greater than the bike
B:
The bike has more inertia as its mass is greater than the car
C:
The car has more inertia as its mass is lesser than the bike
D:
The bike has more inertia as its mass is lesser than the car

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot031

ID: 2164@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.833Z

Question:
A $25\,\text{kg}$ object moves from left to right at a speed of $30\,\text{km/h}$ . What net force is required to keep this object in motion?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{N}">0\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="25\,\text{N}">25\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="30\,\text{N}">30\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="750\,\text{N}">750\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s02 k12phys-ch04-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot032

ID: 2165@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.838Z

Question:
Derive the equation for weight using Newton’s Second Law.
A:
If <span data-math="w">w</span> is the weight then <span data-math="w = m\text{g}">w = m\text{g}</span>.
B:
If <span data-math="w">w</span> is the weight then <span data-math="w = mg^2">w = mg^2</span>.
C:
If <span data-math="w">w</span> is the weight then <span data-math="w = 2m\text{g}">w = 2m\text{g}</span>.
D:
If <span data-math="\,text{w}">\,text{w}</span> is the weight then <span data-math="w = m^2g^2">w = m^2g^2</span>.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot033

ID: 2166@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.850Z

Question:
Calculate the weight of a $1\,\text{kg}$ object on Earth.
A:
<span data-math="1\ \text{N}">1\ \text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="9.8\,\text {N}">9.8\,\text {N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{N}">10\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1000\,\text{N}">1000\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot034

ID: 2167@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.867Z

Question:
What is the weight on Earth of a $20\,\text{kg}$ object?
A:
<span data-math="2\,\text{N}">2\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.04\,\text {N}">2.04\,\text {N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="196\.\text{N}">196\.\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="200\,\text{N}">200\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot035

ID: 2168@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.879Z

Question:
What is the mass of an object that weighs $686\,\text{N}$ on Earth?
A:
<span data-math="68.6\,\text{kg}">68.6\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="70\,\text{kg}">70\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="74\,\text{kg}">74\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="84\,\text{kg}">84\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot036

ID: 2169@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.891Z

Question:
What is acceleration?
A:
Acceleration is the rate at which displacement changes.
B:
Acceleration is the rate at which force changes.
C:
Acceleration is the rate at which velocity changes.
D:
Acceleration is the rate at which mass changes.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot037

ID: 2170@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.902Z

Question:
What type of quantity is acceleration?
A:
Acceleration has no direction, only magnitude, so it is a vector quantity.
B:
Acceleration has no direction, only magnitude, so it is a scalar quantity.
C:
Acceleration has both direction and magnitude, so it is a vector quantity.
D:
Acceleration has both direction and magnitude, so it is a scalar quantity.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot038

ID: 2171@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.914Z

Question:
True or False: Newton’s Second Law can be interpreted based on Newton’s First Law.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot039

ID: 2172@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.925Z

Question:
A car travels at $60\,\text{km/h}$ . In $30\,\text{s}$ , it slows down to $20\,\text{km/h}$ . Did the car accelerate during this period?
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot040

ID: 2173@1

2015-08-20T13:11:33.937Z

Question:
The same force is applied in the same direction to two objects at rest. Which of these will undergo greater acceleration?
A:
The object with less mass
B:
The object with more mass
C:
The object of smaller size
D:
The object of larger size

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot041

ID: 2174@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.051Z

Question:
Two identical balls are thrown by applying different amounts of force. Which of these will undergo greater acceleration?
A:
The ball to which less force is applied
B:
The ball to which more force is applied
C:
Both balls will have same acceleration but in opposite directions.
D:
Both balls will have same acceleration in the same direction.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot042

ID: 2175@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.065Z

Question:
We can rearrange the equation for Newton’s second law to solve for acceleration. What relationship does this show for $a$ and $m$ ? What does this mean in practice?
A:
Acceleration is directly proportional to mass for a constant force.
B:
Acceleration is inversely proportional to mass for a constant force.
C:
Acceleration is directly proportional to square root of mass for a constant force.
D:
Acceleration is inversely proportional to square root of mass for a constant force.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot043

ID: 2176@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.077Z

Question:
Two cars of mass $1000\,\text{kg}$ and $2000\,\text{kg}$ are traveling at velocities $20\,\text{km/h}$ and $60\,\text{km/h}$ , respectively. Which car will require more force to achieve an acceleration of $2\,\text{m/s}^2$ ?
A:
The <span data-math="2000\,\text {kg}">2000\,\text {kg}</span> car will require more force.
B:
The <span data-math="1000\,\text {kg}">1000\,\text {kg}</span> car will require more force.
C:
Both cars will require the same amount of force.
D:
The magnitude of the force required depends on the velocity of each car.

Tags:

display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot044

ID: 2177@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.089Z

Question:
What is the net external force on an object in free fall on Earth if you were to neglect the effects of air?
A:
The net force is zero.
B:
The net force is upward with magnitude <span data-math="mg">mg</span>.
C:
The net force is downward with magnitude mg.
D:
The net force is downward with magnitude <span data-math="9.8\,\text{N}">9.8\,\text{N}</span>.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot045

ID: 2178@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.095Z

Question:
An object requires a force of magnitude $x$ to accelerate at $5\,\text{m/s}^2$ . What force is required for it to accelerate at $10\,\text{m/s}^2$ ?
A:
<span data-math="x">x</span>
B:
<span data-math="\frac{x}{2}">\frac{x}{2}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2x">2x</span>
D:
<span data-math="4x">4x</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot046

ID: 2179@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.107Z

Question:
A piece of paper remains afloat in air at the same position. If its mass is $0.001\,\text{kg}$ , what is the amount of upward buoyancy that it experiences?
A:
<span data-math="0 \text{N}">0 \text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="9.8\,\text {N}">9.8\,\text {N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.098\,\text{N}">0.098\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="0.0098\,\text{N}">0.0098\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot047

ID: 2180@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.118Z

Question:
Two people push a $2000\,\text{kg}$ car to get it started. An acceleration of at least $5.0\,\text{m/s}^2$ is required to start the car. Assuming both people apply the same magnitude force, how much force will each need to apply if friction between the car and the road is $300\,\text{N}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="4,850\,\text {N}">4,850\,\text {N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5,150\,\text {N}">5,150\,\text {N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="97,000\,\text{N}">97,000\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="10,300\,\text{N}">10,300\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-long dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s03 k12phys-ch04-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot048

ID: 2181@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.130Z

Question:
A $10\,\text{kg}$ mass is suspended by a rope. What is the tension in by the rope?
A:
<span data-math="-98\,\text{N}">-98\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10\,\text{N}">10\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{kg}">10\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="98\,\text{N}">98\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot049

ID: 2182@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.142Z

Question:
In outer space where there is no gravity, a $15\,\text{kg}$ mass is suspended by a rope. What is the tension in the rope?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{N}">0\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="15\,\text{N}">15\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="147\,\text{N}">147\,\text{N}</span>
D:
infinite

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot050

ID: 2183@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.159Z

Question:
On earth, a mass is suspended by a rope. The tension in the rope is $100\,\text{N}$ . What is the mass of the object?
A:
<span data-math="0.098\,\text{kg}">0.098\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10.2\,\text{kg}">10.2\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="100\,\text{kg}">100\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="980\,\text{kg}">980\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot051

ID: 2184@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.171Z

Question:
A mass is suspended by a rope on the moon. The tension in the rope is $350\,\text{N}$ . What is the mass of the object?
A:
<span data-math="35.7\,\text{kg}">35.7\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="210\,\text{kg}">210\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="585\,\text{kg}">585\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3430\,\text{kg}">3430\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot052

ID: 2185@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.182Z

Question:
How can you express Newton’s third law in terms of action and reaction?
A:
Every action has an equivalent but opposite reaction
B:
Every action has an unequal and opposite reaction
C:
Every reaction has an equivalent but opposite action
D:
Every reaction has an unequal and opposite action

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot053

ID: 2186@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.189Z

Question:
True or false: Newton’s third law applies to the external forces acting on a system of interest.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot054

ID: 2187@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.201Z

Question:
Give a practical example of Newton’s third law.
A:
When a gun is fired, the shooter experiences a recoil force whose magnitude is twice that of the force applied to the bullet and that pushes the gun in the direction opposite the direction in which the bullet was fired.
B:
When a gun is fired, the shooter experiences a recoil force of the same magnitude as the force applied to the bullet and that pushes the gun in the direction opposite the direction in which the bullet was fired.
C:
When a gun is fired, the shooter experiences a recoil force whose magnitude is twice that of the force applied to the bullet and that pushes the gun in the direction in which the bullet was fired.
D:
When a gun is fired, the shooter experiences a recoil force of the samemagnitude as that applied to the bullet and that pushes the gun in the direction in which the bullet was fired.

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot055

ID: 2188@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.213Z

Question:
A ball is dropped and hits the floor. What is the direction of the force exerted by the floor on the ball?
A:
Upward
B:
Downward
C:
Right
D:
Left

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot056

ID: 2189@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.225Z

Question:
A bird accelerates in the forward direction as it flies forward. What is the direction of the net force if the system of interest is the bird?
A:
backward
B:
forward
C:
downward
D:
upward

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot057

ID: 2190@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.237Z

Question:
A car accelerates from west to east. In which direction is the force it applies on the road? What is the direction of the force applied by the road on the car?
A:
A car accelerates from west to east. In which direction is the force it applies on the road? What is the direction of the force applied by the road on the car?
B:
The car applies a force on the road in the direction from east to west,andthe road applies a force on the car in the direction from west to east.
C:
The car applies a force on the road in the direction from west to east, and the road applies force on the car in the direction from east to west.
D:
The car applies a force on the road in the direction from west to east, and the road applies a force on the car in the direction from west to east.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot058

ID: 2191@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.248Z

Question:
A helicopter pushes air down, which in turn pushes the helicopter up. Which force affects the helicopter’s motion? Why?
A:
Air pushing upward affects the helicopter’s motion becauseit is an internal force that acts on the helicopter.
B:
Air pushing upward affects the helicopter’s motion becauseit an external force that acts on the helicopter.
C:
The downward force applied by the blades of the helicopter affects its motion becauseit is an internal force that acts on the helicopter.
D:
The downward force applied by the blades of the helicopter affects its motion becauseit is an external force that acts on the helicopter.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot059

ID: 2192@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.260Z

Question:
A car applies force on the road in the direction south to north. What is the direction of acceleration of the car?
A:
North to south
B:
South to north
C:
East to west
D:
West to east

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking dok4 blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch04-ot060

ID: 2193@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.272Z

Question:
A person weighing $45\,\text{kg}$ runs by applying $100\,\text{N}$ of force on the ground. What is the acceleration of the person?
A:
<span data-math="-2.2\,\text{m/s}^2">-2.2\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="-0.45\,\text{m/s}^2">-0.45\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.45\,\text{m/s}^2">0.45\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.2\,\text{m/s}^2">2.2\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot061

ID: 2194@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.290Z

Question:
A person jogs by applying $60\,\text{N}$ of force on the ground and accelerates at $1.2\,\text{m/s}^2$ . What is the mass of the person?
A:
<span data-math="0.020\,\text{kg}">0.020\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="50\,\text{kg}">50\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="60\,\text{kg}">60\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="72\,\text{kg}">72\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot062

ID: 2195@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.296Z

Question:
A person weighing $55\,\text{kg}$ walks by applying $160\,\text{N}$ of force on the ground, while pushing a $10\,\text{kg}$ object. If the person accelerates at $2\,\text{m/s}^2$ , what is the force of friction experienced by the system consisting of the person and the object?
A:
<span data-math="30\,\text{N}">30\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="50\,\text{N}">50\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="270\,\text{N}">270\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="290\,\text{N}">290\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot063

ID: 2196@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.308Z

Question:
A $65\,\text{kg}$ swimmer pushes on the pool wall and accelerates at $6\,\text{m/s}^2$ . The friction experienced by the swimmer is $100\,\text{N}. What is the magnitude of the force that the swimmer applies on the wall?
A:
<span data-math="-490\,\text{N}">-490\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-290\,\text{N}">-290\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="290\,\text{N}">290\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="490\,\text{N}">490\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long dok4 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch04 k12phys-ch04-s04 k12phys-ch04-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch04-ot064

ID: 2197@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.320Z

Question:
There are two vectors $\text{a}$ and $\text{b}$ . The head of vector $\text{a}$ touches the tail of vector $\text{b}$ . The addition of vectors $\text{a}$ and $\text{b}$ gives a resultant vector $\text{c}$ . Can the addition of these two vectors can be represented by the following two equations? $\overrightarrow{\text{a}} + \overrightarrow{\text{b}} = \overrightarrow{\text{c}}$ $\overrightarrow{\text{b}} + \overrightarrow{\text{a}} = \overrightarrow{\text{c}}$
A:
Yes, if we add the same two vectors in a different order it will still give the same resultant vector.
B:
No, the resultant vector will change if we add the same vectors in a different order.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex001

ID: 2198@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.332Z

Question:
Find the total displacement of a person who walks the following three paths on a flat field. First, she walks $25\,\text{m}$ in a direction $49^\circ\!$ north of east. Then, she walks $23\,\text{m}$ heading $15^\circ\!$ north of east. Finally, she turns and walks $32\,\text{m}$ in a direction $68^\circ\!$ south of east.
A:
Total displacement will be <span data-math="50.8\,\text{m}">50.8\,\text{m}</span> in a direction <span data-math="5.47^\circ\!">5.47^\circ\!</span> east of south.
B:
Total displacement will be <span data-math="50.8\,\text{m}">50.8\,\text{m}</span> in a direction <span data-math="5.47^\circ\!">5.47^\circ\!</span> south of east.
C:
Total displacement will be <span data-math="80.0\,\text{m}">80.0\,\text{m}</span> in a direction <span data-math="5.47^\circ\!">5.47^\circ\!</span> east of south.
D:
Total displacement will be <span data-math="80.0\,\text{m}">80.0\,\text{m}</span> in a direction <span data-math="5.47^\circ\!">5.47^\circ\!</span> south of east.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex002

ID: 2199@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.343Z

Question:
A woman sailing a boat at night is following directions to a dock. The instructions read to first sail $27.5\,\text{m}$ in a direction $66.0^\circ\!$ north of east from her current location, and then travel $30.0\,\text{m}$ in a direction $112^\circ\!$ north of east (or $22.0^\circ\!$ west of north). If the woman makes a mistake and travels in the opposite direction for the second leg of the trip, what will be her net displacement from the initial position?
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ |\text{R}| = 22.6\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 6.85^\circ\!">\theta = 6.85^\circ\!</span> east of south
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ |\text{R}| = 22.6\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 6.85^\circ\!">\theta = 6.85^\circ\!</span> south of east
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ |\text{R}| = 57.5\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 6.85^\circ\!">\theta = 6.85^\circ\!</span> east of south
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ |\text{R}| = 57.5\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 6.85^\circ\!">\theta = 6.85^\circ\!</span> south of east

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex003

ID: 2200@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.356Z

Question:
A boat attempts to travel straight across a river at a speed of $3.8\,\text{m/s}$ . The river current flows at a speed of $6.1\,\text{m/s}$ to the right. What will be the net velocity and direction of the boat?
A:
<span data-math="\text{Velocity} = 2.3\,\text{m/s}">\text{Velocity} = 2.3\,\text{m/s}</span> and the angle with the horizontal axis will be <span data-math="32^\circ\!">32^\circ\!</span>.
B:
<span data-math="\text{Velocity} = 3.8\,\text{m/s}">\text{Velocity} = 3.8\,\text{m/s}</span> and the angle with the horizontal axis will be <span data-math="32^\circ\!">32^\circ\!</span>.
C:
<span data-math="\text{Velocity} = 7.2\,\text{m/s}">\text{Velocity} = 7.2\,\text{m/s}</span> and the angle with the horizontal axis will be <span data-math="32^\circ\!">32^\circ\!</span>.
D:
<span data-math="\text{Velocity} = 9.9\,\text{m/s}">\text{Velocity} = 9.9\,\text{m/s}</span> and the angle with the horizontal axis will be <span data-math="32^\circ\!">32^\circ\!</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex004

ID: 2201@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.367Z

Question:
Vector $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ , having magnitude $2.5\,\text{m}$ , pointing $37^\circ\!$ south of east and vector $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ having magnitude $3.5\,\text{m}$ , pointing $20^\circ\!$ north of east are added. What is the magnitude of the resultant vector?
A:
<span data-math="1.0\,\text{m}">1.0\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.3\,\text{m}">5.3\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.9\,\text{m}">5.9\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.0\,\text{m}">6.0\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex005

ID: 2202@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.379Z

Question:
A person walks $32^\circ\!$ north of west for $94\,\text{m}$ and $35^\circ\!$ east of south for $122\,\text{m}$ . What is the magnitude of his displacement?
A:
<span data-math="28\,\text{m}">28\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="51\,\text{m}">51\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="180\,\text{m}">180\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="216\,\text{m}">216\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex006

ID: 2203@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.391Z

Question:
True or False: The more long, red vectors you put on the graph, rotated in any direction, the greater the magnitude of the resultant green vector.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex007

ID: 2204@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.402Z

Question:
Which directions of motion are conventionally considered positive?
A:
backward and to the left
B:
backward and to the right
C:
forward and to the right
D:
forward and to the left

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex008

ID: 2205@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.413Z

Question:
True or False: A person walks $2$ blocks east and $5$ blocks north. Another person walks $5$ blocks north and then two blocks east. The displacement of the first person will be more than the displacement of the second person.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes blooms-4 dok2 time-short display-simple-mc k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex009

ID: 2206@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.425Z

Question:
There is a vector $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ , with magnitude $5$ units pointing towards west and vector $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ , with magnitude $3$ units, pointing towards south. Using vector addition, calculate their resultant vector.
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 2.0\,\text{units} %]]&gt;">% </span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 4.0\,\text{units} %]]&gt;">% </span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 5.8\,\text{units} %]]&gt;">% </span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 8.0\,\text{units} %]]&gt;">% </span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex010

ID: 2207@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.437Z

Question:
A person attempts to cross a river in a straight line by navigating a boat at $15\,\text{m/s}$ . If the river flows at $5.0\,\text{m/s}$ from his left to right, what would be the magnitude of the boat’s resultant velocity? What direction would the boat go in, relative to the straight line across it?
A:
The resultant velocity of the boat will be <span data-math="10.0\,\text{m/s}">10.0\,\text{m/s}</span>. The boat will go toward his right at an angle of <span data-math="26.6^\circ\!">26.6^\circ\!</span> to a line drawn across the river.
B:
The resultant velocity of the boat will be <span data-math="10.0\,\text{m/s}">10.0\,\text{m/s}</span>. The boat will go toward his left at an angle of <span data-math="26.6^\circ\!">26.6^\circ\!</span> to a line drawn across the river.
C:
The resultant velocity of the boat will be <span data-math="15.8\,\text{m/s}">15.8\,\text{m/s}</span>. The boat will go toward his right at an angle of <span data-math="18.4^\circ\!">18.4^\circ\!</span> to a line drawn across the river.
D:
The resultant velocity of the boat will be <span data-math="15.8\,\text{m/s}">15.8\,\text{m/s}</span>. The boat will go toward his left at an angle of <span data-math="18.4^\circ\!">18.4^\circ\!</span> to a line drawn across the river.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-long k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex011

ID: 2208@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.448Z

Question:
A river flows in a direction from south west to north east at a velocity of $7.1\,\text{m/s}$ . A boat captain wants to cross this river to reach a point on the opposite shore due east of the boat’s current position. The boat moves at $13\,\text{m/s}$ . Which direction should it head towards if the resultant velocity is $19.74\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
It should head in a direction <span data-math="22.6^\circ\!">22.6^\circ\!</span> east of south.
B:
It should head in a direction <span data-math="22.6^\circ\!">22.6^\circ\!</span> south of east.
C:
It should head in a direction <span data-math="45.0^\circ\!">45.0^\circ\!</span> east of south.
D:
It should head in a direction <span data-math="45.0^\circ">45.0^\circ</span> south of east.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex012

ID: 2209@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.460Z

Question:
True or False: A person is following a set of directions. He has to walk $2\,\text{km}$ east and then $1\,\text{km}$ north. He takes a wrong turn and walks in the opposite direction for the second leg of the trip. The magnitude of his total displacement will be the same as it would have been had he followed directions correctly.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex013

ID: 2210@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.471Z

Question:
True or False: We can use Pythagorean theorem to calculate the length of the resultant vector obtained from the addition of two vectors which are at right angles to each other.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex014

ID: 2211@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.484Z

Question:
True or False: The direction of the resultant vector depends on both the magnitude and direction of added vectors.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex015

ID: 2212@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.502Z

Question:
Find $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} - \overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ for the following vectors: $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} = (122\,\text{cm}, \angle\,145^\circ)$ $\overrightarrow{\text{B}} = (110\,\text{cm}, \angle\,270^\circ)$
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 12\,\text{cm} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 119.1^\circ">\theta = 119.1^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 12\,\text{cm} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 125.0^\circ">\theta = 125.0^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 206\,\text{cm} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 119.1^\circ">\theta = 119.1^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 206\,\text{cm} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 125.0^\circ">\theta = 125.0^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex016

ID: 2213@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.508Z

Question:
Find $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} + \overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ for the following vectors: $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} = (122\,\text{cm}, \angle\,145^\circ)$ $\overrightarrow{\text{B}} = (110\,\text{cm}, \angle\,270^\circ)$
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 108\,\text{cm} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 119.1^\circ">\theta = 119.1^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 108\,\text{cm} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 201.8^\circ">\theta = 201.8^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 232\,\text{cm} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 119.1^\circ">\theta = 119.1^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 232\,\text{cm} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 201.8^\circ">\theta = 201.8^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex017

ID: 2214@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.520Z

Question:
Consider six vectors of $2\,\text{cm}$ each, joined from head to tail making a hexagon. What would be the magnitude of the addition of these vectors?
A:
zero
B:
six
C:
eight
D:
twelve

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex018

ID: 2215@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.532Z

Question:
Two people pointed toward the same direction pull on ropes tied to a trolley, each applying $44\,\text{N}$ of force. The angle the ropes form with each other is $39.5^\circ\!$ . What is the net force exerted on the trolley?
A:
<span data-math="0.0\,\text{N}">0.0\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="79.6\,\text{N}">79.6\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="82.9\,\text{N}">82.9\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="88.0\,\text{N}">88.0\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex019

ID: 2216@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.544Z

Question:
True or False: For vectors the order of addition is important.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex020

ID: 2217@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.556Z

Question:
Consider five vectors $a$ , $b$ , $c$ , $d$ and $e$ . Is it true or false that their addition always results in a vector with a greater magnitude than if only two of the vectors were added?
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 blooms-4 time-short display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex021

ID: 2218@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.568Z

Question:
Three vectors, $\overrightarrow{\text{u}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{v}}$ , and $\overrightarrow{\text{w}}$ , have the same magnitude as $5\,\text{units}$ . Vector $\overrightarrow{\text{v}}$ points to the northeast. Vector $\overrightarrow{\text{w}}$ points to the southwest exactly opposite to vector $\overrightarrow{\text{u}}$ . Vector $\overrightarrow{\text{u}}$ points in the northwest. If the vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{u}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{v}}$ , and $\overrightarrow{\text{w}}$ were added together, what would be the magnitude of the resultant vector? Why?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{units}">0\,\text{units}</span>. All of them will cancel each other out.
B:
<span data-math="5\,\text{units}">5\,\text{units}</span>. Two of them will cancel each other out.
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{units}">10\,\text{units}</span>. Two of them will add together to give the resultant.
D:
<span data-math="15">15</span> units. All of them will add together to give the resultant.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex022

ID: 2219@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.580Z

Question:
Vectors A, B, and R form a triangle with vertex RA at the origin of an x y-axis. The following labels are included: angle (where R and A form an angle) equals thirty-six point six degrees, angle A equals twenty degrees, angle B equals sixty-three degrees, A equals fifty-three meters, B equals thirty-four meters, and A plus B equals R. A compass is shown in the bottom corner for reference. Add vector $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ to vector $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ shown using the steps described. Find the resultant vector, $\overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ , by adding vector $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ and vector $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ . The x-axis is along the east-west direction, and the y-axis is along the north-south directions. A person first walks $53.0\,\text{m}$ in a direction $20.0^\circ\!$ north of east, represented by vector $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ . The person then walks $34.0\,\text{m}$ in a direction $63.0^\circ\!$ north of east, represented by vector $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ .
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 81.2\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span> and <span data-math="\theta = 36.6^\circ">\theta = 36.6^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 81.2\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span> and <span data-math="\theta = 53.4^\circ">\theta = 53.4^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 87.0\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span> and <span data-math="\theta = 32.6^\circ">\theta = 32.6^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 113.6\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span> and <span data-math="\theta = 53.4^\circ">\theta = 53.4^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 time-long k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex023

ID: 2220@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.592Z

Question:
What is the magnitude of a vector whose x-component is $4\,\text{cm}$ and whose y-component is $3\,\text{cm}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="1\,\text{cm}">1\,\text{cm}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5\,\text{cm}">5\,\text{cm}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7\,\text{cm}">7\,\text{cm}</span>
D:
<span data-math="25\,\text{cm}">25\,\text{cm}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok1 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex024

ID: 2221@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.604Z

Question:
What is the magnitude of a vector that makes an angle of $30^\circ\!$ to the horizontal and whose x-component is $3\,\text{units}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="2.61\,\text{units}">2.61\,\text{units}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.00\,\text{units}">3.00\,\text{units}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.46\,\text{units}">3.46\,\text{units}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.00\,\text{units}">6.00\,\text{units}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex025

ID: 2222@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.621Z

Question:
Why are vectors used so frequently in atmospheric science?
A:
Vectors have magnitude as well as direction and can be quickly solved through algebraic operations.
B:
Vectors have magnitude, so it becomes easy to express physical quantities involved in the atmospheric science.
C:
Vectors can be solved very accurately through geometry, which helps to make better predictions in atmospheric science.
D:
Vectors have magnitude as well as direction and are used in equations that describe the three dimensional motion of the atmosphere.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex026

ID: 2223@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.633Z

Question:
Between the analytical and graphical methods of vector additions, which is more accurate? Why?
A:
The analytical method is less accurate than the graphical method, since the former involves geometry and trigonometry.
B:
The analytical method is more accurate than the graphical method, since the latter involves some extensive calculations.
C:
The analytical method is less accurate than the graphical method, since the former includes drawing all figures to the right scale.
D:
The analytical method is more accurate than the graphical method, since the latter is limited by the precision of the drawing.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex027

ID: 2224@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.644Z

Question:
What is a component of a two dimensional vector?
A:
A component is a piece of a vector that points in either the x or y direction.
B:
A component is a piece of a vector that has half of the magnitude of the original vector.
C:
A component is a piece of a vector that points in the direction opposite to the original vector.
D:
A component is a piece of a vector that points in the same direction as original vector but with double of its magnitude.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex028

ID: 2225@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.656Z

Question:
How can we determine $\theta$ if we know $A_x$ and $A_y$ ?
A:
<span data-math="\theta = \cos^{-1}\frac{A_y}{A_x}">\theta = \cos^{-1}\frac{A_y}{A_x}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\theta = \cot^{-1}\frac{A_y}{A_x}">\theta = \cot^{-1}\frac{A_y}{A_x}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\theta = \sin^{-1}\frac{A_y}{A_x}">\theta = \sin^{-1}\frac{A_y}{A_x}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1}\frac{A_y}{A_x}">\theta = \tan^{-1}\frac{A_y}{A_x}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex029

ID: 2226@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.673Z

Question:
How can we determine the magnitude of a vector if we know the magnitudes of its components?
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{A}}\right| = A_x + A_y %]]&gt;">% </span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{A}}\right| = {A_x}^2 + {A_y}^2 %]]&gt;">% </span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{A}}\right| = \sqrt{{A_x}^2 + {A_y}^2} %]]&gt;">% </span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{A}}\right| = \left({A_x}^2 + {A_y}^2\right)^2 %]]&gt;">% </span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex030

ID: 2227@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.686Z

Question:
What is the angle between the x and y components of a vector?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="45^\circ">45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="180^\circ">180^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex031

ID: 2228@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.692Z

Question:
Two vectors are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. What is the magnitude of their resultant vector?
A:
The magnitude of the resultant vector will be zero.
B:
The magnitude of resultant vector will be twice the magnitude of the original vector.
C:
The magnitude of resultant vector will be same as magnitude of the original vector.
D:
The magnitude of resultant vector will be half the magnitude of the original vector.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex032

ID: 2229@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.704Z

Question:
A person walks $10\,\text{m}$ north and then $2\,\text{m}$ east. Solving analytically, what is the resultant displacement of the person?
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 10.19\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 78.69^\circ\!">\theta = 78.69^\circ\!</span> east of north
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 10.19\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 78.69^\circ\!">\theta = 78.69^\circ\!</span> north of east
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 12.00\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 78.69^\circ\!">\theta = 78.69^\circ\!</span> east of north
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 12.00\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 78.69^\circ\!">\theta = 78.69^\circ\!</span> north of east

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex033

ID: 2230@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.722Z

Question:
A person walks $12^\circ\!$ north of west for $55\,\text{m}$ and $63^\circ\!$ south of west for $25\,\text{m}$ . What is the magnitude of his displacement? Solve analytically.
A:
<span data-math="10.84\,\text{m}">10.84\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="65.15\,\text{m}">65.15\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="66.05\,\text{m}">66.05\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="80.00\,\text{m}">80.00\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex034

ID: 2231@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.727Z

Question:
What is the magnitude of a vector whose x-component is $2\,\text{units}$ and whose angle is $60^\circ$ ?
A:
<span data-math="1.0\,\text{units}">1.0\,\text{units}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.0\,\text{units}">2.0\,\text{units}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.3\,\text{units}">2.3\,\text{units}</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.0\,\text{units}">4.0\,\text{units}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex035

ID: 2232@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.744Z

Question:
Vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ and $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. Does $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} - \overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ have the same direction as vector $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ or $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="\overrightarrow{\text{A}}">\overrightarrow{\text{A}}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\overrightarrow{\text{B}}">\overrightarrow{\text{B}}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex036

ID: 2233@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.750Z

Question:
When will the x-component of a vector with angle $\theta$ be greater than its y-component?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ\! < \theta < 45^\circ">0^\circ\! < \theta < 45^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="\theta = 45^\circ">\theta = 45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="45^\circ\! < \theta < 60^\circ">45^\circ\! < \theta < 60^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="60^\circ\! < \theta < 90^\circ">60^\circ\! < \theta < 90^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response blooms-4 dok1 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex037

ID: 2234@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.762Z

Question:
The resultant vector of the addition of vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{a}}$ and $\overrightarrow{\text{b}}$ is $\overrightarrow{\text{r}}$ . The magnitudes of $\overrightarrow{\text{a}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{b}}$ , and $\overrightarrow{\text{r}}$ are $A$ , $B$ , and $R$ , respectively. Which of the following is true?
A:
<span data-math="R_x + R_y = 0">R_x + R_y = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="A_x + A_y = \overrightarrow{\text{A}}">A_x + A_y = \overrightarrow{\text{A}}</span>
C:
<span data-math="A_x + B_y = B_x + A_y">A_x + B_y = B_x + A_y</span>
D:
<span data-math="A_x + B_x = R_x">A_x + B_x = R_x</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes blooms-4 dok1 time-short display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex038

ID: 2235@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.774Z

Question:
What kind of vectors are used in the study of atmospheric sciences?
A:
one-dimensional
B:
two-dimensional
C:
three-dimensional

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex039

ID: 2236@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.786Z

Question:
True or False: A vector can form the shape of a right angle triangle with its components.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex040

ID: 2237@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.797Z

Question:
True or False: All vectors have positive x and y components.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex041

ID: 2238@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.809Z

Question:
Consider $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} - \overrightarrow{\text{B}} = \overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ . What is $R_x$ in terms of $A_x$ and $B_x$ ?
A:
<span data-math="R_x = \frac{A_x}{B_x}">R_x = \frac{A_x}{B_x}</span>
B:
<span data-math="R_x = \frac{B_x}{A_x}">R_x = \frac{B_x}{A_x}</span>
C:
<span data-math="R_x = A_x + B_x">R_x = A_x + B_x</span>
D:
<span data-math="R_x = A_x - B_x">R_x = A_x - B_x</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex042

ID: 2239@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.820Z

Question:
Consider $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} - \overrightarrow{\text{B}} = \overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ . What is $R_y$ in terms of $A_y$ and $B_y$ ?
A:
<span data-math="R_y = \frac{A_y}{B_y}">R_y = \frac{A_y}{B_y}</span>
B:
<span data-math="R_y = \frac{B_y}{A_y}">R_y = \frac{B_y}{A_y}</span>
C:
<span data-math="R_y = A_y + B_y">R_y = A_y + B_y</span>
D:
<span data-math="R_y = A_y - B_y">R_y = A_y - B_y</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex043

ID: 2240@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.831Z

Question:
When a three dimensional vector is used in the study of atmospheric sciences, what is z?
A:
altitude
B:
heat
C:
temperature
D:
wind speed

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex044

ID: 2241@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.848Z

Question:
Which method is not an application of vector calculus?
A:
to find the rate of change in atmospheric temperature
B:
to study changes in wind speed and direction
C:
to predict changes in atmospheric pressure
D:
to measure changes in average rainfall

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex045

ID: 2242@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.860Z

Question:
For which angles of a vector is it possible that its magnitude will be equal to its y-component?
A:
<span data-math="\theta = 0^\circ">\theta = 0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="\theta = 45^\circ">\theta = 45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="\theta = 60^\circ">\theta = 60^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="\theta = 90^\circ">\theta = 90^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex046

ID: 2243@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.866Z

Question:
True or False: If only the angles of two vectors are known, we can find the angle of their resultant addition vector.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex047

ID: 2244@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.883Z

Question:
True or False: We can find the magnitude and direction of the resultant vector if we know the angles of two vectors and the magnitude of one.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex048

ID: 2245@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.895Z

Question:
Assume the ground is uniformly level. If you doubled the horizontal component of its initial velocity, how much more time would it take for a projectile to hit the ground?
A:
The time to reach the ground would remain the same since the vertical component is unchanged.
B:
The time to reach the ground would remain the same since the vertical component of the velocity also gets doubled.
C:
The time to reach the ground would be halved since the horizontal component of the velocity is doubled.
D:
The time to reach the ground would be doubled since the horizontal component of the velocity is doubled.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex049

ID: 2246@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.901Z

Question:

During a fireworks display, a shell is shot into the air with an initial speed of $70.0\,\text{m/s}$ at an angle of $75^\circ\!$ above the horizontal. The fuse is timed to ignite the shell just as it reaches its highest point above the ground.

  1. Calculate the height at which the shell explodes.
  2. How much time passed between the launch of the shell and the explosion?
  3. What is the horizontal displacement of the shell when it explores?
A:
<ol> <li><span data-math="233\,\text{m}">233\,\text{m}</span></li> <li><span data-math="6.93\,\text{s}">6.93\,\text{s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="125\,\text{m}">125\,\text{m}</span></li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li><span data-math="233\,\text{m}">233\,\text{m}</span></li> <li><span data-math="13.86\,\text{s}">13.86\,\text{s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="125\,\text{m}">125\,\text{m}</span></li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li><span data-math="233\,\text{m}">233\,\text{m}</span></li> <li><span data-math="6.93\,\text{s}">6.93\,\text{s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="250\,\text{m}">250\,\text{m}</span></li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li><span data-math="233\,\text{m}">233\,\text{m}</span></li> <li><span data-math="13.86\,\text{s}">13.86\,\text{s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="250\,\text{m}">250\,\text{m}</span></li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex050

ID: 2247@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.912Z

Question:
Suppose a large rock is ejected from a volcano with a speed of $25.0\,\text{m/s}$ at an angle $35^\circ\!$ above the horizontal. The rock strikes the side of the volcano at an altitude $20.0\,\text{m}$ lower than its starting point. Calculate the time it takes the rock to follow this path.
A:
<span data-math="{-1.03}\,\text{s}">{-1.03}\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.96\,\text{s}">3.96\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.00\,\text{s}">5.00\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="5.81\,\text{s}">5.81\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex051

ID: 2248@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.923Z

Question:
If an object is thrown horizontally, travels with an average velocity of $5\,\text{m/s}$ , and does not hit the ground, what will its horizontal displacement be after $20\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{-100}\,\text{m}">{-100}\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-4}\,\text{m}">{-4}\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="4\,\text{m}">4\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="100\,\text{m}">100\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex052

ID: 2249@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.935Z

Question:
If a ball is thrown straight up with an initial velocity of $20\,\text{m/s}$ , what is the maximum height it will reach?
A:
<span data-math="{-20.4}\,\text{m}">{-20.4}\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-1.02}\,\text{m}">{-1.02}\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.02\,\text{m}">1.02\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="20.4\,\text{m}">20.4\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex053

ID: 2250@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.946Z

Question:
What angle of projection maximizes the range of the projectile?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="30^\circ">30^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="45^\circ">45^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="60^\circ">60^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex054

ID: 2251@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.958Z

Question:
What is projectile motion?
A:
Projectile motion is the motion of an object projected into the air, which moves under the influence of gravity.
B:
Projectile motion is the motion of an object projected into the air which moves independently of gravity.
C:
Projectile motion is the motion of an object projected vertically upward into the air which moves under the influence of gravity.
D:
Projectile motion is the motion of an object projected horizontally into the air which moves independently of gravity.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex055

ID: 2252@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.969Z

Question:
What is the force experienced by a projectile after the initial force that launched it into the air?
A:
the nuclear force
B:
the gravitational force
C:
the electromagnetic force
D:
the contact force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex056

ID: 2253@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.981Z

Question:
Horizontal and vertical motions of a projectile are independent of each other. What is meant by this?
A:
Any object in projectile motion falls at the same rate as an object in freefall, regardless of its horizontal velocity.
B:
All objects in projectile motion fall at different rates, regardless of their initial horizontal velocities.
C:
Any object in projectile motion falls at the same rate as its initial vertical velocity, regardless of its initial horizontal velocity.
D:
All objects in projectile motion fall at different rates and the rate of fall of the object is independent of the initial velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex057

ID: 2254@1

2015-08-20T13:11:34.992Z

Question:
A cannon is fired at $30\,\text{m/s}$ at an angle of $50^\circ\!$ above the horizontal. How far away will it fall?
A:
<span data-math="2.35\,\text{m}">2.35\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.01\,\text{m}">3.01\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="70.35\,\text{m}">70.35\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="90.44\,\text{m}">90.44\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex058

ID: 2255@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.003Z

Question:
A person wants to fire a cannon such that it hits a target $100\,\text{m}$ away. If the cannon can only be launched at $45^\circ\!$ above the horizontal, what should be the initial speed at which it is launched?
A:
<span data-math="31.3\,\text{m/s}">31.3\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="37.2\,\text{m/s}">37.2\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="980.0\,\text{m/s}">980.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1385.9\,\text{m/s}">1385.9\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex059

ID: 2256@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.015Z

Question:
Two identical items, object 1 and object 2, are dropped from the top of a $50.0\,\text{m}$ building. Object 1 is dropped with an initial velocity of $0\,\text{m/s}$ , while object 2 is thrown straight downward with an initial velocity of $13.0\,\text{m/s}$ . What is the difference in time, in seconds rounded to the nearest tenth, between when the two objects hit the ground?
A:
Object 1 will hit the ground <span data-math="3.2\,\text{s}">3.2\,\text{s}</span> after object 2.
B:
Object 1 will hit the ground <span data-math="0.9\,\text{s}">0.9\,\text{s}</span> after object 2.
C:
Object 1 will hit the ground at the same time as object 2.
D:
Object 1 will hit the ground <span data-math="2.3\,\text{s}">2.3\,\text{s}</span> after object 2.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex060

ID: 2257@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.026Z

Question:
After a projectile is launched in the air, in which direction does it experience constant, non-zero acceleration?
A:
the x direction
B:
the y direction
C:
both the x and y directions
D:
neither direction

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex061

ID: 2258@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.038Z

Question:
Which is true when the height of a projectile is at its maximum?
A:
<span data-math="v_y = 0">v_y = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="v_y = \text{maximum}">v_y = \text{maximum}</span>
C:
<span data-math="v_x = \text{maximum}">v_x = \text{maximum}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex062

ID: 2259@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.050Z

Question:
How can you express the velocity, $v$ , of a projectile in terms of its initial velocity, $v_0$ , acceleration, $a$ , and time, $t$ ?
A:
<span data-math="v = at">v = at</span>
B:
<span data-math="v = v_0 + at">v = v_0 + at</span>
C:
<span data-math="v + v_0 = at">v + v_0 = at</span>
D:
<span data-math="v_0 + v + at">v_0 + v + at</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex063

ID: 2260@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.062Z

Question:
In the equation $h = \frac{{v_{0y}}^2}{2g}$ for the maximum height of a projectile, what does $v_{0y}$ stand for?
A:
initial velocity in the x direction
B:
initial velocity in the y direction
C:
final velocity in the x direction
D:
final velocity in the y direction

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex064

ID: 2261@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.074Z

Question:
True or False: Range is defined as the maximum vertical distance travelled by a projectile.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex065

ID: 2262@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.086Z

Question:
For what angle of a projectile is its range equal to zero?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ\!">0^\circ\!</span> or <span data-math="30^\circ">30^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="0^\circ\!">0^\circ\!</span> or <span data-math="45^\circ">45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> or <span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> or <span data-math="45^\circ">45^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex066

ID: 2263@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.097Z

Question:
Ignoring drag, what is the x-component of the acceleration of a projectile? Why?
A:
The x-component of the acceleration of a projectile is <span data-math="0">0</span> because acceleration of a projectile is due to gravity, which acts in the y direction.
B:
The x component of the acceleration of a projectile is <span data-math="g">g</span> because acceleration of a projectile is due to gravity, which acts in the x direction.
C:
The x-component of the acceleration of a projectile is <span data-math="0">0</span> because acceleration of a projectile is due to gravity, which acts in the x direction.
D:
The x-component of the acceleration of a projectile is <span data-math="g">g</span> because acceleration of a projectile is due to gravity, which acts in the y direction.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex067

ID: 2264@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.108Z

Question:
What is the optimum angle at which a projectile should be launched in order to cover the maximum distance?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="45^\circ">45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="60^\circ">60^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex068

ID: 2265@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.120Z

Question:
When the surface is flat, you could say that one of the components of the gravitational force is zero; Which one? As the angle of the incline gets larger, what happens to the magnitudes of the perpendicular and parallel components of gravitational force? Why?
A:
When the angle is zero, the parallel component is zero and the perpendicular component is at a maximum. As the angle increases, the parallel component decreases and the perpendicular component increases. This is because the cosine of the angle shrinks while the sine of the angle increases.
B:
When the angle is zero, the parallel component is zero and the perpendicular component is at a maximum. As the angle increases, the parallel component decreases and the perpendicular component increases. This is because the cosine of the angle increases while the sine of the angle shrinks.
C:
When the angle is zero, the parallel component is zero and the perpendicular component is at a maximum. As the angle increases, the parallel component increases and the perpendicular component decreases. This is because the cosine of the angle shrinks while the sine of the angle increases.
D:
When the angle is zero, the parallel component is zero and the perpendicular component is at a maximum. As the angle increases, the parallel component increases and the perpendicular component decreases. This is because the cosine of the angle increases while the sine of the angle shrinks.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex069

ID: 2266@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.132Z

Question:
A skier is moving down a slope with an angle measure of twenty-five degrees to the ground. Force vectors are shown: N points upward from the skier, f points to the right of the skis, w points at a downward left angle from the skiers' feet, forming an angle with vector w that has a measure of twenty-five degrees. A free-body diagram illustrates the right triangle formed by these vectors A skier with a mass of $62\,\text{kg}$ is skiing down a snowy slope at an angle of $25^\circ\!$ . Find the coefficient of kinetic friction, $\mu_\text{k}$ , for the skier if friction is known to be $45.0\,\text{N}$ .
A:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0">\mu_\text{k} = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0.08">\mu_\text{k} = 0.08</span>
C:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0.18">\mu_\text{k} = 0.18</span>
D:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = \infty">\mu_\text{k} = \infty</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex070

ID: 2267@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.143Z

Question:

A skier is moving down a slope with an angle measure of twenty-five degrees to the ground. Force vectors are shown: N points upward from the skier, f points to the right of the skis, w points at a downward left angle from the skiers' feet, forming an angle with vector w that has a measure of twenty-five degrees. A free-body diagram illustrates the right triangle formed by these vectors. The skier’s mass including equipment is $60.0\,\text{kg}$ . The angle of inclination of the plane is $25^\circ\!$ .

  1. What is her acceleration if friction is negligible?
  2. What is her acceleration if the frictional force is $45.0\,\text{N}$ ?
A:
<ol> <li><span data-math="4.14\,\text{m/s}^2">4.14\,\text{m/s}^2</span></li> <li><span data-math="3.39\,\text{m/s}^2">3.39\,\text{m/s}^2</span></li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li><span data-math="8.88\,\text{m/s}^2">8.88\,\text{m/s}^2</span></li> <li><span data-math="3.39\,\text{m/s}^2">3.39\,\text{m/s}^2</span></li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li><span data-math="4.14\,\text{m/s}^2">4.14\,\text{m/s}^2</span></li> <li><span data-math="8.13\,\text{m/s}^2">8.13\,\text{m/s}^2</span></li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li><span data-math="8.88\,\text{m/s}^2">8.88\,\text{m/s}^2</span></li> <li><span data-math="8.13\,\text{m/s}^2">8.13\,\text{m/s}^2</span></li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex071

ID: 2268@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.155Z

Question:
What is the equation for the parallel component of the weight of an object that rests on an incline and makes an angle with the horizontal?
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ w_{||} = w \cos \theta %]]&gt;">% </span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ w_{||} = w \sin \theta %]]&gt;">% </span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ w_{||} = w \sin \theta - \cos \theta %]]&gt;">% </span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ w_{||} = w \cos \theta - \sin \theta %]]&gt;">% </span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex072

ID: 2269@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.172Z

Question:
What is the parallel component of weight of a $5\,\text{kg}$ object resting on an incline that makes an angle of $30^\circ\!$ with the horizontal?
A:
<span data-math="4.33\,\text{N}">4.33\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.0\,\text{N}">5.0\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="24.5\,\text{N}">24.5\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="42.43\,\text{N}">42.43\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex073

ID: 2270@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.184Z

Question:
True or False: You may have noticed that the coin will not start to slide at all until the angle is greater than $\theta$ . This is because the coefficient of static friction is larger than the coefficient of kinetic friction. This will cause the value of $\mu_\text{k}$ that you find in the lab to be greater than the actual value.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex074

ID: 2271@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.190Z

Question:
What is friction?
A:
Friction is an internal force that opposes the motion of an object.
B:
Friction is an internal force that accelerates an object’s motion.
C:
Friction is an external force that opposes the motion of an object.
D:
Friction is an external force that increases the velocity of the motion of an object.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex075

ID: 2272@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.207Z

Question:
What are the two varieties of friction? What does each one act upon?
A:
Kinetic and static friction both act on an object in motion.
B:
Kinetic friction acts on an object in motion, while static friction acts on an object at rest.
C:
Kinetic friction acts on an object at rest, while static friction acts on an object in motion.
D:
Kinetic and static friction both act on an object at rest.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex076

ID: 2273@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.219Z

Question:
True or False: Kinetic friction is less than the limiting static friction because once an object is moving, there are fewer points of contact, and the friction is reduced. It is because of this reason you need more force to start moving an object than you do to keep it in motion.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex077

ID: 2274@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.225Z

Question:
A coin is sliding down an inclined plane at constant velocity. If the angle of the plane is $10^\circ\!$ to the horizontal, what is the coefficient of kinetic friction?
A:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0">\mu_\text{k} = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0.17">\mu_\text{k} = 0.17</span>
C:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 5.88">\mu_\text{k} = 5.88</span>
D:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = \infty">\mu_\text{k} = \infty</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex078

ID: 2275@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.236Z

Question:
A skier with a mass of $55\,\text{kg}$ is skiing down a snowy slope that has an incline of $30^\circ\!$ . Find the coefficient of kinetic friction for the skier if friction is known to be $25\,\text{N}$ .
A:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0">\mu_\text{k} = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0.05">\mu_\text{k} = 0.05</span>
C:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0.09">\mu_\text{k} = 0.09</span>
D:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = \infty">\mu_\text{k} = \infty</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex079

ID: 2276@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.254Z

Question:
A box weighing $500\,\text{N}$ is at rest on the floor. A person pushes against it and it starts moving when $100\,\text{N}$ force is applied to it. What can be said about the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor?
A:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0">\mu_\text{k} = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} = 0.2">\mu_\text{k} = 0.2</span>
C:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} < 0.2">\mu_\text{k} < 0.2</span>
D:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{k} > 0.2">\mu_\text{k} > 0.2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex080

ID: 2277@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.260Z

Question:
Which of these experiences the most static friction?
A:
shoes on ice
B:
metal on wood
C:
teflon on steel

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex081

ID: 2278@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.278Z

Question:
What is typically equal in magnitude to $w_\bot$ , the perpendicular force of weight?
A:
the normal force
B:
the total weight
C:
the parallel force of weight

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex082

ID: 2279@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.289Z

Question:
What are the units of the coefficient of friction?
A:
<span data-math="\text{N}">\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}">\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}^2">\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
unitless

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex083

ID: 2280@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.295Z

Question:
As the relative motion between two surfaces in contact increases, what happens to the magnitude of their respective coefficient of kinetic friction?
A:
It increases with the increase in the relative motion.
B:
It decreases with the increase in the relative motion.
C:
It remains constant and is independent of the relative motion.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex084

ID: 2281@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.307Z

Question:
When will an object slide down an inclined plane at constant velocity?
A:
When the component of the weight along the slope is equal to the frictional force.
B:
When the component of the weight along the slope is greater than the frictional force.
C:
When the component of the weight perpendicular to the slope is less than the frictional force.
D:
When the component of the weight perpendicular to the slope is equal to the frictional force.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex085

ID: 2282@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.318Z

Question:
At what angle of incline is the perpendicular component at its maximum?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="30^\circ">30^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="60^\circ">60^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex086

ID: 2283@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.330Z

Question:
True or False: Friction varies from surface to surface because different substances have different degrees of roughness or smoothness.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex087

ID: 2284@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.342Z

Question:
As the angle of the incline gets larger, what happens to the magnitudes of the perpendicular and parallel components of gravitational force?
A:
Both the perpendicular and the parallel component will decrease.
B:
The perpendicular component will decrease and the parallel component will increase.
C:
The perpendicular component will increase and the parallel component will decrease.
D:
Both the perpendicular and the parallel component will increase.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex088

ID: 2285@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.360Z

Question:
If the amplitude of the displacement of a spring were larger, how would this affect the graph of displacement over time? What would happen to the graph if the period was longer?
A:
Larger amplitude would result in taller peaks and troughs and a longer period would result in greater distance between peaks.
B:
Larger amplitude would result in smaller peaks and troughs and a longer period would result in greater distance between peaks.
C:
Larger amplitude would result in taller peaks and troughs and a longer period would result in shorter distance between peaks.
D:
Larger amplitude would result in smaller peaks and troughs and a longer period would result in shorter distance between peaks.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex089

ID: 2286@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.366Z

Question:
What is the acceleration due to gravity in a region where a simple pendulum with a length of $75.000\,\text{cm}$ has a period of $1.7357\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.05723\,\text{m/s}^2">0.05723\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.24895\,\text{m/s}^2">0.24895\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.8281\,\text{m/s}^2">9.8281\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="982.81\,\text{m/s}^2">982.81\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex090

ID: 2287@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.378Z

Question:
What is the force constant for the suspension system of a car that settles $1.20\,\text{cm}$ when an $80.0\,\text{kg}$ person gets in?
A:
<span data-math="6.53 \times 10^4\,\text{N/m}">6.53 \times 10^4\,\text{N/m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="6.66 \times 10^3\,\text{N/m}">6.66 \times 10^3\,\text{N/m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="6.53 \times 10^2\,\text{N/m}">6.53 \times 10^2\,\text{N/m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.66 \times 10^1\,\text{N/m}">6.66 \times 10^1\,\text{N/m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex091

ID: 2288@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.390Z

Question:
A force of $70\,\text{N}$ applied to a spring causes it to be displaced by $0.3\,\text{m}$ . What is the force constant of the spring?
A:
<span data-math="{-233}\,\text{N/m}">{-233}\,\text{N/m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-21}\,\text{N/m}">{-21}\,\text{N/m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="21\,\text{N/m}">21\,\text{N/m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="233\,\text{N/m}">233\,\text{N/m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex092

ID: 2289@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.401Z

Question:
What is the force constant for the suspension system of a car that settles $3.3\,\text{cm}$ when a $65\,\text{kg}$ person gets in?
A:
<span data-math="1.93 \times 10^4\,\text{N/m}">1.93 \times 10^4\,\text{N/m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.97 \times 10^3\,\text{N/m}">1.97 \times 10^3\,\text{N/m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.93 \times 10^2\,\text{N/m}">1.93 \times 10^2\,\text{N/m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.97 \times 10^1\,\text{N/m}">1.97 \times 10^1\,\text{N/m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex093

ID: 2290@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.418Z

Question:
How accurate is this measurement for $g$ ? How might it be improved?
A:
Accuracy for value of <span data-math="g">g</span> will increase with an increase in the mass of a dense object.
B:
Accuracy for the value of <span data-math="g">g</span> will increase with increase in the length of the pendulum.
C:
The value of <span data-math="g">g</span> will be more accurate if the angle of deflection is more than <span data-math="15^\circ\!">15^\circ\!</span>.
D:
The value of <span data-math="g">g</span> will be more accurate if it maintains simple harmonic motion.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex094

ID: 2291@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.424Z

Question:
What is deformation?
A:
Deformation is the magnitude of the restoring force.
B:
Deformation is the change in shape due to the application of force.
C:
Deformation is the maximum force that can be applied on a spring.
D:
Deformation is regaining the original shape upon the removal of an external force.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex095

ID: 2292@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.435Z

Question:
According to Hooke’s law, what is deformation proportional to?
A:
force
B:
velocity
C:
displacement
D:
force constant

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex096

ID: 2293@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.447Z

Question:
What are oscillations?
A:
motion resulting in small displacements
B:
motion which repeats itself periodically
C:
periodic, repetitive motion between two points
D:
motion that is the opposite to the direction of the restoring force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex097

ID: 2294@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.458Z

Question:
True or False: Oscillations can occur without force.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex098

ID: 2295@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.477Z

Question:
Why is there a negative sign in the equation for Hooke’s law?
A:
The negative sign indicates that displacement decreases with increasing force.
B:
The negative sign indicates that the direction of the applied force is opposite to that of displacement.
C:
The negative sign indicates that the direction of the restoring force is opposite to that of displacement.
D:
The negative sign indicates that the force constant must be negative.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex099

ID: 2296@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.489Z

Question:
With reference to simple harmonic motion, what is the equilibrium position?
A:
the position where velocity is the minimum
B:
the position where the displacement is maximum
C:
the position where the restoring force is the maximum
D:
the position where the object rests in the absence of force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex100

ID: 2297@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.495Z

Question:
What is the time period of a $6\,\text{cm}$ long pendulum on earth?
A:
<span data-math="0.08\,\text{s}">0.08\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.49\,\text{s}">0.49\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="4.9\,\text{s}">4.9\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="80\,\text{s}">80\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex101

ID: 2298@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.512Z

Question:
A simple harmonic oscillator has time period $4\,\text{s}$ . If the mass of the system is $2\,\text{kg}$ , what is the force constant of the spring used?
A:
<span data-math="0.125\,\text{N/m}">0.125\,\text{N/m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.202\,\text{N/m}">0.202\,\text{N/m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.81\,\text{N/m}">0.81\,\text{N/m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.93\,\text{N/m}">4.93\,\text{N/m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex102

ID: 2299@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.524Z

Question:
Two springs are attached to two hooks. Spring A has a greater force constant than spring B. Equal weights are suspended from both. Which of the following statements is true?
A:
Spring A will have more extension than spring B.
B:
Spring B will have more extension than spring A.
C:
Both springs will have same extension.
D:
Both springs are equally stiff.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex103

ID: 2300@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.530Z

Question:
Two simple harmonic oscillators are constructed by attaching similar objects to two different springs. The force constant of the spring on the left is $5\,\text{N/m}$ and that of the spring on the right is $4\,\text{N/m}$ . If the same force is applied to both, which of the following statements is true?
A:
The spring on the left will oscillate faster than spring on the right.
B:
The spring on the right will oscillate faster than the spring on the left.
C:
Both the springs will oscillate at the same rate.
D:
The rate of oscillation is independent of the force constant.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex104

ID: 2301@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.542Z

Question:
A change in which of the following is an example of deformation?
A:
velocity
B:
length
C:
mass
D:
weight

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex105

ID: 2302@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.553Z

Question:
The units of amplitude are the same as those for what other measurement?
A:
speed
B:
displacement
C:
acceleration
D:
force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex106

ID: 2303@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.565Z

Question:
Up to what amplitudes do pendulums exhibit simple harmonic motion?
A:
<span data-math="15^\circ">15^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="45^\circ">45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="75^\circ">75^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex107

ID: 2304@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.578Z

Question:
What is the term used for changes in shape due to the application of force?
A:
amplitude
B:
deformation
C:
displacement
D:
restoring force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex108

ID: 2305@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.590Z

Question:
What is the restoring force?
A:
the normal force on the surface of an object
B:
the weight of a mass attached to an object
C:
force which is applied to deform an object from its original shape
D:
force which brings an object back to its equilibrium position

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ex109

ID: 2306@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.601Z

Question:
For a given oscillator, what are the factors that affect its period and frequency?
A:
mass only
B:
force constant only
C:
applied force and mass
D:
mass and force constant

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex110

ID: 2307@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.613Z

Question:
For an object in simple harmonic motion, when does the maximum speed occur?
A:
at the extreme positions
B:
at the equilibrium position
C:
at the moment when the applied force is removed
D:
midway between the extreme and equilibrium positions

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ex111

ID: 2308@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.625Z

Question:
What is the equilibrium position of a pendulum?
A:
when the tension in the string is zero
B:
when the pendulum is hanging straight down
C:
when the tension in the string is maximum
D:
when the weight of the mass attached is minimum

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex112

ID: 2309@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.636Z

Question:
If a pendulum is displaced by an angle $\theta$ , what is the net restoring force it experiences?
A:
<span data-math="mg \sin \theta">mg \sin \theta</span>
B:
<span data-math="mg \cos \theta">mg \cos \theta</span>
C:
<span data-math="{-mg} \sin \theta">{-mg} \sin \theta</span>
D:
<span data-math="{-mg} \cos \theta">{-mg} \cos \theta</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex113

ID: 2310@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.648Z

Question:
What physical characteristic of a system is its force constant related to?
A:
The force constant <span data-math="k">k</span> is related to the stiffness of a system: the larger the force constant, the stiffer the system.
B:
The force constant <span data-math="k">k</span> is related to the stiffness of a system: the larger the force constant, the looser the system.
C:
The force constant <span data-math="k">k</span> is related to the friction in the system: the larger the force constant, the greater the friction in the system.
D:
The force constant <span data-math="k">k</span> is related to the friction in the system: the larger the force constant, the lower the friction in the system.

Tags:

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ID: 2311@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.660Z

Question:
How or why does a pendulum oscillate?
A:
A pendulum oscillates due to applied force.
B:
A pendulum oscillates due to the elastic nature of the string.
C:
A pendulum oscillates due to restoring force arising from gravity.
D:
A pendulum oscillates due to restoring force arising from tension in the string.

Tags:

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ID: 2312@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.671Z

Question:
If a pendulum from earth is taken to the moon, will its frequency increase or decrease? Why?
A:
It will increase because <span data-math="g">g</span> on the Moon is less than <span data-math="g">g</span> on Earth.
B:
It will decrease because <span data-math="g">g</span> on the Moon is less than <span data-math="g">g</span> on Earth.
C:
It will increase because <span data-math="g">g</span> on the Moon is greater than <span data-math="g">g</span> on Earth.
D:
It will decrease because <span data-math="g">g</span> on the Moon is greater than <span data-math="g">g</span> on Earth.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ex116

ID: 2313@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.683Z

Question:
What is $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} - \overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ for the following vectors? $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} = (15\,\text{m}, \angle\,53^\circ)$ $\overrightarrow{\text{B}} = (10\,\text{m}, \angle\,37^\circ)$
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 6.1\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 10^\circ">\theta = 10^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 6.1\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 80^\circ">\theta = 80^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 36.6\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 10^\circ">\theta = 10^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 36.6\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 80^\circ">\theta = 80^\circ</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2314@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.694Z

Question:
What is $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} - \overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ for the following vectors? $\overrightarrow{\text{A}} = (11.7\,\text{m}, \angle\,25^\circ)$ $\overrightarrow{\text{B}} = (13.3\,\text{m}, \angle\,347^\circ)$
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 1.6\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 322.0^\circ">\theta = 322.0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 7.3\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 322.0^\circ">\theta = 322.0^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 8.3\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 106.5^\circ">\theta = 106.5^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = 25.0\,\text{m} %]]&gt;">% </span>, <span data-math="\theta = 106.5^\circ">\theta = 106.5^\circ</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2315@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.706Z

Question:
A bird flies $2\,\text{km}$ south and then $1.5\,\text{km}$ $37^\circ\!$ east of south. How far will it have to fly to get back to its original place if it flies in a straight line?
A:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{km}">0.5\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.1\,\text{km}">3.1\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.3\,\text{km}">3.3\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.5\,\text{km}">3.5\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot003

ID: 2316@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.718Z

Question:
A bird flies north $5\,\text{km}$ and then south $2\,\text{km}$ . What is the resultant displacement of the bird?
A:
<span data-math="3\,\text{km}">3\,\text{km}</span> south
B:
<span data-math="3\,\text{km}">3\,\text{km}</span> north
C:
<span data-math="7\,\text{km}">7\,\text{km}</span> south
D:
<span data-math="7\,\text{km}">7\,\text{km}</span> north

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot004

ID: 2317@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.730Z

Question:
True or False: We can graphically add vectors by applying the tail-to-tail method.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot005

ID: 2318@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.741Z

Question:
How is the negative of a vector shown graphically?
A:
It is shown by an arrow with half the length as the original, and pointing in the same direction.
B:
It is shown by an arrow with the same length as original, but pointing in the opposite direction.
C:
It is shown by an arrow with half the length as the original, and pointing in the opposite direction.
D:
It is shown by an arrow with the same length as the original but pointing in the perpendicular direction.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot006

ID: 2319@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.753Z

Question:
How can one find the resultant vector using the head-to-tail method?
A:
By joining the head of the first vector to the head of the last.
B:
By joining the head of the first vector with the tail of the last.
C:
By joining the tail of the first vector to the head of the last.
D:
By joining the tail of the first vector with the tail of the last.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot007

ID: 2320@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.765Z

Question:
What is the global angle of $20^\circ\!$ south of west?
A:
<span data-math="110^\circ">110^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="160^\circ">160^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="200^\circ">200^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="290^\circ">290^\circ</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2321@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.777Z

Question:
True or False: A person walks 2 blocks east and 3 blocks north. A second person travels to the same point in a straight line. If they walk at the same speed then the second person will arrive earlier than the first person.
A:
False
B:
True

Tags:

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ID: 2322@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.794Z

Question:
Two people push at a table applying the same amount of force. If one applies force in the south direction and one in the east direction, in which direction will the table move?
A:
northeast
B:
northwest
C:
southeast
D:
southwest

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot010

ID: 2323@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.806Z

Question:
Four vectors, a, b, c, and d form an arrowhead; a and b form an angle across from c and d, which also form an angle. For the vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{a}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{b}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{c}}$ , and $\overrightarrow{\text{d}}$ shown in the diagram, which equation is not a valid way to express one vector in terms of other three?
A:
<span data-math="b = a + d + c">b = a + d + c</span>
B:
<span data-math="a = b - d - c">a = b - d - c</span>
C:
<span data-math="d = c + b + a">d = c + b + a</span>
D:
<span data-math="d = b - a - c">d = b - a - c</span>

Tags:

dok3 blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot011

ID: 2324@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.818Z

Question:
A diagram shows four vectors, a, b, c, and d, that form a diamond shape. Four vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{a}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{b}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{c}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{d}}$ are shown in the diagram. Which equation fails to express any one of the vectors in terms of the other three, using vector addition or subtraction?
A:
<span data-math="b = c - d + a">b = c - d + a</span>
B:
<span data-math="c = b - a + d">c = b - a + d</span>
C:
<span data-math="c = b + a + d">c = b + a + d</span>
D:
<span data-math="d = a - b + c">d = a - b + c</span>

Tags:

dok3 blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot012

ID: 2325@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.830Z

Question:
A plane flies north at $200\,\text{m/s}$ with a headwind blowing from the north at $70\,\text{m/s}$ . What is the resultant velocity of the plane?
A:
<span data-math="130\,\text{m/s}">130\,\text{m/s}</span> north
B:
<span data-math="130\,\text{m/s}">130\,\text{m/s}</span> south
C:
<span data-math="270\,\text{m/s}">270\,\text{m/s}</span> north
D:
<span data-math="270\,\text{m/s}">270\,\text{m/s}</span> south

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot013

ID: 2326@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.841Z

Question:
A car travels $12.2\,\text{km}$ at $35^\circ\!$ west of north and then $11.7\,\text{km}$ at $70^\circ\!$ west of north. What is its total displacement?
A:
<span data-math="22.8\,\text{km}">22.8\,\text{km}</span> at <span data-math="37.1^\circ\!">37.1^\circ\!</span> west of north
B:
<span data-math="22.8\,\text{km}">22.8\,\text{km}</span> at <span data-math="52.1^\circ\!">52.1^\circ\!</span> west of north
C:
<span data-math="23.9\,\text{km}">23.9\,\text{km}</span> at <span data-math="37.1^\circ\!">37.1^\circ\!</span> west of north
D:
<span data-math="23.9\,\text{km}">23.9\,\text{km}</span> at <span data-math="52.1^\circ\!">52.1^\circ\!</span> west of north

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot014

ID: 2327@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.847Z

Question:
Two hikers take different routes to reach the same spot. The first one goes $255\,\text{m}$ southeast, then turns and goes $82\,\text{m}$ at $14^\circ\!$ south of east. The other goes $200\,\text{m}$ south. How far and in which direction must he travel now, in order to reach his destination?
A:
<span data-math="200\,\text{m}">200\,\text{m}</span> east
B:
<span data-math="200\,\text{m}">200\,\text{m}</span> south
C:
<span data-math="260\,\text{m}">260\,\text{m}</span> east
D:
<span data-math="260\,\text{m}">260\,\text{m}</span> south

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot015

ID: 2328@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.864Z

Question:
A person drives $283\,\text{km}$ southwest for a trip. However, on his return journey he first takes a detour and goes $166\,\text{km}$ at $65^\circ\!$ north of east. How much more and in which direction will he have to travel to reach home?
A:
He will have to go <span data-math="117\,\text{km}">117\,\text{km}</span> at <span data-math="21^\circ\!">21^\circ\!</span> north of east.
B:
He will have to go <span data-math="117\,\text{km}">117\,\text{km}</span> at <span data-math="21^\circ\!">21^\circ\!</span> south of east.
C:
He will have to go <span data-math="139\,\text{km}">139\,\text{km}</span> at <span data-math="21^\circ\!">21^\circ\!</span> north of east.
D:
He will have to go <span data-math="139\,\text{km}">139\,\text{km}</span> at <span data-math="21^\circ\!">21^\circ\!</span> south of east.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s01 k12phys-ch05-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot016

ID: 2329@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.870Z

Question:
What is the y-component of a vector whose magnitude is $6.11\,\text{m}$ and whose x-component is $3.40\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="2.71\,\text{m}">2.71\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.83\,\text{m}">2.83\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.07\,\text{m}">5.07\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.11\,\text{m}">6.11\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2330@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.881Z

Question:
What is the x-component of a vector that makes an angle of $45^\circ\!$ with the positive x-axis and whose y-component is $7\,\text{cm}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="3.5\,\text{cm}">3.5\,\text{cm}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.0\,\text{cm}">5.0\,\text{cm}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.0\,\text{cm}">7.0\,\text{cm}</span>
D:
<span data-math="9.9\,\text{cm}">9.9\,\text{cm}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok1 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot018

ID: 2331@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.898Z

Question:
What is the direction of a vector whose x-component is $5\,\text{m}$ and whose y-component is $2\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="21.8^\circ">21.8^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="23.6^\circ">23.6^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="66.4^\circ">66.4^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="68.2^\circ">68.2^\circ</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2332@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.904Z

Question:
What is the magnitude of a vector that makes an angle of $85^\circ\!$ to the horizontal and whose x-component is $12\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="1.0\,\text{m}">1.0\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="11.9\,\text{m}">11.9\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="12.0\,\text{m}">12.0\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="137.7\,\text{m}">137.7\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot020

ID: 2333@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.915Z

Question:
How can we express the x and y-components of a vector in terms of its magnitude, $A$ , and direction, $\theta$ ?
A:
<span data-math="A_x = A \cos \theta">A_x = A \cos \theta</span> <span data-math="A_y = A \sin \theta">A_y = A \sin \theta</span>
B:
<span data-math="A_x = A \cos \theta">A_x = A \cos \theta</span> <span data-math="A_y = A \cos \theta">A_y = A \cos \theta</span>
C:
<span data-math="A_x = A \sin \theta">A_x = A \sin \theta</span> <span data-math="A_y = A \cos \theta">A_y = A \cos \theta</span>
D:
<span data-math="A_x = A \sin \theta">A_x = A \sin \theta</span> <span data-math="A_y = A \sin \theta">A_y = A \sin \theta</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot021

ID: 2334@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.932Z

Question:
True or False: Every 2-D vector can be expressed as the product of its x and y-components.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot022

ID: 2335@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.937Z

Question:
Give one value of angle $\theta$ of a vector, for which the x and y-components of the vector will have the same magnitude.
A:
<span data-math="\theta = 0^\circ">\theta = 0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="\theta = 45^\circ">\theta = 45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="\theta = 60^\circ">\theta = 60^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="\theta = 90^\circ">\theta = 90^\circ</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot023

ID: 2336@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.955Z

Question:
What is the direction of a vector whose x and y-components are both ${-5}$ , with the angle measured from the positive x-axis?
A:
<span data-math="\theta = 0^\circ">\theta = 0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="\theta = 45^\circ">\theta = 45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="\theta = 135^\circ">\theta = 135^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="\theta = 225^\circ">\theta = 225^\circ</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot024

ID: 2337@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.960Z

Question:
True or False: In applying the Pythagorean theorem to vector addition, the resultant vector is given by the perpendicular vector.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot025

ID: 2338@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.972Z

Question:
True or False: The graphical method and the analytical method are two methods of vector addition.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok1 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot026

ID: 2339@1

2015-08-20T13:11:35.990Z

Question:
Consider vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ , and their resultant $\overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ . What is the magnitude of $\overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ in the x direction given by?
A:
<span data-math="R_x = A_x + B_x">R_x = A_x + B_x</span>
B:
<span data-math="R_x = A_x - B_x">R_x = A_x - B_x</span>
C:
<span data-math="R_x = {A_x}^2 + {B_x}^2">R_x = {A_x}^2 + {B_x}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="R_x = \sqrt{{A_x}^2 + {B_x}^2}">R_x = \sqrt{{A_x}^2 + {B_x}^2}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot027

ID: 2340@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.001Z

Question:
Consider vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ , and their resultant $\overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ . What is the magnitude of $\overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ in the y direction given by?
A:
<span data-math="R_y = A_y - B_y">R_y = A_y - B_y</span>
B:
<span data-math="R_y = A_y + B_y">R_y = A_y + B_y</span>
C:
<span data-math="R_y = {A_y}^2 + {B_y}^2">R_y = {A_y}^2 + {B_y}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="R_y = \sqrt{{A_y}^2 + {B_y}^2}">R_y = \sqrt{{A_y}^2 + {B_y}^2}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot028

ID: 2341@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.013Z

Question:
What is the magnitude in the x direction, of a vector with a magnitude of $30\,\text{cm}$ and an angle of $30^\circ$ ?
A:
<span data-math="15.00\,\text{cm}">15.00\,\text{cm}</span>
B:
<span data-math="17.32\,\text{cm}">17.32\,\text{cm}</span>
C:
<span data-math="25.98\,\text{cm}">25.98\,\text{cm}</span>
D:
<span data-math="30.00\,\text{cm}">30.00\,\text{cm}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot029

ID: 2342@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.019Z

Question:
What is the magnitude in the y direction of a vector with a magnitude of $5\,\text{units}$ and angle of $60^\circ$ ?
A:
<span data-math="2.50\,\text{units}">2.50\,\text{units}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.33\,\text{units}">4.33\,\text{units}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.00\,\text{units}">5.00\,\text{units}</span>
D:
<span data-math="8.66\,\text{units}">8.66\,\text{units}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot030

ID: 2343@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.037Z

Question:
True or False: It is possible to determine a vector if only one of its components is known.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot031

ID: 2344@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.042Z

Question:
True or False: It is possible to determine a vector if its angle is known and one of its component vectors is known.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot032

ID: 2345@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.053Z

Question:
What is the magnitude of a vector whose y-component is $7\,\text{units}$ and whose angle is $60^\circ$ ?
A:
<span data-math="6.06\,\text{units}">6.06\,\text{units}</span>
B:
<span data-math="8.08\,\text{units}">8.08\,\text{units}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.90\,\text{units}">9.90\,\text{units}</span>
D:
<span data-math="14.00\,\text{units}">14.00\,\text{units}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot033

ID: 2346@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.064Z

Question:
What is the magnitude of a vector whose x and y-components are both $5\,\text{units}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="2.50\,\text{units}">2.50\,\text{units}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.54\,\text{units}">3.54\,\text{units}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.00\,\text{units}">5.00\,\text{units}</span>
D:
<span data-math="7.07\,\text{units}">7.07\,\text{units}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot034

ID: 2347@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.081Z

Question:
Consider vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ , and their resultant $\overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ . How can you express its magnitude in terms of $\text{A}_x$ , $\text{A}_y$ , $\text{B}_x$ , and $\text{B}_y\!$ ?
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = (A_x + B_x) + (A_y + B_y) %]]&gt;">% </span>
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = (A_x + B_x) - (A_y + B_y) %]]&gt;">% </span>
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = ({A_x + B_x})^2 + ({A_y + B_y})^2 %]]&gt;">% </span>
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = \sqrt{(A_x + B_x)^2 + (A_y + B_y)^2} %]]&gt;">% </span>

Tags:

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ID: 2348@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.092Z

Question:
Consider vectors $\overrightarrow{\text{A}}$ , $\overrightarrow{\text{B}}$ , and their resultant $\overrightarrow{\text{R}}$ . How can you express its direction in terms of $\text{A}_x$ , $\text{A}_y$ , $\text{B}_x$ , and $\text{B}_y\!$ ?
A:
<span data-math="\theta = \sin^{-1} \left(\frac{A_y + B_y}{A_x + B_x}\right)">\theta = \sin^{-1} \left(\frac{A_y + B_y}{A_x + B_x}\right)</span>
B:
<span data-math="\theta = \cos^{-1} \left(\frac{A_y + B_y}{A_x + B_x}\right)">\theta = \cos^{-1} \left(\frac{A_y + B_y}{A_x + B_x}\right)</span>
C:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{A_x + B_x}{A_y + B_y}\right)">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{A_x + B_x}{A_y + B_y}\right)</span>
D:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{A_y + B_y}{A_x + B_x}\right)">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{A_y + B_y}{A_x + B_x}\right)</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot036

ID: 2349@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.098Z

Question:
A person walks $20\,\text{m}$ west and then $12\,\text{m}$ south. Solving analytically, what is the resultant displacement of the person?
A:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = %]]&gt;">% </span>8.00\,\text{m}<span data-math="and">and</span>\theta = 30.96^\circ\!$ south of west
B:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = %]]&gt;">% </span>8.00\,\text{m}<span data-math="and">and</span>\theta = 45.00^\circ\!$ south of west
C:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = %]]&gt;">% </span>23.32\,\text{m}<span data-math="and">and</span>\theta = 30.96^\circ\!$ south of west
D:
<span data-math="% &lt;![CDATA[ \left|\overrightarrow{\text{R}}\right| = %]]&gt;">% </span>23.32\,\text{m}<span data-math="and">and</span>\theta = 45.00^\circ\!$ south of west

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-long tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot037

ID: 2350@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.109Z

Question:
A person walks $25\,\text{m}$ northeast and then $15\,\text{m}$ south. Solving analytically, what is the resultant direction of the person?
A:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 8.59^\circ\!">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 8.59^\circ\!</span> north of east
B:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_x}{R_y}\right) = 81.41^\circ\!">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_x}{R_y}\right) = 81.41^\circ\!</span> north of east
C:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 40.33^\circ\!">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 40.33^\circ\!</span> north of east
D:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 49.67^\circ\!">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 49.67^\circ\!</span> north of east

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-long tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot038

ID: 2351@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.126Z

Question:
A person drives $22^\circ\!$ north of east for $33\,\text{km}$ and then $13^\circ\!$ north of east for $15\,\text{km}$ . What is the magnitude of his resultant displacement?
A:
<span data-math="15.73\,\text{km}">15.73\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="45.21\,\text{km}">45.21\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="47.87\,\text{km}">47.87\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="60.94\,\text{km}">60.94\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot039

ID: 2352@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.131Z

Question:
A bird flies $30^\circ\!$ south of west for $12\,\text{km}$ and then $44^\circ\!$ south of west for $2\,\text{km}$ . What is its resultant direction?
A:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_x}{R_y}\right) = 30.11^\circ\!">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_x}{R_y}\right) = 30.11^\circ\!</span> south of west
B:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 31.99^\circ\!">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 31.99^\circ\!</span> south of west
C:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 57.98^\circ\!">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_y}{R_x}\right) = 57.98^\circ\!</span> south of west
D:
<span data-math="\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_x}{R_y}\right) = 30.11^\circ\!">\theta = \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{R_x}{R_y}\right) = 30.11^\circ\!</span> south of west

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 time-long dok4 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s02 k12phys-ch05-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot040

ID: 2353@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.142Z

Question:
If an object is traveling at $15\,\text{m/s}$ , then accelerates and reaches a velocity of $35\,\text{m/s}$ , what is its average velocity?
A:
<span data-math="15\,\text{m/s}">15\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="25\,\text{m/s}">25\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="35\,\text{m/s}">35\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50\,\text{m/s}">50\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot041

ID: 2354@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.268Z

Question:
If an object, initially at rest, accelerates at the rate of $25\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ , what will its displacement be after $50\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{-31.25}\,\text{km}">{-31.25}\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-1.25}\,\text{km}">{-1.25}\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.25\,\text{km}">1.25\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="31.25\,\text{km}">31.25\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot042

ID: 2355@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.283Z

Question:
A ball is thrown in the air at an angle of $45^\circ\!$ to the ground, with an initial speed of $15\,\text{m/s}$ . How long will it take to reach its maximum height?
A:
<span data-math="0.54\,\text{s}">0.54\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.77\,\text{s}">0.77\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.08\,\text{s}">1.08\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.52\,\text{s}">1.52\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-long tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot043

ID: 2356@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.295Z

Question:
A ball is thrown in the air at an angle of $60^\circ\!$ above the ground with an initial speed of $10\,\text{m/s}$ . How long will it take for it to hit the ground if its initial height was $0\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.90\,\text{s}">0.90\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.02\,\text{s}">1.02\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.77\,\text{s}">1.77\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.04\,\text{s}">2.04\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 time-long tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot044

ID: 2357@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.308Z

Question:
What is the path of a projectile called?
A:
the range of the projectile
B:
the trajectory of the projectile
C:
the flight time of the projectile
D:
the maximum height of the projectile

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot045

ID: 2358@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.320Z

Question:
What is air resistance?
A:
Air resistance is a frictional force that slows the motion of objects as they travel through the air.
B:
Air resistance is a frictional force that accelerates the motion of objects as they travel through the air.
C:
Air resistance is a gravitational force that slows the motion of objects as they travel through the air.
D:
Air resistance is a gravitational force that accelerates the motion of objects as they travel through the air.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot046

ID: 2359@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.332Z

Question:
Name three physical quantities that may be used to describe projectile motion.
A:
acceleration, force, and mass
B:
acceleration, displacement, and force
C:
acceleration, displacement, and velocity
D:
displacement, force, and velocity

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot047

ID: 2360@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.343Z

Question:
What is the y-component of the acceleration of an object experiencing projectile motion?
A:
<span data-math="{-9.8}\,\text{m/s}">{-9.8}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-9.8}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-9.8}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.8\,\text{m/s}">9.8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="9.8\,\text{m/s}^2">9.8\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot048

ID: 2361@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.355Z

Question:
In an equation, how can you express the position, $x$ , of a projectile in terms of its initial position, $x_0$ , average velocity, $v_\text{avg}$ , and time, $t$ ?
A:
<span data-math="x = v_\text{avg}t">x = v_\text{avg}t</span>
B:
<span data-math="x + x_0 = v_\text{avg}t">x + x_0 = v_\text{avg}t</span>
C:
<span data-math="x = x_0 + v_\text{avg}t">x = x_0 + v_\text{avg}t</span>
D:
<span data-math="x = x_0 - v_{avg}t">x = x_0 - v_{avg}t</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot049

ID: 2362@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.368Z

Question:
How can you express the average velocity, $v_\text{avg}$ , of a projectile in terms of its velocity, $v$ , and initial velocity, $v_0$ ?
A:
<span data-math="v_\text{avg} = v_0">v_\text{avg} = v_0</span>
B:
<span data-math="v_\text{avg} = v">v_\text{avg} = v</span>
C:
<span data-math="v_\text{avg} = v + v_0">v_\text{avg} = v + v_0</span>
D:
<span data-math="v_{avg} = \frac{v + v_0}{2}">v_{avg} = \frac{v + v_0}{2}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot050

ID: 2363@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.379Z

Question:
An object is launched into the air. If the y-component of its acceleration is $9.8\,\text{m/s}^2$ , which direction is defined as positive?
A:
vertically upward in the coordinate system
B:
vertically downward in the coordinate system
C:
horizontally to the right side of the coordinate system
D:
horizontally to the left side of the coordinate system

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot051

ID: 2364@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.391Z

Question:
If the initial velocity of a projectile is the same, will the distance it covers increase with increases in its initial angle?
A:
The distance will decrease as the angle increases until the angle reaches <span data-math="45^\circ\!">45^\circ\!</span>, after which it will increase.
B:
The distance will increase as the angle increases until the angle reaches <span data-math="45^\circ\!">45^\circ\!</span>, after which it will decrease.
C:
The distance will continually increase with the increase in the angle of projection of the projectile.
D:
The distance will continually decrease with the increase in the angle of projection of the projectile.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot052

ID: 2365@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.403Z

Question:
A ball is thrown in the air at an angle of $40^\circ\!$ . If the maximum height it reaches is $10\,\text{m}$ , what must be its initial velocity?
A:
<span data-math="17.46\,\text{m/s}">17.46\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="21.78\,\text{m/s}">21.78\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="304.92\,\text{m/s}">304.92\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="474.37\,\text{m/s}">474.37\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot053

ID: 2366@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.415Z

Question:
A ball is thrown in the air with an initial velocity of $10\,\text{m/s}$ . If it reaches a maximum height of $3\,\text{m}$ , what angle would it have been thrown at?
A:
<span data-math="3.75^\circ">3.75^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="36.02^\circ">36.02^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="40.79^\circ">40.79^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="50.08^\circ">50.08^\circ</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot054

ID: 2367@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.426Z

Question:
A large rock is ejected from a volcano with a speed of $30\,\text{m/s}$ and at an angle $60^\circ\!$ above the horizontal. The rock strikes the side of the volcano at an altitude of $10.0\,\text{m}$ lower than its starting point. Calculate the distance traveled by the rock.
A:
<span data-math="84.90\,\text{m}">84.90\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="96.59\,\text{m}">96.59\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="169.80\,\text{m}">169.80\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="193.20\,\text{m}">193.20\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot055

ID: 2368@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.432Z

Question:
A batter hits a ball and it travels at an angle of $55^\circ\!$ to the horizontal, at an initial speed of $35\,\text{m/s}$ . It lands on a building at a height of $5\,\text{m}$ above the ground. How long did the ball stay in the air after getting hit by the bat?
A:
<span data-math="0.15\,\text{s}">0.15\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.18\,\text{sec}">0.18\,\text{sec}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.67\,\text{s}">5.67\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.99\,\text{s}">6.99\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot056

ID: 2369@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.444Z

Question:
What is the perpendicular component of the weight of a $10\,\text{kg}$ object that rests on an incline that makes an angle of $60^\circ\!$ with the horizontal?
A:
<span data-math="5.0\,\text{N}">5.0\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10.0\,\text{N}">10.0\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="49.0\,\text{N}">49.0\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="84.87\,\text{N}">84.87\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot057

ID: 2370@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.455Z

Question:
What is the perpendicular component of weight of an object with a mass of $25.5\,\text{kg}$ that rests on an incline that makes an angle of $25^\circ\!$ with the horizontal?
A:
<span data-math="10.77\,\text{N}">10.77\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="25.5\,\text{N}">25.5\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="105.6\,\text{N}">105.6\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="226.5\,\text{N}">226.5\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot058

ID: 2371@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.473Z

Question:
The parallel component of the weight of an object resting on an incline that makes an angle of $70^\circ\!$ with the horizontal is $100\,\text{N}$ . What is the object’s mass?
A:
<span data-math="10.86\,\text{kg}">10.86\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="29.83\,\text{kg}">29.83\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="106.49\,\text{kg}">106.49\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="292.38\,\text{kg}">292.38\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot059

ID: 2372@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.485Z

Question:
An object rests on an inclined plane. If its mass is $25\,\text{kg}$ , and the parallel component of its weight is $35\,\text{N}$ , what angle does the inclined plane make with the horizontal?
A:
<span data-math="8.21^\circ">8.21^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="16.6^\circ">16.6^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="73.4^\circ">73.4^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="81.79^\circ">81.79^\circ</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot060

ID: 2373@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.497Z

Question:
Between static and kinetic friction between two surfaces, which has a greater value? Why?
A:
The kinetic friction has a greater value because the friction between the two surfaces is more when the two surfaces are in relative motion.
B:
The static friction has a greater value because the friction between the two surfaces is more when the two surfaces are in relative motion.
C:
The kinetic friction has a greater value because the friction between the two surfaces is less when the two surfaces are in relative motion.
D:
The static friction has a greater value because the friction between the two surfaces is less when the two surfaces are in relative motion.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot061

ID: 2374@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.509Z

Question:
When there is no motion between objects, what is the relationship between the magnitude of the static friction $f_\text{s}$ and the normal force $N$ ?
A:
<span data-math="f_\text{s} \le N">f_\text{s} \le N</span>
B:
<span data-math="f_s \le \mu_\text{s}N">f_s \le \mu_\text{s}N</span>
C:
<span data-math="f_s \ge N">f_s \ge N</span>
D:
<span data-math="f_s \ge \mu_\text{s}N">f_s \ge \mu_\text{s}N</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2375@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.521Z

Question:

Which of these situations will require the application of the most amount of force on a box to make it move at a constant velocity? Why?

  1. a box is at rest on the floor
  2. a box is being slid across the floor
  3. a box is being slid on an oiled floor
A:
Situation 1 would require the maximum amount of force because the static friction between the box and the floor when the box is at rest is greater than the kinetic friction when the box is sliding over the floor.
B:
Situation 2 would require the maximum amount of force because the kinetic friction between the box and the floor when the box is moving is greater than the static friction when the box is at rest.
C:
Situation 3 would require the maximum amount of force because the oil increases the kinetic friction when the box is sliding over the floor.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot063

ID: 2376@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.532Z

Question:
Force $F$ is applied to an object, but it does not move. What is the relation, in this case, between $F$ and $f_\text{s(max)}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="F < f_\text{s(max)}">F < f_\text{s(max)}</span>
B:
<span data-math="F > f_\text{s(max)}">F > f_\text{s(max)}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F < \left(\,f_\text{s(max)}\right)^2">F < \left(\,f_\text{s(max)}\right)^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="F > \left(\,f_\text{s(max)}\right)^2">F > \left(\,f_\text{s(max)}\right)^2</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot064

ID: 2377@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.544Z

Question:
What equation gives the magnitude of kinetic friction?
A:
<span data-math="f_\text{k} = \mu_\text{s}N">f_\text{k} = \mu_\text{s}N</span>
B:
<span data-math="f_\text{k} = \mu_\text{k}N">f_\text{k} = \mu_\text{k}N</span>
C:
<span data-math="f_\text{k} \le \mu_\text{s}N">f_\text{k} \le \mu_\text{s}N</span>
D:
<span data-math="f_\text{k} \le \mu_\text{k}N">f_\text{k} \le \mu_\text{k}N</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot065

ID: 2378@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.556Z

Question:
Give an example of two surfaces between which the coefficient of static friction is more than $0.7$ .
A:
rubber on an ice floor
B:
rubber on an oily surface
C:
rubber on dry concrete
D:
rubber on polished wood

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot066

ID: 2379@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.568Z

Question:
A person applies a force of $200\,\text{N}$ to move an object weighing $400\,\text{N}$ . What could be the coefficient of static friction between the object and the surface?
A:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{s} = 0">\mu_\text{s} = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{s} < 0.5">\mu_\text{s} < 0.5</span>
C:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{s} > 0.5">\mu_\text{s} > 0.5</span>
D:
<span data-math="\mu_\text{s} = 2.0">\mu_\text{s} = 2.0</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2380@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.583Z

Question:
A $5\,\text{kg}$ box is at rest on the floor. The coefficient of static friction between the box and the floor is $0.4$ . A horizontal force of $50\,\text{N}$ is applied to the box. Will it move?
A:
No, because the applied force is less than the maximum limiting static friction.
B:
No, because the applied force is more than the maximum limiting static friction.
C:
Yes, because the applied force is less than the maximum limiting static friction.
D:
Yes, because the applied force is more than the maximum limiting static friction.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot068

ID: 2381@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.594Z

Question:
An object is sliding down an inclined plane at constant velocity. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the plane is $0.5$ , what is the angle of the plane?
A:
<span data-math="26.57^\circ">26.57^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="30.00^\circ">30.00^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="63.43^\circ">63.43^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="60.00^\circ">60.00^\circ</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot069

ID: 2382@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.606Z

Question:
A skier with a mass of $67\,\text{kg}$ is skiing down a snowy slope with an incline of $37^\circ\!$ . Find the friction if the coefficient of kinetic friction is $0.07$ .
A:
<span data-math="27.66\,\text{N}">27.66\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="34.70\,\text{N}">34.70\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="36.70\,\text{N}">36.70\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="45.96\,\text{N}">45.96\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot070

ID: 2383@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.617Z

Question:
A skier is skiing down a snowy slope with an incline of $60^\circ\!$ . Her weight is $45\,\text{kg}$ . What acceleration will she achieve if friction is negligible?
A:
<span data-math="4.9\,\text{m/s}^2">4.9\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="8.5\,\text{m/s}^2">8.5\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.8\,\text{m/s}^2">9.8\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="16.9\,\text{m/s}^2">16.9\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s04 k12phys-ch05-s04-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot071

ID: 2384@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.629Z

Question:
A $50\,\text{kg}$ box is being slid down a wooden inclined plane with an incline of $55^\circ\!$ . If the frictional force it experiences is $80\,\text{N}$ , what acceleration will it achieve? Consider down the plane to be the positive direction.
A:
<span data-math="{-6.43}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-6.43}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-4.02}\,\text{m/s}^2">{-4.02}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="4.02\,\text{m/s}^2">4.02\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.43\,\text{m/s}^2">6.43\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2385@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.635Z

Question:
For a spring with a force constant of $14\,\text{N/m}$ , how much force would need to be applied to cause a displacement of $0.5\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{-28}\,\text{N}">{-28}\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-7}\,\text{N}">{-7}\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7\,\text{N}">7\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="28\,\text{N}">28\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2386@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.646Z

Question:
How much displacement occurs when $45\,\text{N}$ force is applied to a system whose force constant is $300\,\text{N/m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{-6.7}\,\text{m}">{-6.7}\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-0.15}\,\text{m}">{-0.15}\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.15\,\text{m}">0.15\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.7\,\text{m}">6.7\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot074

ID: 2387@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.663Z

Question:
What is the time period of a simple harmonic oscillator with a mass of $0.3\,\text{kg}$ and a force constant of $5\,\text{N/m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="3.9 \times 10^{-2}\,\text{s}">3.9 \times 10^{-2}\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.53\,\text{s}">1.53\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.69\,\text{s}">7.69\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="26\,\text{s}">26\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2388@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.669Z

Question:
What is the frequency of a simple harmonic oscillator with a mass of $0.05\,\text{kg}$ and a force constant of $25\,\text{N/m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="7.11 \times 10^{-3}\,\text{Hz}">7.11 \times 10^{-3}\,\text{Hz}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.81 \times 10^{-1}\,\text{Hz}">2.81 \times 10^{-1}\,\text{Hz}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.55\,\text{Hz}">3.55\,\text{Hz}</span>
D:
<span data-math="140\,\text{Hz}">140\,\text{Hz}</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2389@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.681Z

Question:
What is the equation for Hooke’s law?
A:
<span data-math="F = kx">F = kx</span>
B:
<span data-math="F = {-kx}">F = {-kx}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F = kx^2">F = kx^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="F = {-k}x^2">F = {-k}x^2</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot077

ID: 2390@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.699Z

Question:
What is Hooke’s law?
A:
Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position and acts in the the opposite direction of the displacement.
B:
Restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement from the mean position and acts in the same direction as the displacement.
C:
Restoring force is directly proportional to the square of the displacement from the mean position and acts in the opposite direction of the displacement.
D:
Restoring force is directly proportional to the square of the displacement from the mean position and acts in the same direction as the displacement.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot078

ID: 2391@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.711Z

Question:
In the case of very small deformations, what usually happens to the deformed object once the force is removed?
A:
The object starts to oscillate.
B:
The object returns to its original shape.
C:
The object remains deformed unless some external force acts on it.
D:
The object continues to get deformed unless an external force acts on it.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot079

ID: 2392@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.722Z

Question:
What does the Hooke’s law constant $\text{k}$ depend on?
A:
applied force
B:
displacement
C:
shape and composition of the object
D:
maximum displacement from mean position

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot080

ID: 2393@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.734Z

Question:
What is periodic motion?
A:
the trajectory of an object thrown upwards against gravity
B:
motion that repeats itself at regular time intervals
C:
motion that repeats itself between two fixed points at varied time intervals
D:
motion around a circular path with varying acceleration

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot081

ID: 2394@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.740Z

Question:
In periodic motion, what is a period $T$ ?
A:
the time for which the external force was acting
B:
the number of oscillations in <span data-math="1\,\text{s}">1\,\text{s}</span>
C:
the time taken to complete one oscillation
D:
the time taken to reach the maximum displacement from the mean position

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot082

ID: 2395@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.752Z

Question:
In periodic motion, what is a frequency $f$ ?
A:
magnitude of the force constant
B:
number of oscillations per second
C:
time taken to complete one oscillation
D:
number of oscillations in one time period

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot083

ID: 2396@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.764Z

Question:
What is the relationship between frequency and period?
A:
<span data-math="f = \frac{1}{T}">f = \frac{1}{T}</span>
B:
<span data-math="f = \frac{2\pi}{T}">f = \frac{2\pi}{T}</span>
C:
<span data-math="f = \frac{T}{2\pi}">f = \frac{T}{2\pi}</span>
D:
<span data-math="f = 2 \pi T">f = 2 \pi T</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot084

ID: 2397@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.783Z

Question:
Give two common applications for Hooke’s law.
A:
Hooke’s law can be used to solve problems involving springs and pendulums.
B:
Hooke’s law can be used to solve problems involving projectiles and free-falling bodies.
C:
Hooke’s law can be used to solve problems involving blocks sliding on inclined planes and friction.
D:
Hooke’s law can be used to solve problems involving rotation about a fixed axis and circular motion.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot085

ID: 2398@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.789Z

Question:
What are the units of the Hooke’s law constant $\text{k}$ ?
A:
newtons
B:
newton <span data-math="\!\cdot\!">\!\cdot\!</span> meters
C:
newtons per meter
D:
newtons per meter squared

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot086

ID: 2399@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.801Z

Question:
How would simple harmonic motion be different in the absence of friction?
A:
Oscillation will not happen in the absence of friction.
B:
Oscillation will continue forever in the absence of friction.
C:
Oscillation will have changing amplitude in the absence of friction.
D:
Oscillation will cease after a certain amount of time in the absence of friction.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot087

ID: 2400@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.812Z

Question:
With reference to simple harmonic motion, what is an amplitude?
A:
distance covered in one time period
B:
maximum magnitude of restoring force
C:
displacement covered in one time period
D:
maximum displacement from equilibrium

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot088

ID: 2401@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.824Z

Question:
Two springs are attached to two hooks. When equal weights are suspended from each spring, both stretch the same amount. What can be assumed about the force constants of both?
A:
The force constant is the same for both springs.
B:
The force constant is <span data-math="1\,\text{N/m}">1\,\text{N/m}</span> for both springs.
C:
The force constant is <span data-math="0\,\text{N/m}">0\,\text{N/m}</span> for both springs.
D:
The force constant is different for both springs.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot089

ID: 2402@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.835Z

Question:
System $A$ has a higher force constant as compared to system $B$ . Which system would require a greater restorative force to regain its shape, if they are deformed the same amount?
A:
System A requires a greater restoring force as it is stiffer than system B.
B:
System A requires a greater restoring force as it is less stiff than system B.
C:
System B requires a greater restoring force as it is stiffer than system A.
D:
System B requires a greater restoring force as it is less stiff than system A.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot090

ID: 2403@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.852Z

Question:
Consider two identical oscillators made by attaching objects of the same mass to similar springs. The first oscillator is given a greater initial force in order to start the oscillations. The second is given a relatively smaller push. Which oscillator will oscillate faster?
A:
the one given the greater initial force
B:
the one given the smaller initial force
C:
both will oscillate at the same frequency
D:
it cannot be determined because more information is required

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot091

ID: 2404@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.858Z

Question:
Two identical springs are used to make simple harmonic oscillators. A mass of $0.3\,\text{kg}$ is attached to one spring, while a mass of $0.7\,\text{kg}$ is attached to the other. Which of the following statements is true?
A:
Both of the springs will have the same frequency.
B:
The spring with the <span data-math="0.3\,\text{kg}">0.3\,\text{kg}</span> mass attached will have a higher frequency.
C:
The spring with the <span data-math="0.7\,\text{kg}">0.7\,\text{kg}</span> mass attached will have a higher frequency.
D:
The frequency of the spring will depend on the shape of the object attached.

Tags:

time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking dok4 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo02 k12phys-ch05-ot092

ID: 2405@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.870Z

Question:
What mass needs to be attached to a spring with a force constant of $7\,\text{N/m}$ in order to make a simple harmonic oscillator oscillate with a time period of $3\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.03\,\text{kg}">0.03\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.60\,\text{kg}">1.60\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="30.7\,\text{kg}">30.7\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="63.0\,\text{kg}">63.0\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot093

ID: 2406@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.881Z

Question:
What mass needs to be attached to a spring with force constant $1200\,\text{N/m}$ in order to make a simple harmonic oscillator oscillate with a frequency of $3\,\text{Hz}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="3.00\,\text{kg}">3.00\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.37\,\text{kg}">3.37\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="133\,\text{kg}">133\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1200\,\text{kg}">1200\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot094

ID: 2407@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.893Z

Question:
A pendulum on Earth has a length of $5\,\text{m}$ . What is its frequency?
A:
<span data-math="0.22\,\text{Hz}">0.22\,\text{Hz}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.4\,\text{Hz}">1.4\,\text{Hz}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.2\,\text{Hz}">2.2\,\text{Hz}</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.48\,\text{Hz}">4.48\,\text{Hz}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot095

ID: 2408@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.905Z

Question:
What should be the length of a pendulum set up on the Moon that would have the same time period as a $3\,\text{m}$ pendulum on Earth?
A:
<span data-math="0.50\,\text{m}">0.50\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.50\,\text{m}">1.50\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.00\,\text{m}">3.00\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="18\,\text{m}">18\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review dok4 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s05 k12phys-ch05-s05-lo03 k12phys-ch05-ot096

ID: 2409@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.916Z

Question:
Two objects, with the same size and weight, are thrown from the top of a building at the same time. Standing on the edge of the roof, the first is thrown straight down the side of the building with an initial velocity of $2.5\,\text{m/s}$ while the second is thrown at $5.0\,\text{m/s}$ at an angle $30^\circ\!$ below level. Which will hit the ground first if the building is $60\,\text{m}$ high?
A:
Object 1 will hit the ground first.
B:
Object 2 will hit the ground first.
C:
The two objects will hit at the same time.
D:
It cannot be determined because more information is required.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch05 k12phys-ch05-s03 k12phys-ch05-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch05-ot097

ID: 2410@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.933Z

Question:
For an object traveling in a circular path at a constant speed, would the linear speed of the object change if the radius of the path increases?
A:
Yes, because tangential speed is independent of the radius.
B:
Yes, because tangential speed depends on the radius.
C:
No, because tangential speed is independent of the radius.
D:
No, because tangential speed depends on the radius.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex001

ID: 2411@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.948Z

Question:
If you swing an object slowly, it may rotate at less than one revolution per second. What would be the revolutions per second for an object that makes one revolution in five seconds? What would be its angular speed in radians per second?
A:
The object would spin at <span data-math="\frac{1}{5}\,\text{rev/s}">\frac{1}{5}\,\text{rev/s}</span>. The angular speed of the object would be <span data-math="\frac{2\pi}{5}\,\text{rad/s}">\frac{2\pi}{5}\,\text{rad/s}</span>.
B:
The object would spin at <span data-math="\frac{1}{5}\,\text{rev/s}">\frac{1}{5}\,\text{rev/s}</span>. The angular speed of the object would be <span data-math="\frac{\pi}{5}\,\text{rad/s}">\frac{\pi}{5}\,\text{rad/s}</span>.
C:
The object would spin at <span data-math="5\,\text{rev/s}">5\,\text{rev/s}</span>. The angular speed of the object would be <span data-math="10\pi\,\text{rad/s}">10\pi\,\text{rad/s}</span>.
D:
The object would spin at <span data-math="5\,\text{rev/s}">5\,\text{rev/s}</span>. The angular speed of the object would be <span data-math="5\pi\,\text{rad/s}">5\pi\,\text{rad/s}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex002

ID: 2412@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.959Z

Question:

The clock on a clock tower has a radius of $1.0\,\text{m}$ .

  1. What’s the angle of rotation between the hour hand of the clock when it moves from $12\text{:}00\,\text{pm}$ to $3\text{:}00\,\text{pm}$ ?
  2. What’s the arc length along the outermost edge of the clock between the hour hand at these two times?
A:
<ol> <li> <span data-math="0^\circ\!">0^\circ\!</span> and <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> </li> <li> <span data-math="0\,\text{m}">0\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="1.6\,\text{m}">1.6\,\text{m}</span> </li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li> <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> and <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> </li> <li> <span data-math="0\,\text{m}">0\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="1.6\,\text{m}">1.6\,\text{m}</span> </li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li> <span data-math="0^\circ\!">0^\circ\!</span> and <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> </li> <li> <span data-math="1.6\,\text{m}">1.6\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="1.6\,\text{m}">1.6\,\text{m}</span> </li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li> <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> and <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> </li> <li> <span data-math="1.6\,\text{m}">1.6\,\text{m}</span> and <span data-math="1.6\,\text{m}">1.6\,\text{m}</span> </li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex003

ID: 2413@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.971Z

Question:
The wheel of a car is shown. Lowercase W indicates a blue arrow curved around the circumference of the tire. Lowercase R indicates a black, double-headed arrow that runs from the center of the wheel to its periphery. A green arrow, indicated by the formula V is equal to R W, runs from the center of the wheel and points directly to the right, towards the front of the car. Calculate the angular speed of a car tire with a radius of $0.300\,\text{m}$ when the car travels at $15.0\,\text{m/s}$ , which is about $54\,\text{km/h}$ .
A:
<span data-math="4.5\,\text{rad/s}">4.5\,\text{rad/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.5^\circ\text{/s}">4.5^\circ\text{/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="50\,\text{rad/s}">50\,\text{rad/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50^\circ\text{/s}">50^\circ\text{/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response time-short blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex004

ID: 2414@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.983Z

Question:
What is the angle in degrees between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock showing $9\text{:}00$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="180^\circ">180^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="360^\circ">360^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex005

ID: 2415@1

2015-08-20T13:11:36.994Z

Question:
What is the arc length between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock showing $10\text{:}00$ if the radius of the clock is $0.2\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.1\,\text{m}">0.1\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.2\,\text{m}">0.2\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.3\,\text{m}">0.3\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="0.6\,\text{m}">0.6\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex006

ID: 2416@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.006Z

Question:
What is circular motion?
A:
Circular motion is the motion of an object when it follows the linear path.
B:
Circular motion is the motion of an object when it follows a zigzag path.
C:
Circular motion is the motion of an object when it follows a circular path.
D:
Circular motion is the movement of an object along the circumference of a circle or rotation along a circular path.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex007

ID: 2417@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.017Z

Question:
What is meant by radius of curvature while describing rotational motion?
A:
The radius of curvature is the radius of a circular path.
B:
The radius of curvature is the diameter of a circular path.
C:
The radius of curvature is the circumference of a circular path.
D:
The radius of curvature is the area of a circular path.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex008

ID: 2418@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.023Z

Question:
What is angular velocity?
A:
Angular velocity is the rate of change of the diameter of the circular path.
B:
Angular velocity is the rate of change of the angle subtended by the circular path.
C:
Angular velocity is the rate of change of the area of the circular path.
D:
Angular velocity is the rate of change of the radius of the circular path.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex009

ID: 2419@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.034Z

Question:
What equation defines angular velocity?
A:
<span data-math="\omega = \frac{\Delta\theta}{\Delta{t}}">\omega = \frac{\Delta\theta}{\Delta{t}}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\omega = \frac{\Delta{t}}{\Delta\theta}">\omega = \frac{\Delta{t}}{\Delta\theta}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\omega = \frac{\Delta{r}}{\Delta{t}}">\omega = \frac{\Delta{r}}{\Delta{t}}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\omega = \frac{\Delta{t}}{\Delta{r}}">\omega = \frac{\Delta{t}}{\Delta{r}}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex010

ID: 2420@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.045Z

Question:
Identify three examples of an object in circular motion.
A:
an artificial satellite orbiting the Earth, a race car moving in the circular race track, and a top spinning on its axis
B:
an artificial satellite orbiting the Earth, a race car moving in the circular race track, and an electron moving in the circular orbit around the nucleus
C:
Earth spinning on its own axis, a race car moving in the circular race track, and an electron moving in the circular orbit around the nucleus.
D:
Earth spinning on its own axis, blades of a working ceiling fan, and a top spinning on its own axis.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex011

ID: 2421@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.057Z

Question:
What is the relationship between the radius and tangential velocity vectors of an object in uniform circular motion?
A:
Tangential velocity vector is always parallel to the radius of the circular path along which the object moves.
B:
Tangential velocity vector is always perpendicular to the radius of the circular path along which the object moves.
C:
Tangential velocity vector is always at an acute angle to the radius of the circular path along which the object moves.
D:
Tangential velocity vector is always at an obtuse angle to the radius of the circular path along which the object moves.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex012

ID: 2422@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.068Z

Question:
How do you convert revolutions to radians and degrees?
A:
<span data-math="1\,\text{rev} = \pi\,\text{rad}=180^\circ">1\,\text{rev} = \pi\,\text{rad}=180^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="1\,\text{rev} = \pi\,\text{rad}=360^\circ\!">1\,\text{rev} = \pi\,\text{rad}=360^\circ\!</span>
C:
<span data-math="1\,\text{rev} = 2\pi\,\text{rad} = 180^\circ\!">1\,\text{rev} = 2\pi\,\text{rad} = 180^\circ\!</span>
D:
<span data-math="1\,\text{rev} = 2\pi\,\text{rad}=360^\circ">1\,\text{rev} = 2\pi\,\text{rad}=360^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex013

ID: 2423@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.080Z

Question:
What is tangential velocity?
A:
Tangential velocity is the average linear velocity of an object in a circular motion.
B:
Tangential velocity is the instantaneous linear velocity of an object undergoing rotational motion.
C:
Tangential velocity is the average angular velocity of an object in a circular motion.
D:
Tangential velocity is the instantaneous angular velocity of an object in a circular motion.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex014

ID: 2424@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.097Z

Question:
When the radius of the circular path of rotational motion increases, what happens to the arc length for a given angle of rotation?
A:
The arc length is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path, and it increases with the radius.
B:
The arc length is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular path, and it decreases with the radius.
C:
The arc length is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path, and it decreases with the radius.
D:
The arc length is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular path, and it increases with the radius.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex015

ID: 2425@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.108Z

Question:
Consider a CD spinning clockwise. What is the sum of the instantaneous velocities of two points on both ends of its diameter?
A:
<span data-math="2v">2v</span>
B:
<span data-math="\frac{v}{2}">\frac{v}{2}</span>
C:
<span data-math="- v">- v</span>
D:
<span data-math="0">0</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex016

ID: 2426@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.114Z

Question:
What is the angle of rotation between two hands of a clock, if the radius of the clock is $0.70\,\text{m}$ and the arc length separating the two hands is $1.0\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="40^\circ">40^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="80^\circ">80^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="81^\circ\!">81^\circ\!</span>
D:
<span data-math="163^\circ">163^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex017

ID: 2427@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.125Z

Question:
A clock has diameter $0.5\,\text{m}$ . The outermost point on its minute hand travels along the edge. What is its tangential speed?
A:
<span data-math="9\times10^{-4}\,\text{m/s}">9\times10^{-4}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.4\times10^{-3}\,\text{m/s}">3.4\times10^{-3}\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="8.5\times10^{-4}\,\text{m/s}">8.5\times10^{-4}\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.3\times10^1\,\text{m/s}">1.3\times10^1\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex018

ID: 2428@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.137Z

Question:
What is 1 radian approximatley in degrees?
A:
<span data-math="57.3^\circ">57.3^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="360^\circ">360^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="\pi^\circ\!">\pi^\circ\!</span>
D:
<span data-math="2\pi ^\circ">2\pi ^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex019

ID: 2429@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.148Z

Question:
If the following objects are spinning at the same angular velocities, the edge of which one would have the highest speed?
A:
mini CD
B:
regular CD
C:
vinyl record

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex020

ID: 2430@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.160Z

Question:
What are possible units for tangential velocity?
A:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}">\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{rad/s}">\text{rad/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="^\circ\text{/s}">^\circ\text{/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex021

ID: 2431@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.172Z

Question:
What is the rotational equivalent of linear velocity?
A:
angular displacement
B:
angular velocity
C:
angular acceleration
D:
angular momentum

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex022

ID: 2432@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.184Z

Question:
What is the angular equivalent of distance?
A:
rotational angle
B:
torque
C:
angular velocity
D:
angular momentum

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex023

ID: 2433@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.196Z

Question:
What is the equation that gives the linear speed of a point on a rotating object?
A:
<span data-math="v = \frac{\omega}{r}">v = \frac{\omega}{r}</span>
B:
<span data-math="v = r\omega">v = r\omega</span>
C:
<span data-math="v = \frac{\alpha}{r}">v = \frac{\alpha}{r}</span>
D:
<span data-math="v = r\alpha">v = r\alpha</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex024

ID: 2434@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.212Z

Question:
As the angular velocity of an object increases, what happens to the linear velocity of a point on that object?
A:
It increases, because linear velocity is directly proportional to angular velocity.
B:
It increases, because linear velocity is inversely proportional to angular velocity.
C:
It decreases because linear velocity is directly proportional to angular velocity.
D:
It decreases because linear velocity is inversely proportional to angular velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex025

ID: 2435@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.224Z

Question:
What is angular speed in terms of tangential speed and the radius?
A:
<span data-math="\omega = \frac{v^2}{r}">\omega = \frac{v^2}{r}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\omega = \frac{v}{r}">\omega = \frac{v}{r}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\omega = rv">\omega = rv</span>
D:
<span data-math="\omega = r{v^2}">\omega = r{v^2}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex026

ID: 2436@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.230Z

Question:
Why are radians dimensionless?
A:
Radians are dimensionless, because they are defined as a ratio of distances. It is defined as the ratio of the arc length to the radius of the circle.
B:
Radians are dimensionless because they are defined as a ratio of distances. It is defined as the ratio of the area to the radius of the circle.
C:
Radians are dimensionless because they are defined as multiplication of distance. It is defined as the multiplication of the arc length to the radius of the circle.
D:
Radians are dimensionless because they are defined as multiplication of distance. It is defined as the multiplication of the area to the radius of the circle.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex027

ID: 2437@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.241Z

Question:
Consider two pits on a CD, one close to the center and one close to the outer edge. When the CD makes one full rotation, which pit would have gone through a greater angle of rotation? Which one would have covered a greater arc length?
A:
The one close to the center would go through the greater angle of rotation. The one near the outer edge would trace a greater arc length.
B:
The one close to the center would go through the greater angle of rotation. The one near the center would trace a greater arc length.
C:
Both would go through the same angle of rotation. The one near the outer edge would trace a greater arc length.
D:
Both would go through the same angle of rotation. The one near the center would trace a greater arc length.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex028

ID: 2438@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.253Z

Question:
Consider two pits on a CD, one close to the center and one close to the outer edge. For a given angular velocity of the CD, which pit has a higher angular velocity? Which has a higher tangential velocity?
A:
The point near the center would have the greater angular velocity and the point near the outer edge would have the higher linear velocity.
B:
The point near the edge would have the greater angular velocity and the point near the center would have the higher linear velocity.
C:
Both have the same angular velocity and the point near the outer edge would have the higher linear velocity.
D:
Both have the same angular velocity and the point near the center would have the higher linear velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex029

ID: 2439@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.270Z

Question:
What happens to tangential velocity as the radius of an object increases provided the angular velocity remains the same?
A:
It increases, because tangential velocity is directly proportional to the radius.
B:
It increases, because tangential velocity is inversely proportional to the radius.
C:
It decreases because tangential velocity is directly proportional to the radius.
D:
It decreases because tangential velocity is inversely proportional to the radius.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex030

ID: 2440@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.276Z

Question:
In uniform circular motion, what is the angle between the acceleration and the velocity? What type of acceleration does a body experience in the uniform circular motion?
A:
The angle between acceleration and velocity is <span data-math="0^\circ\!">0^\circ\!</span> and the body experiences linear acceleration.
B:
The angle between acceleration and velocity is <span data-math="0^\circ\!">0^\circ\!</span> and the body experiences centripetal acceleration.
C:
The angle between acceleration and velocity is <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span>, and the body experiences linear acceleration.
D:
The angle between acceleration and velocity is <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span> and the body experiences centripetal acceleration.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex031

ID: 2441@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.287Z

Question:
Imagine that you are swinging a yoyo in a vertical clockwise circle in front of you, perpendicular to the direction you are facing. Now, imagine that the string breaks just as the yoyo reaches its bottommost position, nearest the floor. Which of the following describes the path of the yoyo after the string breaks?
A:
The yoyo will fly upward in the direction of the centripetal force.
B:
The yoyo will fly downward in the direction of the centripetal force.
C:
The yoyo will fly to the left in the direction of the tangential velocity.
D:
The yoyo will fly to the right in the direction of the tangential velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex032

ID: 2442@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.299Z

Question:
Was it more useful to use the equation $a_c = \frac{v^2}{r}$ or $a_c = r \omega^2$ in this activity? Why?
A:
It should be simpler to use <span data-math="a_c = r\omega^2\!">a_c = r\omega^2\!</span>, because measuring angular velocity through observation would be easier.
B:
It should be simpler to use <span data-math="a_c = \frac{v^2\!}{r}">a_c = \frac{v^2\!}{r}</span> because measuring tangential velocity through observation would be easier.
C:
It should be simpler to use <span data-math="a_c = r{\omega^2\!}">a_c = r{\omega^2\!}</span>, because measuring angular velocity through observation would be difficult.
D:
It should be simpler to use <span data-math="a_c = \frac{v^2\!}{r}">a_c = \frac{v^2\!}{r}</span> because measuring tangential velocity through observation would be difficult.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex033

ID: 2443@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.316Z

Question:
The diagram shows an illustration of a car driving clockwise around a circle with a radius r and an arrow pointing in the direction of the car labeled v and an arrow pointing opposite toward the radius labeled ac (centripetal acceleration). The point at the center of the circle and start of radius is labeled Center of rotation. A car follows a curve of radius $500\,\text{m}$ at a speed of $25.0\,\text{m/s}$ (about $90\,\text{km/h}$ ). What is the magnitude of the car’s centripetal acceleration? Compare the centripetal acceleration for this fairly gentle curve taken at highway speed with acceleration due to gravity $g$ .
A:
The centripetal acceleration is <span data-math="0.1\,\text{m/s}">0.1\,\text{m/s}</span> and is <span data-math="0.1">0.1</span> times the acceleration due to gravity.
B:
The centripetal acceleration is <span data-math="1.25\,\text{m/s}^2\!">1.25\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span> and is <span data-math="0.1">0.1</span> times the acceleration due to gravity.
C:
The centripetal acceleration is <span data-math="0.1\,\text{m/s}">0.1\,\text{m/s}</span> and is <span data-math="0.01">0.01</span> times the acceleration due to gravity.
D:
The centripetal acceleration is <span data-math="1.25 \,\text{m/s}^2\!">1.25 \,\text{m/s}^2\!</span> and is <span data-math="0.01">0.01</span> times the acceleration due to gravity.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex034

ID: 2444@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.328Z

Question:
The diagram shows an illustration of a car and a red dot. An arrow pointing up from the red dot is labeled N. An arrow pointing down is labeled w and an arrow pointing to the left is labeled f. Below the car is another arrow pointing down labeled w and an arrow pointing from the ground to the car labeled N. On the right back tire is a left arrow pointing toward the wheel with the formula f equals F c equals mu s times N 1. Calculate the centripetal force exerted on a $900\,\text{kg}$ car that rounds a $600\,\text{m}$ radius curve on horizontal ground at $25.0\,\text{m/s}$ . 2. Static friction prevents the car from slipping. Find the magnitude of the frictional force between the tires and the road that allows the car to round the curve without sliding off in a straight line.
A:
<ol> <li><span data-math="37.5\,\text{N}">37.5\,\text{N}</span></li> <li>Force of friction is the same as the centripetal force.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li><span data-math="864\,\text{N}">864\,\text{N}</span></li> <li>force of friction is the same as the centripetal force</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li><span data-math="938\,\text{N}">938\,\text{N}</span></li> <li> <span data-math="F">F</span>, force of friction, is the same as the centripetal force</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li><span data-math="21,600\,\text{N}">21,600\,\text{N}</span></li> <li>force of friction is the same as the centripetal force</li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex035

ID: 2445@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.339Z

Question:
What is the centripetal acceleration of an object with speed $12\,\text{m/s}$ going along a path of radius $2.0\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="6\,\text{m/s}">6\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="72\,\text{m/s}">72\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="6\,\text{m/s}^2">6\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="72\,\text{m/s}^2\!">72\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex036

ID: 2446@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.351Z

Question:
Calculate the centripetal acceleration of an object follow a path with a radius of curvature of $0.2\,\text{m}$ and at anangular velocity of $5\,\text{rad/s}$ .
A:
<span data-math="1\,\text{m/s}">1\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1\,\text{m/s}^2">1\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}^2\!">5\,\text{m/s}^2\!</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex037

ID: 2447@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.362Z

Question:
What is uniform circular motion?
A:
Uniform circular motion is when an object accelerates on a circular path at a constantly increasing velocity.
B:
Uniform circular motion is when an object travels on a circular path at a variable acceleration.
C:
Uniform circular motion is when an object travels on a circular path at a constant speed.
D:
Uniform circular motion is when an object travels on a circular path at a variable speed.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex038

ID: 2448@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.368Z

Question:
What is centripetal acceleration?
A:
the acceleration of an object moving in a circular path and directed radially toward the center of the circular orbit
B:
the acceleration of an object moving in a circular path and directed tangentially along the circular path
C:
the acceleration of an object moving in a linear path and directed in the direction of motion of the object
D:
the acceleration of an object moving in a linear path and directed in the direction opposite to the motion of the object

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex039

ID: 2449@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.386Z

Question:
Is there a net force acting on an object in uniform circular motion?
A:
Yes, the object is accelerating, so a net force must be acting on it.
B:
Yes, because there is no acceleration.
C:
No, because there is acceleration.
D:
No, because there is no acceleration.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex040

ID: 2450@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.397Z

Question:
Identify two examples of forces that can cause centripetal acceleration.
A:
the force of Earth’s gravity on the moon and the normal force
B:
the force of Earth’s gravity on the moon and the tension in the rope on an orbiting tetherball
C:
the normal force and the force of friction acting on a moving car
D:
the normal force and the tension in the rope on a tetherball

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex041

ID: 2451@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.403Z

Question:
What is the equation for centripetal acceleration in terms of angular velocity?
A:
<span data-math="a_c = \frac{\omega^2\!}{r}">a_c = \frac{\omega^2\!}{r}</span>
B:
<span data-math="a_c = \frac{\omega}{r}">a_c = \frac{\omega}{r}</span>
C:
<span data-math="a_c = r\omega^2\!">a_c = r\omega^2\!</span>
D:
<span data-math="a_c = r\omega\!">a_c = r\omega\!</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex042

ID: 2452@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.414Z

Question:
How can you express centripetal force in terms of centripetal acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="F_c = \frac{a_c^2\!}{m}">F_c = \frac{a_c^2\!}{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="F_c = \frac{a_c}{m}">F_c = \frac{a_c}{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F_c = ma_c^2\!">F_c = ma_c^2\!</span>
D:
<span data-math="F_c = ma_c">F_c = ma_c</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex043

ID: 2453@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.431Z

Question:
Does the acceleration of an object in uniform circular motion always increase?
A:
No, the direction of the acceleration is tangential to the rotating body.
B:
No, the direction of the acceleration is radially inwards toward the center of the rotating body.
C:
Yes, the direction of the acceleration is tangential to the rotating body.
D:
Yes, the direction of the acceleration is toward the center of the rotating body.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex044

ID: 2454@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.437Z

Question:
Suppose you have an object tied to a rope and are rotating it over your head in uniform circular motion. If you increase the length of the rope, would you have to apply more or less force to maintain the same speed?
A:
More force is required, because the force is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular orbit.
B:
More force is required because the force is directly proportional to the radius of the circular orbit.
C:
Less force is required because the force is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular orbit.
D:
Less force is required because the force is directly proportional to the radius of the circular orbit.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex045

ID: 2455@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.449Z

Question:
What is the centripetal force exerted on a $1600\,\text{kg}$ car that rounds a $100\,\text{m}$ radius curve at $12\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="192\,\text{N}">192\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1,111\,\text{N}">1,111\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2,300\,\text{N}">2,300\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="13,333\,\text{N}">13,333\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex046

ID: 2456@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.466Z

Question:
Find the frictional force between the tires and the road that allows a $1000\,\text{kg}$ car traveling at $30\,\text{m/s}$ to round a $20\,\text{m}$ radius curve.
A:
<span data-math="22\,\text{N}">22\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="667\,\text{N}">667\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1,500\,\text{N}">1,500\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="45,000\,\text{N}">45,000\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-5 k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex047

ID: 2457@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.472Z

Question:
Which of these quantities is constant in uniform circular motion?
A:
speed
B:
velocity
C:
acceleration
D:
displacement

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex048

ID: 2458@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.484Z

Question:
Which of these quantities does not impact centripetal force?
A:
mass
B:
radius of curvature
C:
speed
D:
tension

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex049

ID: 2459@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.496Z

Question:
An increase in the magnitude of which of these quantities causes a reduction in centripetal force?
A:
mass
B:
radius of curvature
C:
velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex050

ID: 2460@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.507Z

Question:
What type of quantity is centripetal acceleration?
A:
scalar quantity; centripetal acceleration has magnitude only but no direction
B:
scalar quantity; centripetal acceleration has magnitude as well as direction
C:
vector quantity; centripetal acceleration has magnitude only but no direction
D:
vector quantity; centripetal acceleration has magnitude as well as direction

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex051

ID: 2461@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.518Z

Question:
What are the standard units for centripetal acceleration?
A:
m/s
B:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}^2\!">\text{m/s}^2\!</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{m}^2\text{/s}">\text{m}^2\text{/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{m}^2\!\text{/s}^2\!">\text{m}^2\!\text{/s}^2\!</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex052

ID: 2462@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.535Z

Question:
What is the angle formed between the vectors of tangential velocity and centripetal force?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="30^\circ\!">30^\circ\!</span>
C:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="180^\circ">180^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex053

ID: 2463@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.541Z

Question:
What is the angle formed between the vectors of centripetal acceleration and centripetal force?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="30^\circ">30^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="180^\circ">180^\circ</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex054

ID: 2464@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.559Z

Question:
What are the standard units for centripetal force?
A:
meters
B:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}">\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}^2">\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
newtons

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex055

ID: 2465@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.565Z

Question:
As the mass of an object in uniform circular motion increases, what happens to the centripetal force required to keep it moving at the same speed?
A:
It increases, because the centripetal force is directly proportional to the mass of the rotating body.
B:
It increases, because the centripetal force is inversely proportional to the mass of the rotating body.
C:
It decreases, because the centripetal force is directly proportional to the mass of the rotating body.
D:
It decreases, because the centripetal force is inversely proportional to the mass of the rotating body.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex056

ID: 2466@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.576Z

Question:
Is an object in uniform circular motion accelerating? Why or why not?
A:
Yes, because the velocity is not constant.
B:
No, because the velocity is not constant.
C:
Yes, because the velocity is constant.
D:
No, because the velocity is not constant.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex057

ID: 2467@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.589Z

Question:
An object is in uniform circular motion. Suppose the centripetal force was removed. In which direction would the object now travel?
A:
in the direction of the centripetal force
B:
in the direction opposite to the direction of the centripetal force
C:
in the direction of the tangential velocity
D:
in the direction opposite to the direction of the tangential velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex058

ID: 2468@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.606Z

Question:
An object undergoes uniform circular motion. If the radius of curvature and mass of the object are constant, what is the centripetal force proportional to?
A:
<span data-math="F_c \propto \frac{1}{v}">F_c \propto \frac{1}{v}</span>
B:
<span data-math="F_c \propto \frac{1}{v^2\!}">F_c \propto \frac{1}{v^2\!}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F_c \propto v">F_c \propto v</span>
D:
<span data-math="F_c \propto v^2">F_c \propto v^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex059

ID: 2469@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.612Z

Question:
What is the physics term for the eye of the storm? Why would winds be weaker at the eye of the tornado than at its outermost edge?
A:
The eye of the storm is the center of rotation. Winds are weaker at the eye of a tornado because tangential velocity is directly proportional to radius of curvature.
B:
The eye of the storm is the center of rotation. Winds are weaker at the eye of a tornado because tangential velocity is inversely proportional to radius of curvature.
C:
The eye of the storm is the center of rotation. Winds are weaker at the eye of a tornado because tangential velocity is directly proportional to the square of the radius of curvature.
D:
The eye of the storm is the center of rotation. Winds are weaker at the eye of a tornado because tangential velocity is inversely proportional to the square of the radius of curvature.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex060

ID: 2470@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.623Z

Question:
If the net torque acting on the ruler from the example was positive instead of zero, what would this say about the angular acceleration? What would happen to the ruler over time?
A:
The ruler is in a state of rotational equilibrium so it will not rotate about its center of mass. Thus, the angular acceleration will be zero.
B:
The ruler is not in a state of rotational equilibrium so it will not rotate about its center of mass. Thus, the angular acceleration will be zero.
C:
The ruler is not in a state of rotational equilibrium so it will rotate about its center of mass. Thus, the angular acceleration will be non-zero.
D:
The ruler is in a state of rotational equilibrium so it will rotate about its center of mass. Thus, the angular acceleration will be non-zero.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex061

ID: 2471@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.634Z

Question:
The figure shows an illustration of a fishing reel. The fishing line has an arrow pointing away from the reel with a Linear or translational qualities label pointing to x, v, and a. The radius of the reel to where the string is labeled r=4.5. The Direction of rotation is labeled with an arrow pointing counterclockwise and a Rotational qualities label pointing to theta, omega, and alpha. A deep-sea fisherman uses a fishing rod with a reel of radius $4.50\,\text{cm}$ . A big fish takes the bait and swims away from the boat, pulling the fishing line from his fishing reel. As the fishing line unwinds from the reel, the reel spins at an angular velocity of $220\,\text{rad/s}$ . The fisherman applies a brake to the spinning reel, with an angular acceleration of $−300 \,\text{rad/s}^2\!$ . How long does it take the reel to come to a stop?
A:
<span data-math="0.733\,\text{s}">0.733\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.36\,\text{s}">1.36\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="80\,\text{s}">80\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="220\,\text{s}">220\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex062

ID: 2472@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.645Z

Question:
The figure shows an illustration of a merry-go-round with a radius of r and a man pushing on a bar on the circumference with an arrow indicating a force of F. To the right of the diagram, it is noted that F is perpendicular to r for maximum alpha. Consider the father pushing a playground merry-go-round in CNX_HSPhysics_06_03_MerryGo. He exerts a force of $250\,\text{N}$ at the edge of the merry-go-round, which has a $1.50\,\text{m}$ radius. How much torque does he produce? Assume that friction acting on the merry-go-round is negligible.
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}">0\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="166.6\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}">166.6\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="250\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}">250\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="375\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}">375\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex063

ID: 2473@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.657Z

Question:
How much torque does a person produce if he applies a $12\,\text{N}$ force $1.0\,\text{m}$ away from the pivot point, perpendicularly to the lever arm?
A:
<span data-math="\frac{1}{144}\,\text{N}">\frac{1}{144}\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\frac{1}{12}\,\text{N}">\frac{1}{12}\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="12\,\text{N}">12\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="144\,\text{N}">144\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex064

ID: 2474@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.668Z

Question:
An object’s angular velocity changes from $3\,\text{rad/s}$ clockwise to $8\,\text{rad/s}$ clockwise in $5\,\text{s}$ . What is its angular acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="0.6\,\text{rad/s}^2\!">0.6\,\text{rad/s}^2\!</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.6 \,\text{rad/s}^2\!">1.6 \,\text{rad/s}^2\!</span>
C:
<span data-math="1\,\text{rad/s}^2\!">1\,\text{rad/s}^2\!</span>
D:
<span data-math="5\,\text{rad/s}^2\!">5\,\text{rad/s}^2\!</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex065

ID: 2475@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.680Z

Question:
What is angular acceleration?
A:
Angular acceleration is the rate of change of the angular displacement.
B:
Angular acceleration is the rate of change of the angular velocity.
C:
Angular acceleration is the rate of change of the linear displacement.
D:
Angular acceleration is the rate of change of the linear velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex066

ID: 2476@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.691Z

Question:
What is the equation for angular acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="\alpha = \frac{\Delta\omega}{\Delta t}">\alpha = \frac{\Delta\omega}{\Delta t}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\alpha = \Delta \omega \Delta t">\alpha = \Delta \omega \Delta t</span>
C:
<span data-math="\alpha = \frac{\Delta\theta }{\Delta t}">\alpha = \frac{\Delta\theta }{\Delta t}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\alpha = \Delta \theta \Delta t">\alpha = \Delta \theta \Delta t</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex067

ID: 2477@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.703Z

Question:
What is torque?
A:
Torque is a force that causes the rotation motion.
B:
Torque is a force that causes the linear motion.
C:
Torque is acceleration in the rotational motion.
D:
Torque is acceleration in the linear motion.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex068

ID: 2478@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.714Z

Question:
What is the equation for torque?
A:
<span data-math="\tau = {F\,cos\theta}\,{r}">\tau = {F\,cos\theta}\,{r}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\tau = \frac{F\sin \theta}{r}">\tau = \frac{F\sin \theta}{r}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\tau = rF\!\cos \theta">\tau = rF\!\cos \theta</span>
D:
<span data-math="\tau = rF\!\sin \theta">\tau = rF\!\sin \theta</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex069

ID: 2479@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.726Z

Question:
Conventionally, which direction of angular acceleration is considered positive?
A:
in the positive x direction of the coordinate system
B:
in the negative x direction of the coordinate system
C:
in the counterclockwise direction
D:
in the clockwise direction

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex070

ID: 2480@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.737Z

Question:
When you push a door closer to the hinges, why does it open more slowly?
A:
It opens slowly, because the lever arm is shorter so the torque is large.
B:
It opens slowly because the lever arm is longer so the torque is large.
C:
It opens slowly, because the lever arm is shorter so the torque is less.
D:
It opens slowly, because the lever arm is longer so the torque is less.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex071

ID: 2481@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.748Z

Question:
Consider two spinning tops with different radii. Both have the same linear instantaneous velocities at their edges. Which top has a higher angular velocity?
A:
the top with the smaller radius because the radius of curvature is inversely proportional to the angular velocity
B:
the top with the smaller radius because the radius of curvature is directly proportional to the angular velocity
C:
the top with the larger radius because the radius of curvature is inversely proportional to the angular velocity
D:
The top with the larger radius, because the radius of curvature is directly proportional to the angular velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex072

ID: 2482@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.760Z

Question:
A person tries to lift a stone by using a lever. If the lever arm is constant and the mass of the stone increases, what is true of the torque necessary to lift it?
A:
It increases, because the torque is directly proportional to the mass of the body.
B:
It increases because the torque is inversely proportional to the mass of the body.
C:
It decreases because the torque is directly proportional to the mass of the body.
D:
It decreases, because the torque is inversely proportional to the mass of the body.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex073

ID: 2483@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.771Z

Question:
An object’s angular acceleration is $36\,\text{rad/s}^2$ . If it were initially spinning with a velocity of $6.0\,\text{m/s}$ , what would its angular velocity be after $5.0\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="190\,\text{rad/s}">190\,\text{rad/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="190 \,\text{rad/s}^2">190 \,\text{rad/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="-174\,\text{rad/s}">-174\,\text{rad/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="-174\,\text{rad/s}^2">-174\,\text{rad/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex074

ID: 2484@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.782Z

Question:
When a fan is switched on, it undergoes an angular acceleration of $150\,\text{rad/s}^2\!$ . How long will it take to achieve its maximum angular velocity of $50\,\text{rad/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="-0.3\,\text{s}">-0.3\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-0.3\,\text{s}">-0.3\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.3\,\text{s}">0.3\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.0\,\text{s}">3.0\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex075

ID: 2485@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.794Z

Question:
Which of these quantities is not described by the kinematics of rotational motion?
A:
rotation angle
B:
angular acceleration
C:
centripetal force
D:
angular velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex076

ID: 2486@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.805Z

Question:
In the equation $\tau = rF \sin \theta$ , what is $F$ ?
A:
linear force
B:
centripetal force
C:
angular force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex077

ID: 2487@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.817Z

Question:
What happens when two torques act equally in opposite directions?
A:
Angular velocity is zero.
B:
Angular acceleration is zero.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex078

ID: 2488@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.829Z

Question:
The relationships between which variables are described by the kinematics of rotational motion?
A:
The kinematics of rotational motion describes the relationships between rotation angle, angular velocity, and angular acceleration.
B:
The kinematics of rotational motion describes the relationships between rotation angle, angular velocity, angular acceleration, and angular momentum.
C:
The kinematics of rotational motion describes the relationships between rotation angle, angular velocity, angular acceleration, and time.
D:
The kinematics of rotational motion describes the relationships between rotation angle, angular velocity, angular acceleration, torque and time.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex079

ID: 2489@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.840Z

Question:
What is the kinematics relationship between $\omega$ , $\alpha$ , and $t$ ?
A:
<span data-math="\omega = \alpha t">\omega = \alpha t</span>
B:
<span data-math="\omega = {\omega _0} - \alpha t">\omega = {\omega _0} - \alpha t</span>
C:
<span data-math="\omega = {\omega _0} + \alpha t">\omega = {\omega _0} + \alpha t</span>
D:
<span data-math="\omega = {\omega _0} + \frac{1}{2}\alpha t">\omega = {\omega _0} + \frac{1}{2}\alpha t</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex080

ID: 2490@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.852Z

Question:
What kind of quantity is torque?
A:
scalar
B:
vector
C:
dimensionless
D:
fundamental quantity

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex081

ID: 2491@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.863Z

Question:
If a linear force is applied to a lever arm farther away from the pivot point, what happens to the resultant torque?
A:
It decreases.
B:
It increases.
C:
It remains the same.
D:
It changes the direction.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex082

ID: 2492@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.874Z

Question:
How can the same force applied to a lever produce different torques?
A:
By applying the force at different points of the lever arm along the length of the lever or by changing the angle between the lever arm and the applied force.
B:
By applying the force at the same point of the lever arm along the length of the lever or by changing the angle between the lever arm and the applied force.
C:
By applying the force at different points of the lever arm along the length of the lever or by maintaining the same angle between the lever arm and the applied force.
D:
By applying the force at the same point of the lever arm along the length of the lever or by maintaining the same angle between the lever arm and the applied force.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex083

ID: 2493@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.886Z

Question:
Why do tornadoes produce more wind speed at the bottom of the funnel?
A:
Wind speed is more at the bottom because rate of rotation increases as the radius increases.
B:
Wind speed is more at the bottom because rate of rotation increases as the radius decreases.
C:
Wind speed is more at the bottom because rate of rotation decreases as the radius increases.
D:
Wind speed is more at the bottom because rate of rotation decreases as the radius increases.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ex084

ID: 2494@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.897Z

Question:
How can you maximize the torque applied to a given lever arm without applying more force?
A:
The force should be applied perpendicularly to the lever arm as close as possible from the pivot point.
B:
The force should be applied perpendicularly to the lever arm as far as possible from the pivot point.
C:
The force should be applied parallel to the lever arm as far as possible from the pivot point.
D:
The force should be applied parallel to the lever arm as close as possible from the pivot point.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ex085

ID: 2495@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.909Z

Question:
When will an object continue spinning at the same angular velocity?
A:
when net torque acting on it is zero
B:
when net torque acting on it is non-zero
C:
when angular acceleration is positive
D:
when angular acceleration is negative

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ex086

ID: 2496@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.920Z

Question:
What is the angle in radians between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock showing $6\text{:}00$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{rad}">0\,\text{rad}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\frac{\pi}{2}\,\text{radians}">\frac{\pi}{2}\,\text{radians}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\pi\,\text{rad}">\pi\,\text{rad}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\frac{3\pi}{2}">\frac{3\pi}{2}</span>radians

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot001

ID: 2497@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.932Z

Question:
Calculate the angular speed of a $0.2\,\text{m}$ radius car tire when the car travels at $10\,\text{m/s}$ .
A:
<span data-math="0.02\,\text{rad/s}">0.02\,\text{rad/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2\,\text{rad/s}">2\,\text{rad/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5\,\text{rad/s}">5\,\text{rad/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50\,\text{rad/s}">50\,\text{rad/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot002

ID: 2498@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.943Z

Question:
Calculate the speed of a car that has tires of $0.3\,\text{m}$ radius that are rotating with an angular speed of $20\,\text{rad/s}$ .
A:
<span data-math="0.015\,\text{m/s}">0.015\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="6\,\text{m/s}">6\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="60\,\text{m/s}">60\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="666.67\,\text{m/s}">666.67\,\text{m/s}</span>

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ID: 2499@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.955Z

Question:
What is the radius of an object rotating with an angular velocity of $12\,\text{rad/s}$ and that rolls with a linear velocity of $25\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.48\,\text{rad}">0.48\,\text{rad}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.48\,\text{m}">0.48\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.1\,\text{rad}">2.1\,\text{rad}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.1\,\text{m}">2.1\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot004

ID: 2500@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.966Z

Question:
What is spin?
A:
Spin is rotational motion of an object about an axis parallel to the axis of the object.
B:
Spin is translational motion of an object about an axis parallel to the axis of the object.
C:
Spin is the rotational motion of an object about its center of mass.
D:
Spin is translational motion of an object about its own axis.

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ID: 2501@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.978Z

Question:
What is a revolution in the context of rotational motion?
A:
A revolution is one complete cycle of rotation in a translational motion.
B:
A revolution is two complete cycles of rotation in a translational motion.
C:
A revolution is one complete cycle of rotation in a rotational motion.
D:
A revolution is two complete cycles of rotation in a rotational motion.

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ID: 2502@1

2015-08-20T13:11:37.990Z

Question:
What are two examples of spin?
A:
a moving car on a road, and a Ferris wheel spinning
B:
a moving car on a road, and an object rotating about its own axis
C:
a Ferris wheel spinning, and an object rotating about its own axis
D:
an object rotating about its center of mass, and a moving car on a road

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ID: 2503@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.001Z

Question:
What is the relationship between rotational angle, arc length, and the radius of curvature?
A:
<span data-math="\Delta\theta = \frac{\Delta s}{r}">\Delta\theta = \frac{\Delta s}{r}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\Delta\theta = \frac{\Delta s}{\Delta r}">\Delta\theta = \frac{\Delta s}{\Delta r}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\Delta \theta = \frac{\Delta r}{s}">\Delta \theta = \frac{\Delta r}{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\Delta\theta = \frac{\Delta r}{\Delta s}">\Delta\theta = \frac{\Delta r}{\Delta s}</span>

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ID: 2504@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.013Z

Question:
What is tangential velocity in terms of an arc length?
A:
<span data-math="v = \frac{\Delta s}{\Delta r}">v = \frac{\Delta s}{\Delta r}</span>
B:
<span data-math="v = \frac{\Delta r}{\Delta s}">v = \frac{\Delta r}{\Delta s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="v = \frac{\Delta s}{\Delta t}">v = \frac{\Delta s}{\Delta t}</span>
D:
<span data-math="v = \frac{\Delta t}{\Delta s}">v = \frac{\Delta t}{\Delta s}</span>

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ID: 2505@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.024Z

Question:
How can you describe tangential speed in terms of angular speed?
A:
<span data-math="v = r\omega">v = r\omega</span>
B:
<span data-math="v = \frac{\omega}{r}">v = \frac{\omega}{r}</span>
C:
<span data-math="v = \frac{r}{\omega}">v = \frac{r}{\omega}</span>
D:
<span data-math="v = r{\omega^2\!}">v = r{\omega^2\!}</span>

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ID: 2506@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.035Z

Question:
You are driving a truck with larger than standard tires. Your speedometer reads that you are traveling at the posted speed limit of $45\,\text{mph}$ . However, an officer gives you a ticket for speeding. Why might this have happened?
A:
Velocity is inversely proportional to the radius; that is, <span data-math="v = r\omega">v = r\omega</span>. Therefore, larger radii tires make the truck go faster.
B:
Velocity is inversely proportional to the radius, that is, <span data-math="v = \frac{\omega}{r}">v = \frac{\omega}{r}</span>. Therefore, larger radii tires make the truck go faster.
C:
Velocity is directly proportional to the radius, that is, <span data-math="v = r\omega">v = r\omega</span>. Therefore, larger radii tires make the truck go faster.
D:
Velocity is directly proportional to the radius, that is, <span data-math="v = \frac{\omega}{r}">v = \frac{\omega}{r}</span>. Therefore, larger radii tires make the car go faster.

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ID: 2507@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.046Z

Question:
What type of quantity is angular velocity?
A:
Angular velocity has direction as well as magnitude, therefore, it is a scalar quantity.
B:
Angular velocity has magnitude but no direction, therefore, it is a vector quantity.
C:
Angular velocity has magnitude but no direction, therefore, it is a scalar quantity.
D:
Angular velocity has direction as well as magnitude, therefore, it is a vector quantity.

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ID: 2508@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.063Z

Question:
What is $30^\circ\!$ in radians?
A:
<span data-math="\frac{\pi}{12}">\frac{\pi}{12}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\frac{\pi}{9}">\frac{\pi}{9}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\frac{\pi}{6}">\frac{\pi}{6}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\frac{\pi}{3}">\frac{\pi}{3}</span>

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot013

ID: 2509@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.069Z

Question:
What is $\pi$ radians in degrees?
A:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="180^\circ">180^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="270^\circ">270^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="360^\circ">360^\circ</span>

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ID: 2510@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.081Z

Question:
In what direction is the angular velocity of the hour hand of a clock that is facing you?
A:
away from you
B:
toward you
C:
to your left
D:
to your right

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot015

ID: 2511@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.093Z

Question:
What are the units of angular velocity?
A:
Meters per second or degrees per second
B:
Radians per second
C:
Radians per second or meters per second
D:
Meters per second or kilometers per second

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ID: 2512@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.105Z

Question:
For a given object, what happens to the arc length as the angle of rotation increases?
A:
The arc length is directly proportional to the angle of rotation, so it increases with the angle of rotation.
B:
The arc length is inversely proportional to the angle of rotation, so it decreases with the angle of rotation.
C:
The arc length is directly proportional to the angle of rotation, so it decreases with the angle of rotation.
D:
The arc length is inversely proportional to the angle of rotation, so it increases with the angle of rotation.

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ID: 2513@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.117Z

Question:
Suppose a person on earth walks $50\,\text{km}$ and a person on the moon also walks $50\,\text{km}$ . Who would have covered a greater angle of rotation with respect to the center of the planet or moon?
A:
The person on the moon, because the radius of the moon is smaller than the radius of Earth.
B:
The person on the moon, because radius of the moon is greater than the radius of Earth.
C:
The person on Earth, because radius of Earth is smaller than the radius of the moon.
D:
The person on Earth, because radius of Earth is greater than the radius of the moon.

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dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot018

ID: 2514@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.128Z

Question:
Suppose an object spins at an angular velocity of $25\,\text{rev/s}$ . What is its angular velocity in $\text{rad/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="1">1</span> revolution = <span data-math="\pi">\pi</span> radians. Therefore, the angular velocity is <span data-math="25 \pi\,\text{rad/s}">25 \pi\,\text{rad/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1">1</span> revolution = <span data-math="2\pi\,\text{rad}">2\pi\,\text{rad}</span>. Therefore, the angular velocity is <span data-math="50\pi\,\text{rad/s}">50\pi\,\text{rad/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1">1</span> revolution = <span data-math="\pi\,\text{rad}">\pi\,\text{rad}</span>. Therefore, the angular velocity is <span data-math="25\pi{\,}^\circ\text{/s}">25\pi{\,}^\circ\text{/s}</span>.
D:
<span data-math="1">1</span> revolution = <span data-math="2\pi\,\text{rad}">2\pi\,\text{rad}</span>. Therefore, the angular velocity is <span data-math="50 \pi{\,}^\circ\text{/s}">50 \pi{\,}^\circ\text{/s}</span>

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dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot019

ID: 2515@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.139Z

Question:
Suppose an object spins with an angular velocity of $8\text{,}364\,^\circ/\text{s}$ . How many revolutions will it complete in one second?
A:
<span data-math="1">1</span> revolution = <span data-math="90^\circ\!">90^\circ\!</span>. Therefore, there are <span data-math="92.93\,\text{rev/s}">92.93\,\text{rev/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1">1</span> revolution = <span data-math="180^\circ\!">180^\circ\!</span>. Therefore, there are <span data-math="46.46\,\text{rev/s}">46.46\,\text{rev/s}</span>.
C:
<span data-math="1">1</span> revolution = <span data-math="270^\circ\!">270^\circ\!</span>. Therefore, there are <span data-math="30.97\,\text{rev/s}">30.97\,\text{rev/s}</span>.
D:
<span data-math="1">1</span> revolution = <span data-math="360^\circ\!">360^\circ\!</span>. Therefore, there are <span data-math="23.23\,\text{rev/s}">23.23\,\text{rev/s}</span>.

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dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot020

ID: 2516@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.151Z

Question:
Two blades on a fan form an angle of $120^\circ\!$ with each other. If the arc length separating the two is $0.50\,\text{m}$ , what is the diameter of the fan?
A:
<span data-math="0.04\,\text{m}">0.04\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.08\,\text{m}">0.08\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.48\,\text{m}">2.48\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.78\,\text{m}">4.78\,\text{m}</span>

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display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot021

ID: 2517@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.168Z

Question:
What is the angular speed of an object that completes $12$ revolutions in $35$ seconds?
A:
<span data-math="2.2\,\text{rad/s}">2.2\,\text{rad/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.3\,\text{rad/s}">4.3\,\text{rad/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.2\,\text{rad/s}">9.2\,\text{rad/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="18.3\,\text{rad/s}">18.3\,\text{rad/s}</span>

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display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot022

ID: 2518@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.180Z

Question:
A tire of a trolley has radius $0.10\,\text{m}$ . The surface of the tire has a linear velocity of $1.2\,\text{m/s}$ . What is the tire’s angular speed?
A:
<span data-math="0.12\,\text{rad/s}">0.12\,\text{rad/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.12^\circ\text{/s}">0.12^\circ\text{/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="12\,\text{rad/s}">12\,\text{rad/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="12\circ\text{/s}">12\circ\text{/s}</span>

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ID: 2519@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.186Z

Question:
A disc spins at the rate of $200$ revolutions per minute. What is the linear speed of a point $2\,\text{cm}$ away from the center?
A:
<span data-math="0.4\,\text{m/s}">0.4\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.0\,\text{m/s}">4.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="6.6\,\text{m/s}">6.6\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="41.9\,\text{m/s}">41.9\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s01 k12phys-ch06-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot024

ID: 2520@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.203Z

Question:
What is the speed of an object with a centripetal acceleration of $64\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ going along a path of radius $3.0\,\text{m}$ ? Assume the speed to be constant.
A:
<span data-math="\pm 14\,\text{m/s}">\pm 14\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\pm 14\,{m/s}^2">\pm 14\,{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="192\,\text{m/s}">192\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="192\,\text{m/s}^2">192\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

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ID: 2521@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.215Z

Question:
A wheel of a car has a speed of $6\,\text{m/s}$ and a centripetal acceleration of $4\,\text{m/s}^2$ . What is its radius?
A:
<span data-math="1.50\,\text{m}">1.50\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.25\,\text{m}">2.25\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.0\,\text{m}">9.0\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="24.0\,\text{m}">24.0\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2522@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.226Z

Question:
What is the angular velocity of an object moving along a radius of $300\,\text{m}$ , having a centripetal acceleration of $50\,\text{m/s}^2$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.17\,\text{m/s}">0.17\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\pm\,0.17\,\text{rad/s}">\pm\,0.17\,\text{rad/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.41\,\text{m/s}">0.41\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\pm\,0.41\,\text{rad/s}">\pm\,0.41\,\text{rad/s}</span>

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time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot027

ID: 2523@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.237Z

Question:
Calculate the centripetal force exerted on a $1500\,\text{kg}$ car that rounds a $200\,\text{m}$ radius curve at $15.0\,\text{m/s}$ .
A:
<span data-math="9\,\text{N}">9\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="113\,\text{N}">113\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1334\,\text{N}">1334\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1690\,\text{N}">1690\,\text{N}</span>

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time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot028

ID: 2524@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.248Z

Question:
What is meant by the word centripetal?
A:
center-seeking
B:
center-avoiding
C:
central force
D:
central acceleration

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot029

ID: 2525@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.259Z

Question:
Does the speed of an object in uniform circular motion change?
A:
Yes, because speed is constant in the uniform circular motion.
B:
Yes, because speed is not constant in the uniform circular motion.
C:
No, because speed is constant in the uniform circular motion.
D:
No, because speed is not constant in the uniform circular motion.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot030

ID: 2526@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.270Z

Question:
What is the equation for centripetal acceleration in terms of tangential velocity?
A:
<span data-math="{a_c} = \frac{v^2\!}{r}">{a_c} = \frac{v^2\!}{r}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{a_c} = \frac{v}{r}">{a_c} = \frac{v}{r}</span>
C:
<span data-math="{a_c} = r{v^2\!}">{a_c} = r{v^2\!}</span>
D:
<span data-math="{a_c} = rv">{a_c} = rv</span>

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ID: 2527@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.276Z

Question:
What is the direction of acceleration of an object in uniform circular motion?
A:
The acceleration is directed toward the center of rotation.
B:
The acceleration is directed radially outwards from the center of rotation.
C:
The acceleration is directed tangentially along the circular path of the object.
D:
The acceleration is directed tangentially along the circular path, in the direction opposite the motion of the object.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot032

ID: 2528@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.287Z

Question:
What is a centripetal force?
A:
Centripetal force is a force that causes centripetal acceleration.
B:
Centripetal force is a force that causes a tangential acceleration.
C:
Centripetal force is a force that causes a centripetal velocity.
D:
Centripetal force is a force that causes a tangential velocity.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot033

ID: 2529@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.298Z

Question:
What is the direction of a centripetal force?
A:
The centripetal force is directed toward the center of rotation.
B:
The centripetal force is directed radially outwards from the center of rotation.
C:
The centripetal force is directed tangentially along the circular path of the object.
D:
The centripetal force is directed tangential to the circular path of the object and in the direction opposite the object’s motion.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot034

ID: 2530@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.310Z

Question:
How can you express a centripetal force in terms of angular velocity?
A:
<span data-math="{F_c} = m\frac{v^2\!}{r}">{F_c} = m\frac{v^2\!}{r}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{F_c} = m\frac{v}{r}">{F_c} = m\frac{v}{r}</span>
C:
<span data-math="{F_c} = mr{\omega^2\!}">{F_c} = mr{\omega^2\!}</span>
D:
<span data-math="{F_c} = mr\omega">{F_c} = mr\omega</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot035

ID: 2531@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.327Z

Question:
How can you express the radius of a curvature in terms of a centripetal force and a tangential velocity?
A:
<span data-math="r = \frac{F_cv}{m}">r = \frac{F_cv}{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="r = \frac{{F_c}{v^2}}{m}">r = \frac{{F_c}{v^2}}{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="r = \frac{mv}{F_c}">r = \frac{mv}{F_c}</span>
D:
<span data-math="r = \frac{m{v^2\!}}{F_c}">r = \frac{m{v^2\!}}{F_c}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot036

ID: 2532@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.332Z

Question:
What happens to centripetal acceleration as the radius of curvature decreases and the speed is constant?
A:
It increases, because the centripetal acceleration is inversely proportional to the radius of the curvature.
B:
It increases, because the centripetal acceleration is directly proportional to the radius of curvature.
C:
It decreases, because the centripetal acceleration is inversely proportional to the radius of the curvature.
D:
It decreases, because the centripetal acceleration is directly proportional to the radius of the curvature.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot037

ID: 2533@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.344Z

Question:
What happens to centripetal acceleration as angular velocity increases?
A:
It increases, because the centripetal acceleration is directly proportional to angular velocity.
B:
It increases, because the centripetal acceleration is inversely proportional to angular velocity.
C:
It decreases, because the centripetal acceleration is directly proportional to angular velocity.
D:
It decreases, because the centripetal acceleration is inversely proportional to angular velocity.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot038

ID: 2534@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.470Z

Question:
What is the difference between speed and velocity with regards to uniform circular motion?
A:
Speed is constant whereas the velocity changes.
B:
Velocity is constant whereas the speed changes.
C:
Speed and velocity both remain constant in uniform circular motion.
D:
Velocity and speed both change in uniform circular motion.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot039

ID: 2535@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.483Z

Question:
Why do we experience more sideways acceleration while driving around sharper curves?
A:
Centripetal acceleration is inversely proportional to the radius of curvature, so it increases as the radius of curvature decreases.
B:
Centripetal acceleration is directly proportional to the radius of curvature, so it decreases as the radius of curvature decreases.
C:
Centripetal acceleration is directly proportional to the radius of curvature, so it decreases as the radius of curvature increases.
D:
Centripetal acceleration is directly proportional to the radius of curvature, so it increases as the radius of curvature increases.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot040

ID: 2536@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.490Z

Question:
An object is in uniform circular motion. If you double its speed, how would the centripetal acceleration change?
A:
It would be <span data-math="\frac{1}{4}">\frac{1}{4}</span> times the original acceleration.
B:
It would be <span data-math="\frac{1}{2}">\frac{1}{2}</span> times the original acceleration.
C:
It would be <span data-math="2">2</span> times the original acceleration.
D:
It would be <span data-math="4">4</span> times the original acceleration.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot041

ID: 2537@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.502Z

Question:
An object is in uniform circular motion. If you reduce the radius of curvature by half, how would the centripetal acceleration change?
A:
It would be <span data-math="\frac{1}{4}">\frac{1}{4}</span> times the original acceleration.
B:
It would be <span data-math="\frac{1}{2}">\frac{1}{2}</span> times the original acceleration.
C:
It would be <span data-math="2">2</span> times the original acceleration.
D:
It would be <span data-math="4">4</span> times the original acceleration.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot042

ID: 2538@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.514Z

Question:
Suppose you have a tetherball tied to a rope and are rotating it in uniform circular motion. If you applied more force, would the angular velocity increase or decrease?
A:
The angular velocity would increase, because it is directly proportional to the applied force.
B:
The angular velocity would increase, because it is inversely proportional to the applied force.
C:
The angular velocity would decrease, because it is directly proportional to the applied force.
D:
The angular velocity would decrease, because it is inversely proportional to the applied force.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot043

ID: 2539@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.531Z

Question:
Suppose you are rotating a tetherball tied to a rope in uniform circular motion. If you increased the mass of the ball, would you need more force or less force to achieve the same speed?
A:
More force, because force is directly proportional to the mass of the rotating body.
B:
More force, because force is inversely proportional to the mass of the rotating body.
C:
Less force, because force is directly proportional to the mass of the rotating body.
D:
Less force, because force is inversely proportional to the mass of the rotating body.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot044

ID: 2540@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.537Z

Question:
What is the centripetal force exerted on a $5.00\,\text{kg}$ object that moves along a $10.0\,\text{m}$ radius curve at an angular velocity of $36.0\,\text{rad/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="18\,\text{N}">18\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="648\,\text{N}">648\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1800\,\text{N}">1800\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="64,800\,\text{N}">64,800\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot045

ID: 2541@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.549Z

Question:
The centripetal force exerted on a $2.0\,\text{kg}$ object moving along a circular path of radius $3.0\,\text{m}$ is $12\,\text{N}$ . What is the magnitude of its velocity?
A:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{m/s}">0.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.7\,\text{m/s}">0.7\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="4.2\,\text{m/s}">4.2\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="18.0\,\text{m/s}">18.0\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot046

ID: 2542@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.566Z

Question:
The centripetal acceleration of a $3.0\,\text{kg}$ object is $9.0\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . What is the centripetal force it experiences? Compare this with the centripetal force experienced by a second $6.00\,\text{kg}$ object traveling along a path of radius $10.0\,\text{m}$ with an angular velocity of $15.0\,\text{rad/s}$ . Which force is greater?
A:
The centripetal force acting on the mass <span data-math="3\,\text{kg}">3\,\text{kg}</span> and <span data-math="6\,\text{kg}">6\,\text{kg}</span> are <span data-math="27\,\text{N}">27\,\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="900\,\text{N}">900\,\text{N}</span>, respectively. The mass <span data-math="6\,\text{kg}">6\,\text{kg}</span> experiences the greater force.
B:
The centripetal force acting on the mass <span data-math="3\,\text{kg}">3\,\text{kg}</span> and <span data-math="6\,\text{kg}">6\,\text{kg}</span> are <span data-math="27\,\text{N}">27\,\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="13,500\,\text{N}">13,500\,\text{N}</span> respectively. The mass <span data-math="6\,\text{kg}">6\,\text{kg}</span> experiences the greater force.
C:
The centripetal force acting on the mass <span data-math="3\,\text{kg}">3\,\text{kg}</span> and <span data-math="6\,\text{kg}">6\,\text{kg}</span> are <span data-math="243\,\text{N}">243\,\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="900\,\text{N}">900\,\text{N}</span>, respectively. The mass <span data-math="6\,\text{kg}">6\,\text{kg}</span> experiences the greater force.
D:
The centripetal force acting on the mass <span data-math="3\,\text{kg}">3\,\text{kg}</span> and <span data-math="6\,\text{kg}">6\,\text{kg}</span> are <span data-math="243\,\text{N}">243\,\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="13500\,\text{N}">13500\,\text{N}</span>, respectively. The mass <span data-math="6\,\text{kg}">6\,\text{kg}</span> experiences the greater force.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot047

ID: 2543@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.577Z

Question:
A tennis player hits a ball with a racquet. The length of the player’s arm plus racquet is $1.3\,\text{m}$ . The angle of rotation is $90^\circ\!$ . The swing takes a total of $0.50\,\text{s}$ . What is the acceleration of the tip of the racquet?
A:
<span data-math="4.1\,\text{m/s}^2">4.1\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="13\,\text{m/s}^2">13\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="117\,\text{m/s}^2">117\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="10,530\,\text{m/s}^2">10,530\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s02 k12phys-ch06-s02-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot048

ID: 2544@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.583Z

Question:
How much force must a person apply to produce a torque of $20\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}$ , if he applies it $2.5\,\text{m}$ from the pivot point, perpendicular to the lever arm?
A:
<span data-math="3.2\,\text{N}">3.2\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="8.0\,\text{N}">8.0\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="50\,\text{N}">50\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="125\,\text{N}">125\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot049

ID: 2545@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.603Z

Question:
A person applies a $30\,\text{N}$ force $30^\circ\!$ to the lever arm and achieves a torque of $10\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}$ . What is the length of the lever arm?
A:
<span data-math="0.39\,\text{N}">0.39\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.67\,\text{N}">0.67\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.50\,\text{N}">1.50\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.58\,\text{N}">2.58\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot050

ID: 2546@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.615Z

Question:
A person pushes at a $0.5\text{m}$ wide door and makes its edge accelerate at $3\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . What is its angular acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="1.5\,\text{m/s}^2">1.5\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.5\,\text{rad/s}^2">1.5\,\text{rad/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="6\,\text{m/s}^2">6\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="6\,\text{rad/s}^2">6\,\text{rad/s}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot051

ID: 2547@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.626Z

Question:
A car wheel with a radius of $0.3\,\text{m}$ is spinning with an angular velocity of $90\,\text{rad/s}$ . The driver applies brakes with an angular acceleration of $−30\,\text{rad/s}^2\!$ . How long does it take the car to come to a stop?
A:
<span data-math="0.3\,\text{s}">0.3\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.9\,\text{s}">0.9\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1\,\text{s}">1\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3\,\text{s}">3\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot052

ID: 2548@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.632Z

Question:
What are the standard units of angular acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}">\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{m/s}^2">\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{rad/s}">\text{rad/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{rad/s}^2">\text{rad/s}^2</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot053

ID: 2549@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.644Z

Question:
When is angular acceleration negative?
A:
Angular acceleration is the rate of change of the displacement and is negative when <span data-math="\omega">\omega</span> increases.
B:
Angular acceleration is the rate of change of the displacement and is negative when <span data-math="\omega">\omega</span> decreases.
C:
Angular acceleration is the rate of change of angular velocity and is negative when <span data-math="\omega">\omega</span> increases.
D:
Angular acceleration is the rate of change of angular velocity and is negative when <span data-math="\omega">\omega</span> decreases.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot054

ID: 2550@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.655Z

Question:
How can an object rotating clockwise have a positive angular acceleration?
A:
The clockwise rotation of an object produces negative angular velocity. Therefore, when the object is speeding up and rotating clockwise, the angular acceleration is positive.
B:
The clockwise rotation of an object produces negative angular velocity. Therefore, when the object is slowing down and rotating clockwise, the angular acceleration is positive.
C:
The clockwise rotation of an object produces positive angular velocity. Therefore, when the object is speeding up and rotating clockwise, the angular acceleration is positive.
D:
The clockwise rotation of an object produces positive angular velocity. Therefore, when the object is slowing down and rotating clockwise, the angular acceleration is positive.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot055

ID: 2551@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.673Z

Question:
How can object rotating counterclockwise have a positive angular acceleration?
A:
The counterclockwise rotation of an object produces negative angular velocity. Therefore, when the object is speeding up and rotating counterclockwise, the angular acceleration is positive.
B:
The counterclockwise rotation of an object produces negative angular velocity. Therefore, when the object is slowing down and rotating counterclockwise, the angular acceleration is positive.
C:
The counterclockwise rotation of an object produces positive angular velocity. Therefore, when the object is speeding up and rotating counterclockwise, the angular acceleration is positive.
D:
The counterclockwise rotation of an object produces positive angular velocity. Therefore, when the object is slowing down and rotating counterclockwise, the angular acceleration is positive.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot056

ID: 2552@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.685Z

Question:
What are the units of torque?
A:
<span data-math="\text{N}">\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{N}\cdot\text{m}">\text{N}\cdot\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{N/m}">\text{N/m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{m}">\text{m}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot057

ID: 2553@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.691Z

Question:
If a linear force applied to a lever arm increases, what happens to the torque?
A:
It decreases, because torque is inversely proportional to the applied linear force.
B:
It decreases, because torque is directly proportional to the applied linear force.
C:
It increases, because torque is inversely proportional to the applied linear force.
D:
It increases, because torque is directly proportional to the applied linear force.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot058

ID: 2554@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.703Z

Question:
At what angle should force be applied to a lever arm to achieve maximum torque?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="45^\circ">45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="180^\circ">180^\circ</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot059

ID: 2555@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.720Z

Question:
At what angle should force be applied to a lever arm to achieve minimum torque?
A:
<span data-math="0^\circ">0^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="30^\circ">30^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="60^\circ">60^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="90^\circ">90^\circ</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot060

ID: 2556@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.726Z

Question:
What is the mathematical relationship between angular and linear accelerations?
A:
<span data-math="a = r\alpha">a = r\alpha</span>
B:
<span data-math="a = \frac{\alpha}{r}">a = \frac{\alpha}{r}</span>
C:
<span data-math="a = {r^2}\alpha">a = {r^2}\alpha</span>
D:
<span data-math="a = \frac{\alpha}{r^2\!}">a = \frac{\alpha}{r^2\!}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot061

ID: 2557@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.743Z

Question:
How can you express rotation angle in terms of initial angular velocity and angular acceleration?
A:
<span data-math="\theta = {\omega _0}t + \frac{1}{2} \alpha {t^2}">\theta = {\omega _0}t + \frac{1}{2} \alpha {t^2}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\theta = {\omega _0}t + \alpha t">\theta = {\omega _0}t + \alpha t</span>
C:
<span data-math="\theta = {\omega _0}t + \frac{1}{2}\alpha {t^2}">\theta = {\omega _0}t + \frac{1}{2}\alpha {t^2}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\theta = {\omega _0}t + \alpha {t^2\!}">\theta = {\omega _0}t + \alpha {t^2\!}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot062

ID: 2558@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.755Z

Question:
What is meant by lever arm?
A:
Lever arm is the perpendicular distance between the pivot point and the line of action of an applied force.
B:
Lever arm is the arc length of the circular rotation performed by the object in rotational motion.
C:
Lever arm is the angle of rotation of the object about a point in a rotational motion.
D:
Lever arm is the area covered by the arm length of the rotating body about a point in the rotational motion.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot063

ID: 2559@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.767Z

Question:
In the equation $\tau = rF \sin \theta$ , what is $\theta$ ?
A:
Angle of rotation, that is, angular displacement
B:
Angle between the vector r and the vector F
C:
Angle between the vector r and the vector <span data-math="\tau">\tau</span>
D:
Angle between the vector F and the vector <span data-math="\tau">\tau</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot064

ID: 2560@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.778Z

Question:
For a given radius, what happens to the angular acceleration as linear acceleration increases?
A:
decreases
B:
increases
C:
remains constant
D:
becomes zero

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch06-ot065

ID: 2561@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.784Z

Question:
A force is applied $1\,\text{m}$ away from the pivot point on a lever arm and it produces torque. How much force would have to be applied to produce the same amount of torque if it were applied $4\,\text{m}$ from the pivot point? Assume that both forces are applied perpendicularly to the lever arm.
A:
four times the initial force
B:
four units more than initial force
C:
one fourth of the initial force
D:
same as the initial force

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot066

ID: 2562@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.802Z

Question:
What is the difference between linear force and torque?
A:
Linear force is a vector while torque is a scalar quantity.
B:
Linear force is a scalar while torque is a vector quantity.
C:
Linear force can cause rotational motion whereas torque can cause motion in a straight line.
D:
Linear force can cause motion in straight line whereas torque can cause rotational motion.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch06-ot067

ID: 2563@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.814Z

Question:
A wheel rotates at an angular velocity of $30\,\text{rad/s}$ . If an acceleration of $26\,\text{rad/s}^2\!$ is applied to it, what will its angular velocity be after $5.0\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="-160\,\text{rad/s}">-160\,\text{rad/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="30\,\text{rad/s}">30\,\text{rad/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="56\,\text{rad/s}">56\,\text{rad/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="160\,\text{rad/s}">160\,\text{rad/s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot068

ID: 2564@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.820Z

Question:
When a fan is switched on, it achieves an angular acceleration of $250\,\text{rad/s}^2\!$ . What will its angular velocity be after $1.2\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="208\,\text{rad/s}">208\,\text{rad/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="250\,\text{rad/s}">250\,\text{rad/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="251\,\text{rad/s}">251\,\text{rad/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="300\,\text{rad/s}">300\,\text{rad/s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot069

ID: 2565@2

2015-08-27T19:43:53.013Z

Question:
A fan is spinning at a speed of $120\,\text{rad/s}$ . When it is switched off, it accelerates at a rate of $−20\,\text{rad/s}^2\!$ . After how long will it come to a halt?
A:
<span data-math="6\,\text{s}">6\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="57.3\,\text{s}">57.3\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="100\,\text{s}">100\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="140\,\text{s}">140\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot070

ID: 2566@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.842Z

Question:
A giant Ferris wheel is spinning at $70\,\text{rad/s}$ . It is switched off and accelerates at the rate of $−10\,\text{rad/s}^2\!$ . How many revolutions will it complete in $3.0\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="32">32</span>
B:
<span data-math="103">103</span>
C:
<span data-math="191">191</span>
D:
<span data-math="200">200</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch06 k12phys-ch06-s03 k12phys-ch06-s03-lo03 k12phys-ch06-ot071

ID: 2567@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.853Z

Question:
True or False: The string and pin method create an ellipse that conforms to Kepler’s second law because the part of the loop that is not between the foci must maintain a constant distance, which is the criterion for an ellipse, and elliptical orbits conform to Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex001

ID: 2568@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.865Z

Question:
Explain why Earth does actually appear to be the center of the solar system.
A:
The Earth appears to be the center of the solar system because the Earth is at the center of the universe, and everything revolves around it in a circular orbit.
B:
The Earth appears to be the center of the solar system because, in the reference frame of the Earth, the Sun, Moon, and planets all appear to move across the sky as if they were circling the Earth.
C:
The Earth appears to be at the center of the solar system because the Earth is at the center of the solar system and all the heavenly bodies revolve around it.
D:
The Earth appears to be at the center of the solar system because the Earth is located at one of the foci of the elliptical orbit of the Sun, Moon, and other planets.

Tags:

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ID: 2569@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.876Z

Question:
When the central object is off center, how does the speed of the orbiting object vary?
A:
The orbiting object moves fastest when it is closest to the central object and slowest when it is farthest away.
B:
The orbiting object moves slowest when it is closest to the central object and fastest when it is farthest away.
C:
The orbiting object moves with the same speed at every point on the circumference of the elliptical orbit.
D:
There is no relationship between the speed of the object and the location of the planet on the circumference of the orbit.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex003

ID: 2570@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.888Z

Question:
At its closest approach, a moon comes within $200,000\,\text{km}$ of the planet it orbits. At that point, the moon is $300,000\,\text{km}$ from the other focus $f_2$ of its orbit. The planet is at the focus $f_1$ of the moon’s elliptical orbit. How far is the moon from the planet when it is $260,000\,\text{km}$ from $f_2$ ?
A:
<span data-math="100,000\,\text{km}">100,000\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="240,000\,\text{km}">240,000\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="340,000\,\text{km}">340,000\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="360,000\,\text{km}">360,000\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex004

ID: 2571@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.906Z

Question:
The major axis is the length of the ellipse, and the minor axis is the width of the ellipse. The semi-major axis, a, is half the major axis, and the semi-minor axis, b, is half the minor axis. The Earth’s orbit is slightly elliptical, with a semi-major axis of $152,000,000\,\text{km}$ and a semi-minor axis of $147,000,000\,\text{km}$ . If Earth’s period is $365.26\,\text{days}$ , what area does an Earth-to-Sun line sweep past in one day?
A:
<span data-math="1.93\times10^{14}\,\text{km}^2">1.93\times10^{14}\,\text{km}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="7.71\times10^{14}\,\text{km}^2">7.71\times10^{14}\,\text{km}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.80\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2">2.80\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="7.02\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2">7.02\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex005

ID: 2572@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.918Z

Question:
Given that the Moon orbits Earth each $27.3\,\text{days}$ and that it is an average distance of $3.84\times10^8\,\text{m}$ from the center of Earth, calculate the period of an artificial satellite orbiting at an average altitude of $1500\,\text{km}$ above Earth’s surface.
A:
<span data-math="0.16\,\text{h}">0.16\,\text{h}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.93\,\text{h}">1.93\,\text{h}</span>
C:
<span data-math="16.3\,\text{h}">16.3\,\text{h}</span>
D:
<span data-math="49.1\,\text{h}">49.1\,\text{h}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex006

ID: 2573@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.924Z

Question:
A planet with no axial tilt is located in another solar system. It circles its sun in a very elliptical orbit so that the temperature varies greatly throughout the year. If the year there has $612\,\text{days}$ and the inhabitants celebrate the coldest day on day 1 of their calendar, when is the warmest day?
A:
day 1
B:
day 153
C:
day 306
D:
Day 459

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex007

ID: 2574@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.936Z

Question:
A geosynchronous Earth satellite is one that has an orbital period of precisely 1 day. Such orbits are useful for communication and weather observation because the satellite remains above the same point on Earth (provided it orbits in the equatorial plane in the same direction as Earth’s rotation). The ratio $\frac{r^3}{T^2}$ for the moon is $1.01\times10^{18}\,\frac{\text{km}^3}{y^2}$ . Calculate the radius of the orbit of such a satellite.
A:
<span data-math="2.75\times10^3\,\text{km}">2.75\times10^3\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.96\times10^4\,\text{km}">1.96\times10^4\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.40\times10^5\,\text{km}">1.40\times10^5\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.00\times10^6\,\text{km}">1.00\times10^6\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex008

ID: 2575@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.952Z

Question:
Are Kepler’s laws purely descriptive, or do they contain causal information?
A:
Kepler’s laws are purely descriptive.
B:
Kepler’s laws are purely causal.
C:
Kepler’s laws are descriptive as well as causal.
D:
Kepler’s laws are neither descriptive nor causal.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex009

ID: 2576@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.964Z

Question:
True or false: According to Kepler’s laws of planetary motion, a satellite increases its speed as it approaches its parent body and decreases its speed as it moves away from the parent body.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex010

ID: 2577@1

2015-08-20T13:11:38.981Z

Question:
A circle is a special case of an ellipse. Explain how a circle is different from other ellipses.
A:
The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located at the center of the circle.
B:
The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located at the circumference of the circle.
C:
The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located outside of the circle.
D:
The foci of a circle are at the same point and are located anywhere on the diameter.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex011

ID: 2578@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.004Z

Question:
A planet's orbit around the Sun is shown. The planet has a mass of lower case m and an angular velocity of V. The Sun has a mass of upper case M. 3 areas (A1, A2, and A3) are between ellipse points A to B, C to D, and E to F, respectively. Compare the areas $A_1$ , $A_2$ , and $A_3$ .
A:
<span data-math="A_1 \neq A_2 \neq A_3">A_1 \neq A_2 \neq A_3</span>
B:
<span data-math="A_1 = A_2 = A_3">A_1 = A_2 = A_3</span>
C:
<span data-math="A_1 = A_2 > A_3">A_1 = A_2 > A_3</span>
D:
<span data-math="A_1 > A_2 = A_3">A_1 > A_2 = A_3</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex012

ID: 2579@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.016Z

Question:
The closest Earth comes to the Sun is $1.47\times10^8\,\text{km}$ , and Earth’s farthest distance from the Sun is $1.52\times10^8\,\text{km}$ . What is the area inside Earth’s orbit?
A:
<span data-math="2.23\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2">2.23\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="6.79\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2">6.79\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.02 \times 10^{16} \,\text{km}^2">7.02 \times 10^{16} \,\text{km}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="7.26\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2">7.26\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-6 k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex013

ID: 2580@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.027Z

Question:
Earth is $1.496\times10^8\,\text{km}$ from the Sun, and Neptune is $4.490\times10^9\,\text{km}$ from the Sun. One day on Neptune is $1.61$ Earth-hours long. How many days are in a Neptune year?
A:
<span data-math="192\,\text{d}">192\,\text{d}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3281\,\text{d}">3281\,\text{d}</span>
C:
<span data-math="4610\,\text{d}">4610\,\text{d}</span>
D:
<span data-math="90,005\,\text{d}">90,005\,\text{d}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex014

ID: 2581@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.039Z

Question:
Planet m circles sun M in an elliptical orbit with one focus, $f_1$ , at M and the other at $f_2$ . Which distance changes throughout the planet’s orbit?
A:
<span data-math="f_1 f_2">f_1 f_2</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{m}\text{M}">\text{m}\text{M}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{M}f_2">\text{M}f_2</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{M}\text{f}_1">\text{M}\text{f}_1</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex015

ID: 2582@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.050Z

Question:
The focal point of the elliptical orbit of a moon is $50,000\,\text{km}$ from the center of the orbit. If the eccentricity of the orbit is $0.25$ , what is the length of the semi-major axis?
A:
<span data-math="12,500\,\text{km}">12,500\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="100,000\,\text{km}">100,000\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="200,000\,\text{km}">200,000\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="400,000\,\text{km}">400,000\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex016

ID: 2583@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.068Z

Question:
Explain how the masses of a satellite and its parent body must compare in order to apply Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.
A:
The mass of the parent body must be much less than that of the satellite.
B:
The mass of the parent body must be much greater than that of the satellite.
C:
The mass of the parent body must be equal to the mass of the satellite.
D:
There is no specific relationship between the masses for applying Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex017

ID: 2584@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.074Z

Question:
Hyperion is a moon of the planet Saturn. Its orbit has an eccentricity of $0.123$ and a semi-major axis of $1.48\times10^6\,\text{km}$ . How far is the center of the orbit from the center of Saturn?
A:
<span data-math="1.82\times10^5\,\text{km}">1.82\times10^5\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.64\times10^5\,\text{km}">3.64\times10^5\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.20\times10^7\,\text{km}">1.20\times10^7\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.41\times10^7\,\text{km}">2.41\times10^7\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex018

ID: 2585@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.086Z

Question:
The orbits of satellites are elliptical. Define an ellipse.
A:
An ellipse is an open curve wherein the sum of the distance from the foci to any point on the curve is constant.
B:
An ellipse is a closed curve wherein the sum of the distance from the foci to any point on the curve is constant.
C:
An ellipse is an open curve wherein the distances from the two foci to any point on the curve are equal.
D:
An ellipse is a closed curve wherein the distances from the two foci to any point on the curve are equal.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex019

ID: 2586@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.103Z

Question:
Mars has two moons, Deimos and Phobos. The orbit of Deimos has a period of $1.26\,\text{days}$ and an average radius of $2.35\times10^3\,\text{km}$ . The average radius of the orbit of Phobos is $9.374\times10^3\,\text{km}$ . According to Kepler’s third law of planetary motion, what is the period of Phobos?
A:
<span data-math="0.16\,\text{d}">0.16\,\text{d}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.50\,\text{d}">0.50\,\text{d}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.17\,\text{d}">3.17\,\text{d}</span>
D:
<span data-math="10.0\,\text{d}">10.0\,\text{d}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex020

ID: 2587@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.109Z

Question:

The orbit of Halley’s Comet has an eccentricity of 0.967 and stretches to the edge of the solar system.

  1. Describe the shape of the comet’s orbit.
  2. Compare the distance traveled per day when it is near the Sun to the distance traveled per day when it is at the edge of the solar system.
  3. Describe variations in the comet’s speed as it completes an orbit. Explain the variations in terms of Kepler’s second law of planetary motion.
A:
<ol> <li>The orbit is circular, with the Sun at the center.</li> <li>The comet travels much farther when it is near the sun than when at the edge of the solar system.</li> <li>The comet decelerates as it approaches the sun and accelerates as it leaves the Sun.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>The orbit is circular, with the Sun at the center.</li> <li>The comet travels much farther when it is near the Sun than when at the edge of the solar system.</li> <li>The comet accelerates as it approaches the Sun and decelerates as it leaves the Sun.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>The orbit is very elongated, with the Sun near one end.</li> <li>The comet travels much farther when it is near the Sun than when at the edge of the solar system.</li> <li>The comet decelerates as it approaches the Sun and accelerates as it moves away from the Sun.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>The orbit is very elongated, with the Sun near one end.</li> <li>The comet travels much farther when it is near the Sun than when at the edge of the solar system.</li> <li>The comet accelerates as it approaches the Sun and decelerates as it moves away from the Sun.</li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex021

ID: 2588@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.126Z

Question:
For convenience, astronomers often use astronomical units ( $\text{AU}$ ) to measure distances within the solar system. One $\text{AU}$ equals the average distance from Earth to the Sun. Halley’s Comet returns once every $75.3\,\text{years}$ . What is the average radius of the orbit of Halley’s Comet in $\text{AU}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.002\,\text{AU}">0.002\,\text{AU}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.056\,\text{AU}">0.056\,\text{AU}</span>
C:
<span data-math="17.8\,\text{AU}">17.8\,\text{AU}</span>
D:
<span data-math="653\,\text{AU}">653\,\text{AU}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex022

ID: 2589@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.138Z

Question:
Why doesn’t the Moon travel in a smooth circle around the Sun?
A:
The Moon is not affected by the gravitational field of the Sun.
B:
The Moon is not affected by the gravitational field of the Earth.
C:
The Moon is affected by the gravitational fields of both the Earth and the Sun, which are always additive.
D:
The moon is affected by the gravitational fields of both the Earth and the Sun, which are sometimes additive and sometimes opposite.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex023

ID: 2590@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.144Z

Question:
Why do some objects fall faster than others if all mass is attracted equally by the force of gravity?
A:
Some objects fall faster because of air resistance, which acts in the direction of the motion of the object and exerts more force on objects with less surface area.
B:
Some objects fall faster because of air resistance, which acts in the direction opposite the motion of the object and exerts more force on objects with less surface area.
C:
Some objects fall faster because of air resistance, which acts in the direction of motion of the object and exerts more force on objects with more surface area.
D:
Some objects fall faster because of air resistance, which acts in the direction opposite the motion of the object and exerts more force on objects with more surface area.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex024

ID: 2591@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.156Z

Question:
According to the general theory of relativity, a gravitational field bends light. What does this have to do with time and space?
A:
Gravity has no effect on the space-time continuum, and gravity only affects the motion of light.
B:
The space-time continuum is distorted by gravity, and gravity has no effect on the motion of light.
C:
Gravity has no effect on either the space-time continuum or on the motion of light.
D:
The space-time continuum is distorted by gravity, and gravity affects the motion of light.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex025

ID: 2592@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.174Z

Question:
Would you have the same mass on the Moon as you do on Earth? Would you have the same weight?
A:
You would weigh more on the Moon than on Earth because gravity on the Moon is stronger than gravity on Earth.
B:
You would weigh less on the Moon than on Earth because gravity on the Moon is weaker than gravity on Earth.
C:
You would weigh less on the Moon than on Earth because gravity on the Moon is stronger than gravity on Earth.
D:
You would weigh more on the Moon than on Earth because gravity on the Moon is weaker than gravity on Earth.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex026

ID: 2593@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.186Z

Question:
Identify the constants $g$ and $\text{G}$ .
A:
<span data-math="g">g</span> and <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span> are both the acceleration due to gravity
B:
<span data-math="g">g</span> is acceleration due to gravity on Earth and <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span> is the universal gravitational constant.
C:
<span data-math="g">g</span> is the gravitational constant and <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span> is the acceleration due to gravity on Earth.
D:
<span data-math="g">g</span> and <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span> are both the universal gravitational constant.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex027

ID: 2594@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.191Z

Question:
The value of $g$ on the planet Mars is $3.71\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . If you have a mass of $60.0\,\text{kg}$ on Earth, what would be your mass on Mars? What would be your weight on Mars?
A:
<span data-math="223\,\text{kg}">223\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="223\,\text{N}">223\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="588\,\text{kg}">588\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="588\,\text{N}">588\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex028

ID: 2595@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.203Z

Question:
Find the acceleration due to Earth’s gravity at the distance of the Moon. $G=6.67\times10^{-11}\,\text{N}\cdot\text{m}^2/\text{kg}^2$ and the Earth-Moon distance = $3.84\times10^8\,\text{m}$ . Earth’s mass = $5.98\times10^{24}\,\text{kg}$ .
A:
<span data-math="2.70\times10^{-3}\text{m/s}">2.70\times10^{-3}\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.70\times10^{-3}\text{m/s}^2">2.70\times10^{-3}\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.04\times10^{6}\text{m/s}">1.04\times10^{6}\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.04\times10^{6}\text{m/s}^2">1.04\times10^{6}\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-3 time-long k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex029

ID: 2596@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.214Z

Question:
What is the mass of a person who weighs $600\,\text{N}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="6.00\,\text{kg}">6.00\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="61.2\,\text{kg}">61.2\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="600\,\text{kg}">600\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="610\,\text{kg}">610\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2597@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.232Z

Question:
Calculate Earth’s mass given that the acceleration due to gravity at the North Pole is $9.830\text{m/s}^2\!$ and the radius of the Earth is $6371\,\text{km}$ from pole to center.
A:
<span data-math="5.94\times10^{17}\,\text{kg}">5.94\times10^{17}\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.94\times10^{24}\text{kg}">5.94\times10^{24}\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.36\times10^{17}\text{kg}">9.36\times10^{17}\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="9.36\times10^{24}\text{kg}">9.36\times10^{24}\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex031

ID: 2598@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.238Z

Question:
Some of Newton’s predecessors and contemporaries also studied gravity and proposed theories. What important advance did Newton make in the study of gravity that the other scientists had failed to do?
A:
He gave an exact mathematical form for the theory.
B:
He added a correction term to a previously existing formula.
C:
Newton found the value of the universal gravitational constant.
D:
Newton showed that gravitational force is always attractive.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex032

ID: 2599@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.250Z

Question:
State the law of universal gravitation in words only.
A:
Gravitational force between two objects is directly proportional to the sum of the squares of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
B:
Gravitational force between two objects is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
C:
Gravitational force between two objects is directly proportional to the sum of the squares of their masses and inversely proportional to the distance between them.
D:
Gravitational force between two objects is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the distance between them.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex033

ID: 2600@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.261Z

Question:
Successful development of a theory of quantum gravity could lead to a “theory of everything.” Describe the most import result of such a theory.
A:
It could explain the origin of universe.
B:
It could prove the principle of conservation of energy.
C:
It could explain the inverse-square nature of gravitational force.
D:
It could combine the four fundamental forces of nature into one single theory.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex034

ID: 2601@2

2015-08-27T19:43:53.019Z

Question:
Describe the postulate on which Einstein based the theory of general relativity and describe an everyday experience that illustrates this postulate.
A:
Gravity and velocity have the same effect and cannot be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of constant velocity in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered.
B:
Gravity and velocity have different effects and can be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of constant velocity in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered.
C:
Gravity and acceleration have the same effect and cannot be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of acceleration in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered.
D:
Gravity and acceleration have different effects and can be distinguished from each other. An acceptable illustration of this is any description of the feeling of acceleration in a situation where no outside frame of reference is considered.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex035

ID: 2602@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.292Z

Question:
Titan, with a radius of $2.58\times10^6\,\text{m}$ , is the largest moon of the planet Saturn. If the mass of Titan is $1.35\times10^{23}\text{kg}$ , what is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this moon?
A:
<span data-math="1.35\,\text{m/s}^2">1.35\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.49\,\text{m/s}^2">3.49\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.49\times10^6\,\text{m/s}^2">3.49\times10^6\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.35\times10^6\,\text{m/s}^2">1.35\times10^6\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex036

ID: 2603@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.298Z

Question:
Saturn’s moon Titan has an orbital period of $15.9\,\text{days}$ . If Saturn has a mass of $5.68 \times10^{23}\,\text{kg}$ , what is the average distance from Titan to the center of Saturn?
A:
<span data-math="1.22\times10^6\,\text{m}">1.22\times10^6\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.26 \times10^7\,\text{m}">4.26 \times10^7\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.25 \times10^4\,\text{km}">5.25 \times10^4\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.26 \times10^{10}\,\text{km}">4.26 \times10^{10}\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-long blooms-6 k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex037

ID: 2604@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.316Z

Question:
What did the Cavendish experiment measure?
A:
the mass of the Earth
B:
the gravitational constant
C:
acceleration due to gravity
D:
the eccentricity of Earth’s orbit

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex038

ID: 2605@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.328Z

Question:
You have a mass of $55\,\text{kg}$ and you have just landed on one of the moons of Jupiter where you have a weight of $67.9\,\text{N}$ . What is the acceleration due to gravity, $g$ , on the moon you are visiting?
A:
<span data-math=".810\text{m/s}^2">.810\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.23\text{m/s}^2">1.23\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="539\text{m/s}^2">539\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="3735\,\text{m/s}^2">3735\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex039

ID: 2606@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.333Z

Question:
Newton’s third law of motion says that, for every action force, there is a reaction force equal in magnitude but that acts in the opposite direction. Apply this law to gravitational forces acting between the Washington Monument and Earth.
A:
The monument is attracted to the Earth with a force equal to its weight, and the Earth is attracted to the monument with a force equal to the Earth’s weight. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of unequal magnitude and pointing in the same direction.
B:
The monument is attracted to the Earth with a force equal to its weight, and the Earth is attracted to the monument with a force equal to the Earth’s weight. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of unequal magnitude but pointing in opposite directions.
C:
The monument is attracted to the Earth with a force equal to its weight, and the Earth is attracted to the monument with an equal force. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of equal magnitude and pointing in the same direction.
D:
The monument is attracted to the Earth with a force equal to its weight, and the Earth is attracted to the monument with an equal force. The situation can be represented with two force vectors of equal magnitude but pointing in opposite directions.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex040

ID: 2607@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.351Z

Question:
True or False: Gravitational force is the attraction of the mass of one object to the mass of another. Light, either as a particle or a wave, has no rest mass. Despite this fact gravity bends a beam of light.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex041

ID: 2608@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.357Z

Question:
The average radius of Earth is $6.37\times10^6\,\text{m}$ . What is Earth’s mass?
A:
<span data-math="9.35\times10^{17}\,\text{kg}">9.35\times10^{17}\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.96\times10^{24}\text{kg}">5.96\times10^{24}\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.79\times10^{31}\text{kg}">3.79\times10^{31}\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.42\times10^{38}\text{kg}">2.42\times10^{38}\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex042

ID: 2609@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.368Z

Question:
What is the gravitational force between two $60.0\,\text{kg}$ people sitting $100\,\text{m}$ apart?
A:
<span data-math="2.4 \times 10^{-11}\,\text{N}">2.4 \times 10^{-11}\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.4\times10^{-9}\,\text{N}">2.4\times10^{-9}\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.6\times10^{-1}\,\text{N}">3.6\times10^{-1}\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.6\times10^1\,\text{N}">3.6\times10^1\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex043

ID: 2610@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.386Z

Question:
It took scientists a long time to arrive at the understanding of gravity as explained by Galileo and Newton. They were hindered by two ideas that seemed like common sense but were serious misconceptions. First, heavier things fall faster than light things and, second, forces that act at a distance are not possible because that would be similar to believing in magic. Explain why these ideas persisted and why they prevented advances.
A:
Heavier things fall faster than light things because they have less surface area and greater mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that acted at a distance were considered impossible, so people were skeptical about scientific theories that invoked such forces.
B:
Heavier things fall faster than light things because they have greater surface area and less mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that act at a distance were considered impossible, so people were skeptical about scientific theories that invoked such forces.
C:
Heavier things fall faster than light things because they have less surface area and greater mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that act at a distance were considered impossible, so people were quick to accept scientific theories that invoked such forces.
D:
Heavier things fall faster than light things because they have large surface area and less mass density. In the Renaissance and before, forces that act at a distance were considered impossible because of people’s faith in scientific theories.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long blooms-6 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ex044

ID: 2611@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.393Z

Question:
The masses of the Earth and the Moon are $5.97\times10^{24}\,\text{kg}$ and $7.35\times10^{22}\,\text{kg}$ , respectively. The distance from the Earth to the Moon is $3.80\times 10^5\,\text{km}$ . At what point between the Earth and the Moon are the opposing gravitational forces equal? (Use subscripts $\text{e}$ and $\text{m}$ to represent Earth and Moon.)
A:
<span data-math="3.42\times10^5\,\text{km}">3.42\times10^5\,\text{km}</span> from the center of Earth
B:
<span data-math="3.80\times10^5\,\text{km}">3.80\times10^5\,\text{km}</span> from the center of Earth
C:
<span data-math="3.42\times10^6\,\text{km}">3.42\times10^6\,\text{km}</span> from the center of Earth
D:
<span data-math="3.10\times10^7\,\text{km}">3.10\times10^7\,\text{km}</span> from the center of Earth

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ex045

ID: 2612@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.410Z

Question:
At one point in its orbit, a moon is $100,000\,\text{km}$ from the center of its planet and $50,000\,\text{km}$ from the other focus of its elliptical orbit. How far is the moon from the planet when it is the same distance from both foci?
A:
<span data-math="50,000\,\text{km}">50,000\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="75,000\,\text{km}">75,000\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="100,000\,\text{km}">100,000\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="150,000\,\text{km}">150,000\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot001

ID: 2613@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.416Z

Question:
True or False: The radius of a planet’s orbit sweeps past an area of $10^{15}\,\text{km}^2$ during the day that it is closest to the sun. This is the same as the area the radius will sweep past on the day that it is farthest from the sun.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot002

ID: 2614@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.428Z

Question:
A moon orbits a planet in an elliptical orbit. The foci of the ellipse are $50,000\,\text{km}$ apart. The closest approach of the moon to the planet is $400,000\,\text{km}$ . What is the length of the major axis of the orbit?
A:
<span data-math="400,000\,\text{km}">400,000\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="450,000,\text{km}">450,000,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="800,000\,\text{km}">800,000\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="850,000\,\text{km}">850,000\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot003

ID: 2615@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.440Z

Question:
An Earth satellite orbits at a radius of $19\text{,}600\,\text{km}$ . If the ratio $r^3/T^2$ for the Moon is $1.01 \times 10^{18}\,\text{km}^3/\text{y}^2 {\!}$ , what is the orbital period of the satellite?
A:
<span data-math="0.00273\,\text{days}">0.00273\,\text{days}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.01950,\text{days}">0.01950,\text{days}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.00\,\text{day}">1.00\,\text{day}</span>
D:
<span data-math="7.00\,\text{days}">7.00\,\text{days}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot004

ID: 2616@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.452Z

Question:
Identify the locations of the foci of an elliptical orbit.
A:
One focus is the parent body, and the other is located at the opposite end of the ellipse, at the same distance from the center as the parent body.
B:
One focus is the parent body, and the other is located at the opposite end of the ellipse, at half the distance from the center as the parent body.
C:
One focus is the parent body and the other is located outside of the elliptical orbit, on the line on which is the semi-major axis of the ellipse.
D:
One focus is on the line containing the semi-major axis of the ellipse, and the other is located anywhere on the elliptical orbit of the satellite.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot005

ID: 2617@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.464Z

Question:
Comets have very elongated elliptical orbits with the Sun at one focus. Explain why a comet travels much faster near the Sun than it does at the other end of the orbit.
A:
It is because, according to Kepler’s law, a satellite sweeps out equal areas in equal time.
B:
It is because, according to Kepler’s law, a satellite sweeps out unequal area in equal time.
C:
It is because, according to Newton’s law, a satellite sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
D:
It is because, according to Newton’s law, a satellite sweeps out unequal areas in equal times.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot006

ID: 2618@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.475Z

Question:
True or False: A planet-satellite system must be isolated from other massive objects to follow Kepler’s laws of planetary motion.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

time-medium dok2 blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot007

ID: 2619@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.487Z

Question:
Explain why the string, pins, and pencil method works for drawing an ellipse.
A:
The string, pins, and pencil method works because the length of the two sides of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse.
B:
The string, pins, and pencil method works because the area of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse.
C:
The string, pins, and pencil method works because the perimeter of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse.
D:
The string, pins, and pencil method works because the volume of the triangle remains constant as you are drawing the ellipse.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot008

ID: 2620@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.506Z

Question:
The orbit of the planet Mercury has an eccentricity of $0.21$ , and the orbit of Venus has an eccentricity of $0.01$ . How do the distances between the foci of these two planets compare? Cite an equation to support your answer.
A:
The foci of Venus’s orbit are much farther apart than those of Mercury’s orbit because <span data-math="e = \frac{a}{f}">e = \frac{a}{f}</span> where distance between foci is <span data-math="2f">2f</span>.
B:
The foci of Venus’s orbit are much farther apart than those of Mercury’s orbit because <span data-math="e = \frac{f}{a}">e = \frac{f}{a}</span> where distance between foci is <span data-math="2f">2f</span>.
C:
The foci of Venus’s orbit are much closer together than those of Mercury’s orbit because <span data-math="e = \frac{a}{f}">e = \frac{a}{f}</span> where distance between foci is <span data-math="2f">2f</span>.
D:
The foci of Venus’s orbit are much closer together than those of Mercury’s orbit because <span data-math="e = \frac{f}{a}">e = \frac{f}{a}</span> where distance between foci is <span data-math="2f">2f</span>.

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time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot009

ID: 2621@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.512Z

Question:
Could you use data on the period and radius of the Moon’s orbit and the equation $\frac{T^2_1}{T^2_2}=\frac{r^3_1}{r^3_2}$ to calculate the period of Saturn from the radius of its orbit? Explain.
A:
Yes, the equation applies to any satellite orbiting any parent body.
B:
Yes, the equation only applies to satellites orbiting the same parent body.
C:
No, the equation applies to any satellite orbiting any parent body.
D:
No, the equation only applies to satellites orbiting the same parent body.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot010

ID: 2622@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.524Z

Question:

An ellipse is shown with a small shaded area on the left side, triangular in shape, labeled X. Another larger shaded area is across from X and is labeled Y. A vertex of X is connected to a vertex of Y. The point of connection is labeled f1. Another point is directly across from f1 and is labeled f2.

  1. Which focus represents the parent body?
  2. Compare areas X and Y.
  3. Compare the speeds of the satellite as it sweeps out areas X and Y. Explain your answer.
A:
<ol> <li>The parent body is at <span data-math="f_1\!">f_1\!</span>.</li> <li>Area X <span data-math="<"><</span> Area Y.</li> <li>The speed is greater for area X.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>The parent body is at <span data-math="f_1">f_1</span>.</li> <li>Area X <span data-math=">">></span> Area Y.</li> <li>The speed is greater for area Y.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>The parent body is at <span data-math="f_1">f_1</span>.</li> <li>Area X = Area Y.</li> <li>The speed is greater for area X.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>The parent body is at <span data-math="f_1">f_1</span>.</li> <li>Area X = Area Y.</li> <li>The speed is greater for area Y.</li> </ol>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot011

ID: 2623@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.541Z

Question:
A planet is traveling clockwise in a very eccentric elliptical orbit around a sun. 1. Describe the change in speed of the planet as it approaches its closest point to the sun and explain the cause. 2. Describe the change in speed of the planet as it approaches its closest point to the other focus of the elliptical orbit and explain the cause.
A:
<ol> <li>As the planet approaches the sun, its speed increases because the gravitational attraction decreases.</li> <li>As the planet approaches the other focus, its speed decreases because the force of gravitational attraction increases.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>As the planet approaches the sun, its speed increases because the gravitational attraction increases.</li> <li>As the planet approaches the other focus, its speed decreases because the force of gravitational attraction decreases.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>As the planet approaches the sun, its speed decreases because the gravitational attraction decreases.</li> <li>As the planet approaches the other focus, its speed increases because the force of gravitational attraction increases.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>As the planet approaches the sun, its speed decreases because the gravitational attraction increases.</li> <li>As the planet approaches the other focus, its speed increases because the force of gravitational attraction decreases.</li> </ol>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot012

ID: 2624@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.547Z

Question:
The closest the planet Mercury comes to the Sun is $4.6\times10^7 \,\text{km}^2\!$ , and Mercury’s farthest distance from the Sun is $6.98\times10^7\,\text{km}^2\!$ . What is the area inside Mercury’s orbit?
A:
<span data-math="3.25\times10^{15}\,\text{km}^2">3.25\times10^{15}\,\text{km}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="6.85\times10^{15}\,\text{km}^2">6.85\times10^{15}\,\text{km}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.03\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2">1.03\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.53\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2">1.53\times10^{16}\,\text{km}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only blooms-6 k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot013

ID: 2625@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.559Z

Question:
An artificial satellite orbits the Earth at a distance of $1.45\times10^4\,\text{km}$ from Earth’s center. The Moon orbits the Earth at a distance of $3.84\times10^5\,\text{km}$ once every $27.3\,\text{days}$ . How long does it take the satellite to orbit the Earth?
A:
<span data-math="0.200\,\text{days}">0.200\,\text{days}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.07\,\text{days}">3.07\,\text{days}</span>
C:
<span data-math="243\,\text{days}">243\,\text{days}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3721\,\text{days}">3721\,\text{days}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot014

ID: 2626@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.577Z

Question:
A blue-lined ellipse is being drawn. There is a pin at each focus point. A red string is looped around the pins and the pen. A student wanted to use the string, pins, and pencil method to draw an ellipse. Her measurements showed that the ellipse was $7.5\,\text{cm}$ long along its major axis and that the foci were $5\,\text{cm}$ apart. What should be the length of the string? Show how you got your answer.
A:
<span data-math="15\,\text{cm}">15\,\text{cm}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10\,\text{cm}">10\,\text{cm}</span>
C:
<span data-math="12.5\,\text{cm}">12.5\,\text{cm}</span>
D:
<span data-math="11.25\,\text{cm}">11.25\,\text{cm}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot015

ID: 2627@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.589Z

Question:
Earth is $1.496\times10^8\,\text{km}$ from the Sun, and Venus is $1.08\times10^8\,\text{km}$ from the Sun. One day on Venus is $5832$ Earth hours long. How many days are in a Venus year?
A:
<span data-math="0.004\,\text{d}">0.004\,\text{d}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.005\,\text{d}">0.005\,\text{d}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.927\,\text{d}">0.927\,\text{d}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.21\,\text{d}">1.21\,\text{d}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s01 k12phys-ch07-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot016

ID: 2628@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.600Z

Question:
What is the weight of a person with a mass of $50\,\text{kg}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="5\,\text{N}">5\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="50\,\text{N}">50\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="60\,\text{N}">60\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="490\,\text{N}">490\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot017

ID: 2629@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.606Z

Question:
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is $1.62\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ . If a person’s mass is $60\,\text{kg}$ on Earth, what would they weigh on the Moon?
A:
<span data-math="6.0\,\text{N}">6.0\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="60.0\,\text{N}">60.0\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="97.2\,\text{N}">97.2\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="162\,\text{N}">162\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot018

ID: 2630@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.623Z

Question:
The Moon is $3.84\times10^5\,\text{km}$ from Earth and has a mass of $7.35\times10^{22}\,\text{kg}$ . Calculate the acceleration due to gravity at Earth due to the Moon.
A:
<span data-math="3.32\times10^{-5}\,\text{m/s}^2">3.32\times10^{-5}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.28\times10^{-5}\,\text{m/s}^2">1.28\times10^{-5}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.28\times10^{-4}\,\text{m/s}^2">1.28\times10^{-4}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.32\times10^1\,\text{m/s}^2">3.32\times10^1\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot019

ID: 2631@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.629Z

Question:
The mass of Mars is $6.418\times10^{23}\,\text{kg}$ and its radius is $3.38\times10^6\,\text{m}$ . What is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars?
A:
<span data-math="3.75\times10^{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2">3.75\times10^{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.27\times10^{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2">1.27\times10^{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.27\times10^1\,\text{m/s}^2">1.27\times10^1\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.75\times10^3\,\text{m/s}^2">3.75\times10^3\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot020

ID: 2632@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.641Z

Question:
Newton’s law of universal gravitation explains the paths of what?
A:
a charged particle
B:
a ball rolling on a plane surface
C:
a planet moving around the Sun
D:
a stone tied to a string and whirled at constant speed in a horizontal circle

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot021

ID: 2633@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.652Z

Question:
The force of gravitational attraction depends only on what two factors?
A:
mass and distance
B:
mass and velocity
C:
distance and the medium between the objects
D:
mass and the medium between the objects

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot022

ID: 2634@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.664Z

Question:
Explain why doubling the mass of an object doubles its weight, but doubling its distance from the center of Earth reduces its weight fourfold.
A:
The weight is two times the gravitational force between the object and Earth.
B:
The weight is half the gravitational force between the object and Earth.
C:
The weight is equal to the gravitational force between the object and Earth, and the gravitational force is inversely proportional to the distance squared between the object and Earth.
D:
The weight is directly proportional to the square of the gravitational force between the object and Earth.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot023

ID: 2635@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.681Z

Question:
Explain why a star on the other side of the Sun might appear to be in a location that is not its true location.
A:
It can be explained by using the concept of atmospheric refraction.
B:
It can be explained by using the concept of the special theory of relativity.
C:
It can be explained by using the concept of the general theory of relativity.
D:
It can be explained by using the concept of light scattering in the atmosphere.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot024

ID: 2636@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.687Z

Question:
True or false: The mass of an object measured on the Earth differs from the mass measured on the Moon.
A:
True
B:
False

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ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot025

ID: 2637@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.704Z

Question:
True or False: During a total eclipse of the Sun the light from a star behind the Sun was observed at a position other than its known position, as predicted by the general theory of relativity (i.e. a ray of light will bend towards a very massive object).
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

time-medium dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot026

ID: 2638@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.716Z

Question:
A person is in an elevator that suddenly begins to descend. The person knows, intuitively, that the feeling of suddenly becoming lighter is because the elevator is accelerating downward. What other change would produce the same feeling? How does this demonstrate Einstein’s postulate on which he based the theory of general relativity?
A:
It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became weaker. This illustrates Einstein’s postulates that gravity and acceleration are indistinguishable.
B:
It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became stronger. This illustrates Einstein’s postulates that gravity and acceleration are indistinguishable.
C:
It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became weaker. This illustrates Einstein’s postulates that gravity and acceleration are distinguishable.
D:
It would feel the same if the force of gravity suddenly became stronger. This illustrates Einstein’s postulates that gravity and acceleration are distinguishable.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot027

ID: 2639@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.721Z

Question:

The Cavendish experiment marked a milestone in the study of gravity.

  1. What important value did the experiment determine?
  2. Explain why this was so difficult in terms of the masses used in the apparatus and the strength of the gravitational force.
A:
<ol> <li>The experiment measured the acceleration due to gravity, <span data-math="g">g</span>.</li> <li>Gravity is a very weak force but despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between very massive objects.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>The experiment measured the gravitational constant, <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span>.</li> <li>Gravity is a very weak force but, despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between very massive objects.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>The experiment measured the acceleration due to gravity, <span data-math="g">g</span>.</li> <li>Gravity is a very weak force but despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between less massive objects.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>The experiment measured the gravitational constant, <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span>.</li> <li>Gravity is a very weak force but despite this limitation, Cavendish was able to measure the attraction between less massive objects.</li> </ol>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch07-ot028

ID: 2640@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.738Z

Question:
Rhea, with a radius of $7.63\times10^5\,\text{m}$ , is the second-largest moon of the planet Saturn. If the mass of Rhea is $2.31\times10^{21}\,\text{kg}$ , what is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this moon?
A:
<span data-math="2.65\times10^{-1}\,\text{m/s}">2.65\times10^{-1}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.02\times10^5\,\text{m/s}">2.02\times10^5\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.65\times10^{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2">2.65\times10^{-1}\,\text{m/s}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.02\times10^5\,\text{m/s}^2">2.02\times10^5\,\text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot029

ID: 2641@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.744Z

Question:
Earth has a mass of $5.971\times10^{24}\,\text{kg}$ and a radius of $6.371\times10^6\,\text{m}$ . Use the data to check the value of the gravitational constant.
A:
<span data-math="6.66\times10^{-11}\frac{\text{N}\cdot\text{m}}{\text{kg}^2}">6.66\times10^{-11}\frac{\text{N}\cdot\text{m}}{\text{kg}^2}</span> , it matches the value of the gravitational constant <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span>.
B:
<span data-math="1.05\times10^{-17}\frac{\text{N}\cdot\text{m}}{\text{kg}^2}">1.05\times10^{-17}\frac{\text{N}\cdot\text{m}}{\text{kg}^2}</span>, it matches the value of the gravitational constant <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span>.
C:
<span data-math="6.66\times10^{-11}\frac{\text{N}\cdot\text{m}^2}{\text{kg}^2}">6.66\times10^{-11}\frac{\text{N}\cdot\text{m}^2}{\text{kg}^2}</span>, it matches the value of the gravitational constant <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span>.
D:
<span data-math="1.05\times10^{-17} \frac{\text{N}\cdot\text{m}^2\!}{\text{kg}^2\!}">1.05\times10^{-17} \frac{\text{N}\cdot\text{m}^2\!}{\text{kg}^2\!}</span>, it matches the value of the gravitational constant <span data-math="\text{G}">\text{G}</span>.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot030

ID: 2642@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.761Z

Question:
Saturn’s moon Rhea has an orbital period of $4.52\,\text{days}$ . If Saturn has a mass of $5.68 \times10^{23}\,\text{kg}$ , what is the average distance from Rhea to the center of Saturn?
A:
<span data-math="7.21\times10^6\,\text{m}">7.21\times10^6\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.93\times10^7\,\text{m}">1.93\times10^7\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.27\times10^4\,\text{km}">5.27\times10^4\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.93\times10^7\,\text{km}">1.93\times10^7\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot031

ID: 2643@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.767Z

Question:
The orbit of the planet Mercury has a period of $88.0\,\text{days}$ and an average radius of $5.791\times10^{10}\,\text{m}$ . What is the mass of the Sun?
A:
<span data-math="3.43\times10^{19}\,\text{kg}">3.43\times10^{19}\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.99\times10^{30}\,\text{kg}">1.99\times10^{30}\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.56\times10^{29}\,\text{kg}">2.56\times10^{29}\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.48\times10^{40}\,\text{kg}">1.48\times10^{40}\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch07 k12phys-ch07-s02 k12phys-ch07-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch07-ot032

ID: 2644@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.785Z

Question:
What are some other examples of motions that impulse affects?
A:
a football player colliding with another, or a car moving at a constant velocity
B:
a car moving at a constant velocity, or an object moving in the projectile motion
C:
a car moving at a constant velocity, or a racket hitting a ball
D:
a football player colliding with another, or a racket hitting a ball

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex001

ID: 2645@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.791Z

Question:
You may have heard the advice to bend your knees when jumping. A friend dares you to jump off of a park bench onto the ground stiff-legged (without bending your knees), but you, of course, refuse. Explain to your friend why this would be a foolish thing. Show it using the impulse-momentum theorem.
A:
Bending your knees increases the time of the impact, thus decreasing the force.
B:
Bending your knees decreases the time of the impact, thus decreasing the force.
C:
Bending your knees increases the time of the impact, thus increasing the force.
D:
Bending your knees decreases the time of the impact, thus increasing the force.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex002

ID: 2646@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.809Z

Question:
  1. Calculate the momentum of a $110\,\text{kg}$ football player running at $8\,\text{m/s}$ .
  2. Compare the player’s momentum with the momentum of a $0.410\,\text{kg}$ football thrown hard at a speed of $25.0\,\text{m/s}$ .
A:
<ol> <li><span data-math="13.75\,\text{m/s}">13.75\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li>the momentum of the player is about <span data-math="838">838</span> times greater than the momentum of the football.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li><span data-math="13.75\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">13.75\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span></li> <li>the momentum of the player is about <span data-math="838">838</span> times greater than the momentum of the football.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li><span data-math="880\,\text{m/s}">880\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li>the momentum of the player is about <span data-math="86">86</span> times greater than the momentum of the football.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li><span data-math="880\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">880\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span></li> <li>the momentum of the player is about <span data-math="86">86</span> times greater than the momentum of the football.</li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex003

ID: 2647@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.814Z

Question:
Venus Williams hitting a backhand during competition. During the 2007 French Open, Venus Williams hit the fastest recorded serve in a premier women’s match, reaching a speed of $58\,\text{m/s}$ ( $209\,\text{km/h}$ ). What was the average force exerted on the $0.057\,\text{kg}$ tennis ball by Venus Williams’s racket? Assume that the ball’s speed just after impact was $58\,\text{m/s}$ , the horizontal velocity before impact is negligible, and that the ball remained in contact with the racket for $5.0\,\text{ms}$ ( $\text{milliseconds}$ ).
A:
<span data-math="{-0.02}\,\text{N}">{-0.02}\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.02\,\text{N}">0.02\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="{-660}\,\text{N}">{-660}\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="660\,\text{N}">660\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex004

ID: 2648@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.831Z

Question:
What is the momentum of a bowling ball with mass $5\,\text{kg}$ and velocity $10\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.5\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">0.5\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">2\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="15\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">15\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">50\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex005

ID: 2649@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.837Z

Question:
What will be the change in momentum caused by a net force of $120\,\text{N}$ acting on an object for $2$ seconds?
A:
<span data-math="60\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">60\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="118\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">118\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="122\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">122\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="240\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">240\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex006

ID: 2650@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.855Z

Question:
What is linear momentum?
A:
Linear momentum is the sum of a system’s mass and its velocity.
B:
Linear momentum is the ratio of a system’s mass to its velocity.
C:
Linear momentum is the product of a system’s mass and its velocity.
D:
Linear momentum is the product of a system’s moment of inertia and its velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex007

ID: 2651@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.866Z

Question:
If an object’s mass is constant, what is its momentum proportional to?
A:
its velocity
B:
its weight
C:
its displacement
D:
its moment of inertia

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex008

ID: 2652@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.877Z

Question:
What is the equation for Newton’s second law of motion, in terms of mass, velocity and time, when the mass of the system is constant?
A:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta m \Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta m \Delta t}</span>
B:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{m \Delta t}{\Delta v}">F_\text{net} = \frac{m \Delta t}{\Delta v}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{m\Delta v}{\Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{m\Delta v}{\Delta t}</span>
D:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta m \Delta v}{\Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta m \Delta v}{\Delta t}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex009

ID: 2653@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.883Z

Question:
Give an example of a system whose mass is not constant.
A:
a spinning top
B:
a baseball flying through the air
C:
a rocket launched from Earth
D:
a block sliding on a frictionless inclined plane

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex010

ID: 2654@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.895Z

Question:
What is impulse?
A:
change in velocity
B:
change in momentum
C:
rate of change of velocity
D:
rate of change of momentum

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex011

ID: 2655@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.906Z

Question:
In which equation of Newton’s second law is mass assumed to be constant?
A:
<span data-math="F = ma">F = ma</span>
B:
<span data-math="F = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}">F = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F = \Delta p \Delta t">F = \Delta p \Delta t</span>
D:
<span data-math="F = \frac{m}{a}">F = \frac{m}{a}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex012

ID: 2656@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.923Z

Question:
Consider two objects of the same mass. If a force of $100\,\text{N}$ acts on the first for a duration of $1\,\text{s}$ and on the other for a duration of $2\,\text{s}$ , which of the following statements is true?
A:
The first object will acquire more momentum.
B:
The second object will acquire more momentum.
C:
Both objects will acquire the same momentum.
D:
Neither object will experience a change in momentum.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex013

ID: 2657@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.928Z

Question:
Cars these days have parts that can crumple or collapse in the event of an accident. What is the advantage of this?
A:
It reduces injury to the passengers by increasing the time of impact.
B:
It reduces injury to the passengers by decreasing the time of impact.
C:
It reduces injury to the passengers by increasing the change in momentum.
D:
It reduces injury to the passengers by decreasing the change in momentum.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex014

ID: 2658@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.946Z

Question:
If a force of $50\,\text{N}$ is applied to an object for $0.2\,\text{s}$ , and it changes its velocity by $10\,\text{m/s}$ , what could be the mass of the object?
A:
<span data-math="1\,\text{kg}">1\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2\,\text{kg}">2\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5\,\text{kg}">5\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="250\,\text{kg}">250\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex015

ID: 2659@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.958Z

Question:
For how long should a force of $130\,\text{N}$ be applied to an object of mass $50\,\text{kg}$ to change its velocity from $20\,\text{m/s}$ to $60\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.31\,\text{s}">0.31\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.65\,\text{s}">0.65\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.54\,\text{s}">1.54\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="40\,\text{s}">40\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex016

ID: 2660@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.963Z

Question:
What kind of quantity is momentum?
A:
Scalar
B:
Vector

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex017

ID: 2661@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.975Z

Question:
When does the net force on an object increase?
A:
when <span data-math="\Delta p">\Delta p</span> decreases
B:
when <span data-math="\Delta t">\Delta t</span> increases
C:
when <span data-math="\Delta t">\Delta t</span> decreases

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex018

ID: 2662@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.986Z

Question:
In the equation $\Delta p = m(v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})$ , which quantity is considered to be constant?
A:
initial velocity
B:
final velocity
C:
mass
D:
momentum

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex019

ID: 2663@1

2015-08-20T13:11:39.998Z

Question:
If an object’s velocity is constant, what is its momentum proportional to?
A:
its shape
B:
its mass
C:
its length
D:
its breadth

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex020

ID: 2664@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.015Z

Question:
If both mass and velocity of an object are constant, what can you tell about its impulse?
A:
Its impulse would be constant.
B:
Its impulse would be zero.
C:
Its impulse would be increasing.
D:
Its impulse would be decreasing.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex021

ID: 2665@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.021Z

Question:
When the momentum of an object increases with respect to time, what is true of the net force acting on it?
A:
It is zero, because the net force is equal to the rate of change of the momentum.
B:
It is zero, because the net force is equal to the product of the momentum and the time interval.
C:
It is nonzero, because the net force is equal to the rate of change of the momentum.
D:
It is nonzero, because the net force is equal to the product of the momentum and the time interval.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex022

ID: 2666@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.032Z

Question:
How can you express impulse in terms of mass and velocity when neither of those are constant?
A:
<span data-math="\Delta p = \Delta (mv)">\Delta p = \Delta (mv)</span>
B:
<span data-math="\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{\Delta(mv)}{\Delta t}">\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{\Delta(mv)}{\Delta t}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\Delta p = \Delta (\frac{m}{v})">\Delta p = \Delta (\frac{m}{v})</span>
D:
<span data-math="\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{1}{\Delta t} \cdot \Delta ({m}{v})">\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{1}{\Delta t} \cdot \Delta ({m}{v})</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex023

ID: 2667@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.043Z

Question:
How can you express impulse in terms of mass and initial and final velocities?
A:
<span data-math="\Delta p = m (v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})">\Delta p = m (v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})</span>
B:
<span data-math="\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{m (v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})}{\Delta t}">\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{m (v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})}{\Delta t}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\Delta p = \frac{(v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})}{m}">\Delta p = \frac{(v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})}{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{1}{m} \frac{(v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})}{\Delta t}">\frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t} = \frac{1}{m} \frac{(v_\text{f} - v_\text{i})}{\Delta t}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex024

ID: 2668@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.055Z

Question:
Why do we use average force while solving momentum problems? How is net force related to the momentum of the object?
A:
because forces are usually constant over a period of time, and net force acting on the object is equal to the rate of change of the momentum
B:
because forces are usually not constant over a period of time, and net force acting on the object is equal to the product of the momentum and the time interval
C:
because forces are usually constant over a period of time, and net force acting on the object is equal to the product of the momentum and the time interval
D:
because forces are usually not constant over a period of time, and net force acting on the object is equal to the rate of change of the momentum

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex025

ID: 2669@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.067Z

Question:
Can a lighter object have more momentum than a heavier one? How?
A:
No, because momentum is independent of the velocity of the object.
B:
No, because momentum is independent of the mass of the object.
C:
Yes, if the lighter object’s velocity is considerably high.
D:
Yes, if the lighter object’s velocity is considerably low.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex026

ID: 2670@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.078Z

Question:
Why does it hurt less when you fall on a softer surface?
A:
The softer surface increases the duration of the impact, thereby reducing the effect of the force.
B:
The softer surface decreases the duration of the impact, thereby reducing the effect of the force.
C:
The softer surface increases the duration of the impact, thereby increasing the effect of the force.
D:
The softer surface decreases the duration of the impact, thereby increasing the effect of the force.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex027

ID: 2671@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.089Z

Question:
Can we use the equation ${{F}}_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}$ when the mass is constant?
A:
No, because the given equation is applicable for the variable mass only.
B:
No, because the given equation is not applicable for the constant mass.
C:
Yes, and the resultant equation is <span data-math="F = mv">F = mv</span>
D:
Yes, and the resultant equation is <span data-math="F = ma">F = ma</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ex028

ID: 2672@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.101Z

Question:
Based on the equation for angular momentum, how would you expect the moment of inertia of an object to affect angular momentum, based on the equation $L = I\omega$ ? How would angular velocity affect angular momentum?
A:
Large moment of inertia implies large angular momentum, and large angular velocity implies large angular momentum.
B:
Large moment of inertia implies small angular momentum, and large angular velocity implies small angular momentum.
C:
Large moment of inertia implies large angular momentum, and large angular velocity implies small angular momentum.
D:
Large moment of inertia implies small angular momentum, and large angular velocity implies large angular momentum.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex029

ID: 2673@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.118Z

Question:
When is momentum said to be conserved?
A:
when momentum is changing during an event
B:
when momentum is increasing during an event
C:
when momentum is decreasing during an event
D:
when momentum is constant throughout an event

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex030

ID: 2674@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.123Z

Question:
A ball is hit by a racket and its momentum changes. How is momentum conserved in this case?
A:
Momentum of the system can never be conserved in this case.
B:
Momentum of the system is conserved if the momentum of the racket is not considered.
C:
Momentum of the system is conserved if the momentum of the racket is also considered.
D:
Momentum of the system is conserved if the momenta of the racket and the player are also considered.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex031

ID: 2675@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.134Z

Question:
What is angular momentum?
A:
the sum of moment of inertia and angular velocity
B:
the ratio of moment of inertia to angular velocity
C:
the product of moment of inertia and angular velocity
D:
half the product of moment of inertia and square of angular velocity

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex032

ID: 2676@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.145Z

Question:
A billiards ball rolling on the table has momentum $p_1$ . It hits another, stationary ball, which starts rolling. Considering friction to be negligible, what will happen to the momentum of the first ball?
A:
It will decrease.
B:
It will increase.
C:
It will become zero.
D:
It will remain the same.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex033

ID: 2677@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.157Z

Question:
In the equation $L = I\omega$ , what is I?
A:
linear momentum
B:
angular momentum
C:
torque
D:
moment of inertia

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex034

ID: 2678@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.174Z

Question:
Under what condition(s) is the angular momentum of a system conserved?
A:
when net torque is zero
B:
when net torque is not zero
C:
when moment of inertia is constant
D:
when both moment of inertia and angular momentum are constant

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex035

ID: 2679@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.179Z

Question:
If the moment of inertia of an isolated system increases, what happens to its angular velocity?
A:
It increases.
B:
It decreases.
C:
It stays constant.
D:
It becomes zero.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex036

ID: 2680@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.190Z

Question:
Why does a figure skater spin faster if he pulls his arms and legs in?
A:
due to an increase in moment of inertia
B:
due to an increase in angular momentum
C:
due to conservation of linear momentum
D:
due to conservation of angular momentum

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex037

ID: 2681@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.202Z

Question:
If the mass of the ball were greater and it was thrown with the same velocity, then how would this affect the recoil velocity of the skater? Why?
A:
The recoil velocity of the skater would be greater because the final speed of the skater is directly proportional to the mass of the ball.
B:
The recoil velocity of the skater would be less because the final speed of the skater is inversely proportional to the mass of the ball.
C:
The recoil velocitywill remain the same as it is independent of the mass of ball.
D:
The recoil velocity will increase constantly because the net external force becomes nonzero.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex038

ID: 2682@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.213Z

Question:
How would the final velocity of the car-plus-truck system change if the truck had some initial velocity moving in the same direction as the car? What if the truck were moving in the opposite direction of the car initially? Why?
A:
If the truck was initially moving in the same direction as the car, the final velocity would be greater. If the truck was initially moving in the opposite direction of the car, the final velocity would be smaller.
B:
If the truck was initially moving in the same direction as the car, the final velocity would be smaller. If the truck was initially moving in the opposite direction of the car, the final velocity would be greater.
C:
The direction that the truck was initially moving would not matter. If the truck was initially moving in either direction, the final velocity would be smaller.
D:
The direction that the truck was initially moving would not matter. If the truck was initially moving in either direction, the final velocity would be greater.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex039

ID: 2683@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.225Z

Question:
Was the collision elastic or inelastic?
A:
perfectly elastic
B:
perfectly inelastic
C:
Nearly perfect elastic
D:
Nearly perfect inelastic

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex040

ID: 2684@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.236Z

Question:
If you wanted to maximize the velocity of ball 2 after impact, how would you change the settings for the masses of the balls, the initial speed of ball 1, and the elasticity setting? Why? Hint: Placing a checkmark next to the velocity vectors and removing the momentum vectors will help you visualize the velocity of ball 2, and pressing the More Data button will let you take readings.
A:
Maximize the mass of ball 1 and initial speed of ball 1; minimize the mass of ball 2; and set elasticity to <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span>.
B:
Maximize the mass of ball 2 and initial speed of ball 1; minimize the mass of ball 1; and set elasticity to 100%.
C:
Maximize the mass of ball 1 and initial speed of ball 1; minimize the mass of ball 2; and set elasticity to <span data-math="100\%">100\%</span>.
D:
Maximize the mass of ball 2 and initial speed of ball 1; minimize the mass of ball 1; and set elasticity to <span data-math="50\%">50\%</span>.

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inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex041

ID: 2685@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.249Z

Question:
alt text Find the recoil velocity of a $70.0\,\text{kg}$ ice hockey goalie who catches a $0.150\,\text{kg}$ hockey puck slapped at him at a velocity of $35.0\,\text{m/s}$ . Assume that the goalie is at rest before catching the puck, and friction between the ice and the puck-goalie system is negligible.
A:
<span data-math="-7.48\times10^{-2}\,\text{m/s}">-7.48\times10^{-2}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="7.48\times10^{-2}\,\text{m/s}">7.48\times10^{-2}\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="5.25\,\text{m/s}">5.25\,\text{m/s}</span>

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inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex042

ID: 2686@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.267Z

Question:
alt text Two hard steel carts collide head-on and then ricochet off one another in opposite directions on a frictionless surface. Cart 1 has a mass of $0.350\,\text{kg}$ and an initial velocity of $2.00\,\text{m/s}$ . Cart 2 has a mass of $0.500\,\text{kg}$ and an initial velocity of ${-0.500}\,\text{m/s}$ . After the collision, cart 1 recoils with a velocity of ${-4.00}\,\text{m/s}$ . What is the final velocity of cart 2?
A:
<span data-math="{-4.7}\,\text{m/s}">{-4.7}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{-3.7}\,\text{m/s}">{-3.7}\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.7\,\text{m/s}">3.7\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.7\,\text{m/s}">4.7\,\text{m/s}</span>

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inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex043

ID: 2687@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.278Z

Question:
alt text Suppose the following experiment is performed. A $0.250\,\text{kg}$ object ( $m_1$ ) is slid on a frictionless surface into a dark room, where it strikes an initially stationary object with mass of $0.400\,\text{kg}$ ( $m_2$ ). The $0.250\,\text{kg}$ object emerges from the room at an angle of $45^\circ\!$ with its incoming direction. The speed of the $0.250\,\text{kg}$ object is originally $2.00\,\text{m/s}$ and is $1.50\,\text{m/s}$ after the collision. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the velocity ( $v\prime_2$ and $\theta_2$ ) of the $0.400\,\text{kg}$ object after the collision.
A:
<span data-math="v^\prime_2 = 0.701\,\text{m/s}">v^\prime_2 = 0.701\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="\theta_2 = 19.1^\circ">\theta_2 = 19.1^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="v^\prime_2 = 0.937\,\text{m/s}">v^\prime_2 = 0.937\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="\theta_2 = 45^\circ">\theta_2 = 45^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="v^\prime_2 = 0.892\,\text{m/s}">v^\prime_2 = 0.892\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="\theta_2 = 48^\circ">\theta_2 = 48^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="v\prime_2 = 0.886\,\text{m/s}">v\prime_2 = 0.886\,\text{m/s}</span> and <span data-math="\theta_2 = 312^\circ">\theta_2 = 312^\circ</span>

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inbook-yes display-free-response time-long dok4 blooms-5 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex044

ID: 2688@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.289Z

Question:
In an elastic collision, an object with momentum $25\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ collides with another that has a momentum $35\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ . The first object’s momentum changes to $10 \,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ . What is the final momentum of the second object?
A:
<span data-math="10\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">10\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="20\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">20\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="35\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">35\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">50\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex045

ID: 2689@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.295Z

Question:
In an elastic collision, an object with mass $3\,\text{kg}$ collides with an object of mass $5\,\text{kg}$ . The initial velocities of both are $12\,\text{m/s}$ and $25\,\text{m/s}$ respectively. If the final velocity of the first object is $20\,\text{m/s}$ , what is the final velocity of the second?
A:
<span data-math="17\,\text{m/s}">17\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="20\,\text{m/s}">20\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="29\,\text{m/s}">29\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="44\,\text{m/s}">44\,\text{m/s}</span>

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inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex046

ID: 2690@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.307Z

Question:
What is an elastic collision?
A:
An elastic collision is one in which the objects after impact are deformed permanently.
B:
An elastic collision is one in which the objects after impact lose some of their internal kinetic energy.
C:
An elastic collision is one in which the objects after impact don’t lose any of their internal kinetic energy.
D:
An elastic collision is one in which the objects after impact become stuck together and move with a common velocity.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex047

ID: 2691@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.318Z

Question:
Are perfectly elastic collisions possible?
A:
Perfectly elastic collisions are not possible.
B:
Perfectly elastic collisions are possible only with subatomic particles.
C:
Perfectly elastic collisions are possible only when the objects stick together after impact.
D:
Perfectly elastic collisions are possible if the objects and surfaces are nearly frictionless.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex048

ID: 2692@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.330Z

Question:
In the equation $p_1 + p_2 = p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2$ for the collision of two objects, what is the assumption made regarding the friction acting on the objects?
A:
Friction is zero.
B:
Friction is nearly zero.
C:
Friction acts constantly.
D:
Friction before and after the impact remains the same.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex049

ID: 2693@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.341Z

Question:
Two people, who have the same mass, throw two different objects at the same velocity. If the first object is heavier than the second, compare the velocities gained by the two people as a result of recoil.
A:
The first person will gain more velocity as a result of recoil.
B:
The second person will gain more velocity as a result of recoil.
C:
Both people will gain the same velocity as a result of recoil.
D:
The velocity of both people will be zero as a result of recoil.

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inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex050

ID: 2694@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.358Z

Question:
If a person with mass $70\,\text{kg}$ , standing still, throws an object with mass $5\,\text{kg}$ at $50\,\text{m/s}$ , what will be the recoil velocity of the person, assuming he is standing on a frictionless surface?
A:
<span data-math="-3.5\,\text{m/s}">-3.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.5\,\text{m/s}">3.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50\,\text{m/s}">50\,\text{m/s}</span>

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inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex051

ID: 2695@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.364Z

Question:
Find the recoil velocity of a $65\,text{kg}$ ice hockey goalie who catches a $0.15\,text{kg}$ hockey puck slapped at him at a velocity of $50\,\text{m/s}$ . Assume that the goalie is at rest before catching the puck, and friction between the ice and the puck-goalie system is negligible.
A:
<span data-math="-0.12\,\text{m/s}">-0.12\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.12\,\text{m/s}">0.12\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="7.5\,\text{m/s}">7.5\,\text{m/s}</span>

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inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex052

ID: 2696@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.375Z

Question:
In which type of collision is kinetic energy conserved?
A:
elastic
B:
inelastic

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex053

ID: 2697@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.387Z

Question:
In physics, what are structureless particles that cannot rotate or spin called?
A:
elastic particles
B:
point masses
C:
rigid masses

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex054

ID: 2698@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.398Z

Question:
Two objects collide with each other and come to a rest. How can you use the equation of conservation of momentum to describe this situation?
A:
<span data-math="m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2 = 0">m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2 = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="m_1 v_1 - m_2 v_2 = 0">m_1 v_1 - m_2 v_2 = 0</span>
C:
<span data-math="m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2 = m_1 v^\prime_1">m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2 = m_1 v^\prime_1</span>
D:
<span data-math="m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2 = m_1 v^\prime_2">m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2 = m_1 v^\prime_2</span>

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex055

ID: 2699@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.409Z

Question:
What is the difference between momentum and impulse?
A:
Momentum is the sum of mass and velocity. Impulse is the change in momentum.
B:
Momentum is the sum of mass and velocity. Impulse is the rate of change in momentum.
C:
Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. Impulse is the change in momentum.
D:
Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. Impulse is the rate of change in momentum.

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex056

ID: 2700@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.426Z

Question:
What is the equation for conservation of momentum along the x-axis for 2D collisions in terms of mass and velocity, where one of the particles is initially at rest?
A:
<span data-math="m_1 v_1 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \cos \theta _1">m_1 v_1 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \cos \theta _1</span>
B:
<span data-math="m_1 v_1 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \cos \theta _1 + m_2 v^\prime_2 \cos \theta _2">m_1 v_1 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \cos \theta _1 + m_2 v^\prime_2 \cos \theta _2</span>
C:
<span data-math="m_1 v_1 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \cos \theta _1 - m_2 v^\prime_2 \cos \theta _2">m_1 v_1 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \cos \theta _1 - m_2 v^\prime_2 \cos \theta _2</span>
D:
<span data-math="m_1 v_1 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \sin \theta _1 + m_2 v^\prime_2 \sin \theta _2">m_1 v_1 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \sin \theta _1 + m_2 v^\prime_2 \sin \theta _2</span>

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex057

ID: 2701@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.437Z

Question:
What is the equation for conservation of momentum along the y-axis for 2D collisions in terms of mass and velocity, where one of the particles is initially at rest?
A:
<span data-math="0 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \sin \theta _1">0 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \sin \theta _1</span>
B:
<span data-math="0 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \sin \theta _1 + m_2 v^\prime_2 \sin \theta _2">0 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \sin \theta _1 + m_2 v^\prime_2 \sin \theta _2</span>
C:
<span data-math="0 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \sin \theta _1 - m_2 v^\prime_2 \sin \theta _2">0 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \sin \theta _1 - m_2 v^\prime_2 \sin \theta _2</span>
D:
<span data-math="0 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \cos \theta _1 + m_2 v^\prime_2 \cos \theta _2">0 = m_1 v^\prime_1 \cos \theta _1 + m_2 v^\prime_2 \cos \theta _2</span>

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inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex058

ID: 2702@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.444Z

Question:
A driver sees another car approaching him from behind. He fears it is going to collide with his car. Should he speed up or slow down in order to reduce damage?
A:
He should speed up.
B:
He should slow down.
C:
He should speed up and then slow down just before the collision.
D:
He should slow down and then speed up just before the collision.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ex059

ID: 2703@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.462Z

Question:
What approach would you use to solve problems involving 2D collisions?
A:
Break the momentum into components and then choose a coordinate system.
B:
Choose a coordinate system and then break the momentum into components.
C:
Find the total momentum in the x direction and y direction, and then equate them to solve for the unknown.
D:
Find the sum of the momenta in the x and y directions and then equate it to zero to solve for the unknown.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-short k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ex060

ID: 2704@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.473Z

Question:
What is the mass of an object traveling at $20\,\text{m/s}$ and having a momentum of $60\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="1/3\,\text{kg}">1/3\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3\,\text{kg}">3\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="80\,\text{kg}">80\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1200\,\text{kg}">1200\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ot001

ID: 2705@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.485Z

Question:
What is the velocity of a $10\,\text{kg}$ object that has a momentum of $55 \,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="\frac{2}{11}\,\text{m/s}">\frac{2}{11}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.5\,\text{m/s}">5.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="65\,\text{m/s}">65\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="550\,\text{m/s}">550\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ot002

ID: 2706@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.496Z

Question:
How much force would be needed to cause a $15\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ change in the momentum of an object, if the force acted for $5$ seconds?
A:
<span data-math="3\,\text{N}">3\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="10\,\text{N}">10\,\text{N}</span>
C:
<span data-math="20\,\text{N}">20\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="75\,\text{N}">75\,\text{N}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ot003

ID: 2707@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.509Z

Question:
For how long should a force of $50\,\text{N}$ be applied to change the momentum of an object by $12\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.24\,\text{s}">0.24\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.15\,\text{s}">4.15\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="62\,\text{s}">62\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="600\,\text{s}">600\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ot004

ID: 2708@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.520Z

Question:
What is the SI unit of momentum?
A:
<span data-math="\text{N}">\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{kg} \cdot \text{m}">\text{kg} \cdot \text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}^2">\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}^2</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot005

ID: 2709@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.525Z

Question:
What is the equation for linear momentum?
A:
<span data-math="p = mv">p = mv</span>
B:
<span data-math="p = m/v">p = m/v</span>
C:
p = <span data-math="\text{mv}^2">\text{mv}^2</span>
D:
<span data-math="p = \frac{1}{2}\text{mv}^2">p = \frac{1}{2}\text{mv}^2</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot006

ID: 2710@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.542Z

Question:
What is the statement for Newton’s second law in terms of momentum?
A:
The net external force equals the change in momentum of a system.
B:
The net external force equals the change in momentum of a system divided by the time during which it changes.
C:
The net internal force equals the change in momentum of a system.
D:
The net internal force equals the change in momentum of a system divided by the time during which it changes.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot007

ID: 2711@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.548Z

Question:
What is the equation for Newton’s second law in terms of momentum?
A:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \Delta p \Delta t">F_\text{net} = \Delta p \Delta t</span>
B:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{m \Delta p}{\Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{m \Delta p}{\Delta t}</span>
D:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = m\Delta p\Delta t">F_\text{net} = m\Delta p\Delta t</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot008

ID: 2712@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.559Z

Question:
True or False: Two people riding the same rollercoaster will always have the same momentum.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot009

ID: 2713@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.571Z

Question:
What is the SI unit of impulse?
A:
<span data-math="\text{kg} \cdot \text{m}">\text{kg} \cdot \text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{kg/m}">\text{kg/m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}^2">\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}^2</span>

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot010

ID: 2714@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.700Z

Question:
How does a car airbag reduce the impact of the person driving?
A:
by instantly changing the momentum of the driver to zero
B:
by instantly reversing the direction of momentum of the driver
C:
by decreasing the time over which the momentum of the driver changes
D:
by increasing the time over which the momentum of the driver changes

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot011

ID: 2715@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.706Z

Question:
Which form of Newton’s second law would you use to solve a problem in which mass varies?
A:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{m\Delta v}{\Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{m\Delta v}{\Delta t}</span>
B:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{m\Delta p}{\Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{m\Delta p}{\Delta t}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta p}{\Delta t}</span>
D:
<span data-math="F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}">F_\text{net} = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}</span>

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot012

ID: 2716@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.718Z

Question:
What is the equation for the impulse-momentum theorem?
A:
<span data-math="\Delta p = \Delta v \Delta t">\Delta p = \Delta v \Delta t</span>
B:
<span data-math="\Delta p = F_\text{net} \Delta t">\Delta p = F_\text{net} \Delta t</span>
C:
<span data-math="\Delta p = \frac{F_\text{net}}{\Delta t}">\Delta p = \frac{F_\text{net}}{\Delta t}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\Delta p = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}">\Delta p = \frac{\Delta v}{\Delta t}</span>

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot013

ID: 2717@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.733Z

Question:
According to the impulse-momentum theorem, what does impulse depend on?
A:
on the magnitude of force
B:
on the duration over which the force acts
C:
on the magnitude of force as well as the duration over which it acts
D:
on the magnitude of force and acceleration, as well as the duration over which it acts.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot014

ID: 2718@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.747Z

Question:
What is the direction of the momentum of an object in freefall?
A:
left
B:
right
C:
upward
D:
downward

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot015

ID: 2719@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.759Z

Question:
A ball is hit by a bat and travels from east to west. What is the direction of its momentum?
A:
west to east
B:
east to west
C:
north to south
D:
south to north

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot016

ID: 2720@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.771Z

Question:
True or False: If an object’s acceleration is constant, its momentum is constant. Note: Assume the object has constant mass.
A:
True
B:
False

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ID: 2721@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.782Z

Question:
In a game of tennis, a ball traveling at $60\,\text{m/s}$ is hit by a racket and travels in the opposite direction at $60\,\text{m/s}$ . True or False: There is a change in momentum.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok3 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot018

ID: 2722@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.795Z

Question:
Is it better to bend your knees while jumping from a height than remaining stiff legged? Why?
A:
Yes, bending your knees will give your momentum more time to change.
B:
No, bending your knees will give your momentum more time to change.
C:
Yes, bending your knees will give your momentum less time to change.
D:
No, bending your knees will give your momentum less time to change.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot019

ID: 2723@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.807Z

Question:
A glass falling on a cushion does not break, but one falling on a hard floor does. Why?
A:
The cushion lessens the force of impact by decreasing the duration over which the force acts.
B:
The cushion lessens the force of impact by increasing the duration over which the force acts.
C:
The cushion lessens the force of impact by increasing the change in momentum.
D:
The cushion lessens the force of impact by decreasing the change in momentum.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot020

ID: 2724@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.819Z

Question:
A $1050\,\text{kg}$ car is traveling at $20\,\text{m/s}$ . The accelerator can apply a force of $250\,\text{N}$ . For how long should this be applied to change the car’s velocity to $25\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.05\,\text{s}">0.05\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.2\,\text{s}">4.2\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5\,\text{s}">5\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="21\,\text{s}">21\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ot021

ID: 2725@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.836Z

Question:
A $2000\,\text{kg}$ car is traveling at $15\,\text{m/s}$ . If a force of $120\,\text{N}$ is applied to the car in the same direction it is already moving for $5$ seconds, what will its final velocity be?
A:
<span data-math="-15.4\,\text{m/s}">-15.4\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-14.7\,\text{m/s}">-14.7\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="14.7\,\text{m/s}">14.7\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="15.4\,\text{m/s}">15.4\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ot022

ID: 2726@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.842Z

Question:
A $70\,\text{kg}$ soccer player, running at $10\,\text{m/s}$ kicks a $0.4\,\text{kg}$ ball, which travels at $50\,\text{m/s}$ . What is the momentum of (a) the player, and (b) the ball?
A:
Momentum of the player is <span data-math="80\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">80\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span> and that of the ball is <span data-math="50.4\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">50.4\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>.
B:
Momentum of the player is <span data-math="60 \,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">60 \,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span> and that of the ball is <span data-math="49.6 \,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">49.6 \,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>.
C:
Momentum of the player is <span data-math="7\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">7\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span> and that of the ball is <span data-math="0.008\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">0.008\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>.
D:
Momentum of the player is <span data-math="700 \,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">700 \,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span> and that of the ball is <span data-math="20\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">20\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>.

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dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ot023

ID: 2727@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.854Z

Question:
A car collides with another car with a force of $2000\,\text{N}$ . This causes the second car’s velocity to change from $20\,\text{m/s}$ to $30\,\text{m/s}$ . The duration of contact between the cars was $2\,\text{s}$ . What is the mass of the second car?
A:
<span data-math="10\,\text{kg}">10\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="40\,\text{kg}">40\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="400\,\text{kg}">400\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2000\,\text{kg}">2000\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s01 k12phys-ch08-s01-lo03 k12phys-ch08-ot024

ID: 2728@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.866Z

Question:
State the law of conservation of momentum.
A:
Momentum is conserved for an isolated system with any number of objects in it.
B:
Momentum is conserved for an isolated system with an even number of objects in it.
C:
Momentum is conserved for an interacting system with any number of objects in it.
D:
Momentum is conserved for an interacting system with an even number of objects in it.

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ID: 2729@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.878Z

Question:
How can you state the law of conservation of momentum in equation form?
A:
<span data-math="\frac{p_\text{tot}}{p^\prime_\text{tot}} = 0">\frac{p_\text{tot}}{p^\prime_\text{tot}} = 0</span>
B:
<span data-math="p_\text{tot} \times p^\prime_\text{tot} = 1">p_\text{tot} \times p^\prime_\text{tot} = 1</span>
C:
<span data-math="\frac{p_\text{tot}}{p\prime_\text{tot}} = 1">\frac{p_\text{tot}}{p\prime_\text{tot}} = 1</span>
D:
<span data-math="p_\text{tot} = p^\prime_\text{tot}">p_\text{tot} = p^\prime_\text{tot}</span>

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot026

ID: 2730@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.896Z

Question:
What is an isolated system?
A:
a system in which the net internal force is zero
B:
a system in which the net external force is zero
C:
a system in which the net internal force is a nonzero constant
D:
a system in which the net external force is a nonzero constant

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot027

ID: 2731@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.902Z

Question:
Give an example of an isolated system.
A:
a cyclist on a rough road
B:
a figure skater on an ice rink
C:
a baseball player hitting a home run
D:
a man drawing water from a well

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot028

ID: 2732@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.914Z

Question:
How is angular momentum expressed in terms of moment of inertia and angular velocity?
A:
<span data-math="L = \frac{I}{\omega }">L = \frac{I}{\omega }</span>
B:
<span data-math="L = \frac{\omega }{I}">L = \frac{\omega }{I}</span>
C:
<span data-math="L = I \omega">L = I \omega</span>
D:
<span data-math="L = \frac{1}{2}I\omega^2">L = \frac{1}{2}I\omega^2</span>

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot029

ID: 2733@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.925Z

Question:
If both the moment of inertia and the angular velocity of a system increase, what must be true of the force acting on the system?
A:
Force is zero.
B:
Force is not zero.
C:
Force is constant.
D:
Force is decreasing.

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot030

ID: 2734@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.943Z

Question:
A ball rolling on the floor with momentum $p_1$ collides with a stationary ball and sets it in motion. The momentum of the first ball becomes $p^\prime_1$ , and that of the second becomes $p^\prime_2$ . Compare the magnitudes of $p_1$ and $p^\prime_2$ .
A:
Momenta <span data-math="p_1">p_1</span> and <span data-math="p^\prime_2">p^\prime_2</span> are the same in magnitude.
B:
The sum of the magnitudes of <span data-math="p_1">p_1</span> and <span data-math="p^\prime_2">p^\prime_2</span> is zero.
C:
The magnitude of <span data-math="p_1">p_1</span> is greater than that of <span data-math="p^\prime_2">p^\prime_2</span>
D:
The magnitude of <span data-math="p^\prime_2">p^\prime_2</span> is greater than that of <span data-math="p_1">p_1</span>

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dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot031

ID: 2735@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.948Z

Question:
Two cars are moving in the same direction. One car with momentum $p_1$ collides with another, which has momentum $p_2$ . Their momenta become $p^\prime_1$ and $p^\prime_2$ respectively. Considering frictional losses, compare $(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)$ with $(p_1 + p_2)$ .
A:
The value of <span data-math="(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)">(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)</span> is zero.
B:
The values of <span data-math="(p_1 + p_2)">(p_1 + p_2)</span> and <span data-math="(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)">(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)</span> are equal.
C:
The value of <span data-math="(p_1 + p_2)">(p_1 + p_2)</span> will be greater than <span data-math="(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)">(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)</span>.
D:
The value of <span data-math="(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)">(p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2)</span> will be greater than <span data-math="(p_1 + p_2)">(p_1 + p_2)</span>.

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dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-short critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s02 k12phys-ch08-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot032

ID: 2736@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.966Z

Question:
In an elastic collision, an object with momentum $12\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ collides with another. The final momenta of each are $14\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ and $16\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ respectively. What was the initial momentum of the second object?
A:
<span data-math="-42\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">-42\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-14\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">-14\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="14\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">14\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="18\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">18\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>

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ID: 2737@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.978Z

Question:
In an inelastic collision, two objects collide with each other and come to a rest. The first object’s initial momentum was $25\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ . What was the second object’s initial momentum?
A:
<span data-math="-25\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">-25\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">0\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="25\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">25\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">50\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot034

ID: 2738@1

2015-08-20T13:11:40.990Z

Question:
In an inelastic collision, two objects collide with each other and come to a rest. The first object’s initial momentum was $30\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}$ . If the second object’s mass is $40\,\text{kg}$ , what was its initial momentum?
A:
<span data-math="-30\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">-30\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">0\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="30\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">30\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="40\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">40\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot035

ID: 2739@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.002Z

Question:
In an inelastic collision, two objects of mass $6\,\text{kg}$ and $10\,\text{kg}$ traveling at $4\,\text{m/s}$ and $50\,\text{m/s}$ respectively, collide with each other and get stuck together. What is their final velocity?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="27\,\text{m/s}">27\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="33\,\text{m/s}">33\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="54\,\text{m/s}">54\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2740@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.014Z

Question:
What is the equation for conservation of momentum for two objects in a one-dimensional collision?
A:
<span data-math="p_1 + p^\prime_1 = p_2 + p^\prime_2">p_1 + p^\prime_1 = p_2 + p^\prime_2</span>
B:
<span data-math="p_1 + p_2 = p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2">p_1 + p_2 = p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2</span>
C:
<span data-math="p_1 - p_2 = p^\prime_1 - p^\prime_2">p_1 - p_2 = p^\prime_1 - p^\prime_2</span>
D:
<span data-math="p_1 + p_2 + p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2 = 0">p_1 + p_2 + p^\prime_1 + p^\prime_2 = 0</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot037

ID: 2741@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.030Z

Question:
What is an inelastic collision?
A:
An inelastic collision is one in which objects stick together after impact, and their internal energy is not conserved.
B:
An inelastic collision is one in which objects stick together after impact, and their internal energy is conserved.
C:
An inelastic collision is one in which objects stick together after impact, and always come to rest instantaneously after collision.
D:
An inelastic collision is one in which objects stick together after impact, and their internal energy increases.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot038

ID: 2742@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.042Z

Question:
Through what means is energy lost in collisions between everyday objects?
A:
due to friction experienced by the objects
B:
due to transfer of velocity between the objects
C:
due to transfer of momentum between the objects
D:
due to change in the direction of the objects

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot039

ID: 2743@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.054Z

Question:
What is recoil?
A:
the momentum of a spring coil when the external compressing force is removed
B:
the difference between the final momentum and the initial momentum of the object
C:
the backward momentum felt by an object or person exerting force on another object
D:
the difference between the total momentum of the system after impact and the total momentum of the system before impact

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot040

ID: 2744@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.065Z

Question:
Two objects having equal masses and velocities collide with each other and come to a rest. What type of a collision is this and why?
A:
elastic collision because internal kinetic energy is conserved
B:
inelastic collision because internal kinetic energy is not conserved
C:
elastic collision because internal kinetic energy is not conserved
D:
inelastic collision because internal kinetic energy is conserved

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot041

ID: 2745@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.077Z

Question:
Two objects having equal masses and velocities collide with each other and come to a rest. Is momentum conserved in this case?
A:
Yes
B:
No

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot042

ID: 2746@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.094Z

Question:
A car with velocity $v_1$ crashes into another car that is stationary. What is the direction of the resultant velocity of the second car?
A:
same as the direction of <span data-math="v_1">v_1</span>
B:
opposite the direction of <span data-math="v_1">v_1</span>
C:
remains stationary
D:
perpendicular to the direction of <span data-math="v_1">v_1</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot043

ID: 2747@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.100Z

Question:
A ball with momentum $p_1$ bounces against a wall and its momentum changes to $p^\prime_1$ . If this is a perfectly elastic collision, how can you describe this in equation form?
A:
<span data-math="p_1 = p^\prime_1">p_1 = p^\prime_1</span>
B:
<span data-math="p^\prime_1 = 0">p^\prime_1 = 0</span>
C:
<span data-math="p_1 - p^\prime_1 = 0">p_1 - p^\prime_1 = 0</span>
D:
<span data-math="p_1 + p^\prime_1 = 0">p_1 + p^\prime_1 = 0</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch08-ot044

ID: 2748@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.111Z

Question:
A person with mass $50\,\text{kg}$ , standing still, throws an object with mass $12\,\text{kg}$ . If the recoil velocity of the person is $2\,\text{m/s}$ , what is the velocity at which he threw the object? Assume the surface to be frictionless.
A:
<span data-math="-8.33\,\text{m/s}">-8.33\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-2.00\,\text{m/s}">-2.00\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.00\,\text{m/s}">2.00\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="8.33\,\text{m/s}">8.33\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot045

ID: 2749@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.129Z

Question:
A person with mass $65\,\text{kg}$ , standing still, throws an object at $4\,\text{m/s}$ . If the recoil velocity of the person is $3.5\,\text{m/s}$ , what is the mass of the object? Assume the surface to be frictionless.
A:
<span data-math="−65\,\text{kg}">−65\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="−56.8\,\text{kg}">−56.8\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="56.8\,\text{kg}">56.8\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="65\,\text{kg}">65\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot046

ID: 2750@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.136Z

Question:
Two pucks collide on an air hockey table and bounce off each other in opposite directions. Each puck has a mass of $0.2\,\text{kg}$ . Puck 1 has an initial velocity of $10\,\text{m/s}$ , and puck 2 has an initial velocity of $−25\,\text{m/s}$ . After the collision, puck 1 recoils with a velocity of $−5\,\text{m/s}$ . What is the final velocity of puck 2?
A:
<span data-math="−40\,\text{m/s}">−40\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="−10\,\text{m/s}">−10\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="40\,\text{m/s}">40\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot047

ID: 2751@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.152Z

Question:
A billiards ball of mass $0.4\,\text{kg}$ strikes another, initially stationary ball of the same mass. The first ball is deflected and travels at an angle of $30^\circ$ with its original direction. Its initial speed was $12\,\text{m/s}$ and after the collision, it is $8\,\text{m/s}$ . What are the magnitude and direction of velocity of the second ball after collision?
A:
<span data-math="v^\prime_2 = 19.4\,\text{m/s}, \,\theta _2 = 11.9^\circ">v^\prime_2 = 19.4\,\text{m/s}, \,\theta _2 = 11.9^\circ</span>
B:
<span data-math="v^\prime_2 = 8 \,\text{m/s}, \,\theta _2 = 30^\circ">v^\prime_2 = 8 \,\text{m/s}, \,\theta _2 = 30^\circ</span>
C:
<span data-math="v^\prime_2 = 6.45 \,\text{m/s},\,\theta _2 = 38.26^\circ">v^\prime_2 = 6.45 \,\text{m/s},\,\theta _2 = 38.26^\circ</span>
D:
<span data-math="v^\prime_2 = 6.45\,\text{m/s}, \,\theta _2 = 321.7^\circ">v^\prime_2 = 6.45\,\text{m/s}, \,\theta _2 = 321.7^\circ</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch08 k12phys-ch08-s03 k12phys-ch08-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch08-ot048

ID: 2752@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.165Z

Question:
True or False: An object’s energy increase is always constant when work on the object is done by gravity.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex001

ID: 2753@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.180Z

Question:
Which form of mechanical energy does the steam engine generate?
A:
potential energy
B:
kinetic energy
C:
nuclear energy
D:
solar energy

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex002

ID: 2754@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.196Z

Question:
An ice skater with a mass of $50\,\text{kg}$ is gliding across the ice at a speed of $8\,\text{m/s}$ when her friend comes up from behind and gives her a push, causing her speed to increase to $12\,\text{m/s}$ . How much work did the friend do on the skater?
A:
<span data-math="-2000\,\text{J}">-2000\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-100\,\text{J}">-100\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="100\,\text{J}">100\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2000\,\text{J}">2000\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex003

ID: 2755@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.214Z

Question:
How much work is done when a weightlifter lifts a $200\,\text{N}$ barbell from the floor to a height of $2\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{J}">0\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="100\,\text{J}">100\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="200\,\text{J}">200\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="400\,\text{J}">400\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex004

ID: 2756@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.220Z

Question:

Identify which of the following actions generates more power. Show your work.

  • carrying a $100\,\text{N}$ TV to the second floor in $50\,\text{s}$ or
  • carrying a $24\,\text{N}$ watermelon to the second floor in $10\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
Carrying a <span data-math="100\,\text{N}">100\,\text{N}</span> TV generates more power than carrying a <span data-math="24\,\text{N}">24\,\text{N}</span> watermelon to the same height because power is defined as work done times the time interval.
B:
Carrying a <span data-math="100\,\text{N}">100\,\text{N}</span> TV generates more power than carrying a <span data-math="24\,\text{N}">24\,\text{N}</span> watermelon to the same height because power is defined as the ratio of work done to the time interval.
C:
Carrying a <span data-math="24\,\text{N}">24\,\text{N}</span> watermelon generates more power than carrying a <span data-math="100\,\text{N}">100\,\text{N}</span> TV to the same height because power is defined as work done times the time interval.
D:
Carrying a <span data-math="24\,\text{N}">24\,\text{N}</span> watermelon generates more power than carrying a <span data-math="100\,\text{N}">100\,\text{N}</span> TV to the same height because power is defined as the ratio of work done and the time interval.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex005

ID: 2757@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.237Z

Question:
Identify two properties that are expressed in units of joules.
A:
work and force
B:
energy and weight
C:
work and energy
D:
weight and force

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex006

ID: 2758@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.249Z

Question:
When a coconut falls from a tree, work $W$ is done on it as it falls to the beach. This work is described by the equation: $W = Fd = \frac{1}{2} mv_2^2 - \frac{1}{2} mv_1^2$ Identify the quantities $F$ , $d$ , $m$ , $v_1$ , and $v_2$ in this event.
A:
<span data-math="F">F</span> is the force of gravity, which is equal to the weight of the coconut, <span data-math="d">d</span> is the distance the nut falls, <span data-math="m">m</span> is the mass of the earth, <span data-math="v_1">v_1</span> is the initial velocity, and <span data-math="v_2">v_2</span> is the velocity with which it hits the beach.
B:
<span data-math="F">F</span> is the force of gravity, which is equal to the weight of the coconut, <span data-math="d">d</span> is the distance the nut falls, <span data-math="m">m</span> is the mass of the coconut, <span data-math="v_1">v_1</span> is the initial velocity, and <span data-math="v_2">v_2</span> is the velocity with which it hits the beach.
C:
<span data-math="F">F</span> is the force of gravity, which is equal to the weight of the coconut, <span data-math="d">d</span> is the distance the nut falls, <span data-math="m">m</span> is the mass of the earth, <span data-math="v_1">v_1</span> is the velocity with which it hits the beach, and <span data-math="v_2">v_2</span> is the initial velocity.
D:
<span data-math="F">F</span> is the force of gravity, which is equal to the weight of the coconut, <span data-math="d">d</span> is the distance the nut falls, <span data-math="m">m</span> is the mass of the coconut, <span data-math="v_1">v_1</span> is the velocity with which it hits the beach, and <span data-math="v_2">v_2</span> is the initial velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex007

ID: 2759@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.258Z

Question:
Is it possible for the kinetic energy of an object to change without work having been done on the object? Explain.
A:
No, because the work-energy theorem states that work done on an object is equal to the change in kinetic energy, and change in KE requires a change in velocity. It is assumed that mass is constant.
B:
No, because the work-energy theorem states that work done on an object is equal to the sum of kinetic energy, and the change in KE requires a change in displacement. It is assumed that mass is constant.
C:
Yes, because the work-energy theorem states that work done on an object is equal to the change in kinetic energy, and change in KE requires a change in velocity. It is assumed that mass is constant.
D:
Yes, because the work-energy theorem states that work done on an object is equal to the sum of kinetic energy, and the change in KE requires a change in displacement. It is assumed that mass is constant.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex008

ID: 2760@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.270Z

Question:
Which activity requires a person to exert force on an object that causes the object to move but does not change the kinetic or potential energy of the object?
A:
moving an object to a greater height with acceleration
B:
moving an object to a greater height without acceleration
C:
carrying an object with acceleration at the same height
D:
carrying an object without acceleration at the same height

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex009

ID: 2761@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.286Z

Question:
A baseball player exerts a force of $100\,\text{N}$ on a ball for a distance of $0.5\,\text{m}$ as he throws it. If the ball has a mass of $0.15\,\text{kg}$ , what is its velocity as it leaves his hand?
A:
<span data-math="-36.5\,\text{m/s}">-36.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-25.8\,\text{m/s}">-25.8\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="25.8\,\text{m/s}">25.8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="36.5\,\text{m/s}">36.5\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex010

ID: 2762@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.304Z

Question:
A boy pushes his little sister on a sled. The sled accelerates from $0$ to $3\,\text{m/s}$ . If the combined mass of his sister and the sled is $40\,\text{kg}$ and $1\,\text{W}$ of power were generated, how long did the boy push the sled?
A:
<span data-math="0.10\,\text{s}">0.10\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.15\,\text{s}">0.15\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="6.67\,\text{s}">6.67\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="10.0\,\text{s}">10.0\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex011

ID: 2763@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.309Z

Question:
Which expression represents power?
A:
<span data-math="fd">fd</span>
B:
<span data-math="mgh">mgh</span>
C:
<span data-math="\frac{mv^2}{2}">\frac{mv^2}{2}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\frac{W}{t}">\frac{W}{t}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex012

ID: 2764@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.322Z

Question:
The work-energy theorem states that the change in the kinetic energy of an object is equal to what?
A:
the work done on the object
B:
the force applied to the object
C:
the loss of the object’s potential energy
D:
the object’s total mechanical energy minus its kinetic energy

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex013

ID: 2765@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.339Z

Question:
Describe two ways in which doing work on an object can increase its mechanical energy.
A:
Raising an object to a higher elevation does work as it increases its PE; increasing the speed of an object does work as it increases its KE.
B:
Raising an object to a higher elevation does work as it increases its KE; increasing the speed of an object does work as it increases its PE.
C:
Raising an object to a higher elevation does work as it increases its PE; decreasing the speed of an object does work as it increases its KE.
D:
Raising an object to a higher elevation does work as it increases its KE; decreasing the speed of an object does work as it increases its PE.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex014

ID: 2766@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.346Z

Question:
True or False: While riding a bicycle up a gentle hill, it is fairly easy to increase your potential energy, but to increase your kinetic energy would make you feel exhausted.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex015

ID: 2767@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.363Z

Question:
Which statement best explains why running on a track with constant speed at $3\,\text{m/s}$ is not work but climbing a mountain at $1\,\text{m/s}$ is work?
A:
At constant speed, change in the kinetic energy is zero but climbing a mountain produces change in the potential energy.
B:
At constant speed, change in the potential energy is zero, but climbing a mountain produces change in the kinetic energy.
C:
At constant speed, change in the kinetic energy is finite, but climbing a mountain produces no change in the potential energy.
D:
At constant speed, change in the potential energy is finite, but climbing a mountain produces no change in the kinetic energy.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex016

ID: 2768@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.377Z

Question:
You start at the top of a hill on a bicycle and coast to the bottom without applying the brakes. By the time you reach the bottom of the hill, work has been done on you and your bicycle, according to the equation: $W = \frac{1}{2}m(v_2^{\,2} - v_1^{\,2})$ If $m$ is the mass of you and your bike, what are ${v_1}\!$ and ${v_2}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{v_1}">{v_1}</span> is your speed at the top of the hill, and <span data-math="{v_2}">{v_2}</span> is your speed at the bottom.
B:
<span data-math="{v_1}">{v_1}</span> is your speed at the bottom of the hill, and <span data-math="{v_2}">{v_2}</span> is your speed at the top.
C:
<span data-math="{v_1}">{v_1}</span> is your displacement at the top of the hill, and <span data-math="{v_2}">{v_2}</span> is your displacement at the bottom.
D:
<span data-math="{v_1}">{v_1}</span> is your displacement at the bottom of the hill, and <span data-math="{v_2}">{v_2}</span> is your displacement at the top.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex017

ID: 2769@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.389Z

Question:

Work can be negative as well as positive because an object or system can do work on its surroundings as well as have work done on it. Which of the following statements describes:

  1. a situation in which an object does work on its surroundings by decreasing its velocity and
  2. a situation in which an object can do work on its surroundings by decreasing its altitude?
A:
<ol> <li>A gasoline engine burns less fuel at a slower speed.</li> <li>Solar cells capture sunlight to generate electricity.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>A hybrid car charges its batteries as it decelerates.</li> <li>Falling water turns a turbine to generate electricity.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>Airplane flaps use air resistance to slow down for landing.</li> <li>Rising steam turns a turbine to generate electricity.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>An electric train requires less electrical energy as it decelerates.</li> <li>A parachute captures air to slow a skydiver’s fall.</li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-simple-mc time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex018

ID: 2770@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.401Z

Question:
A boy is pulling a girl in a child’s wagon at a constant speed. He begins to pull harder, which increases the speed of the wagon. Which of the following describes two ways you could calculate the change in energy of the wagon and girl if you had all the information you needed?
A:
<ol> <li>Calculate work done from the force and the velocity.</li> <li>Calculate work done from the change in the potential energy of the system.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>Calculate work done from the force and the displacement.</li> <li>Calculate work done from the change in the potential energy of the system.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>Calculate work done from the force and the velocity.</li> <li>Calculate work done from the change in the kinetic energy of the system.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>Calculate work done from the force and the displacement.</li> <li>Calculate work done from the change in the kinetic energy of the system.</li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex019

ID: 2771@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.418Z

Question:
The bar graphs show how KE and PE are transformed back and forth. Which statement best explains what happens to the mechanical energy of the system as speed is increasing?
A:
The mechanical energy of the system increases, provided there is no loss of energy due to friction. The energy would transform to kinetic energy when the speed is increasing.
B:
The mechanical energy of the system remains constant provided there is no loss of energy due to friction. The energy would transform to kinetic energy when the speed is increasing.
C:
The mechanical energy of the system increases provided there is no loss of energy due to friction. The energy would transform to potential energy when the speed is increasing.
D:
The mechanical energy of the system remains constant provided there is no loss of energy due to friction. The energy would transform to potential energy when the speed is increasing.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex020

ID: 2772@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.430Z

Question:
Did you expect the speed at the bottom of the slope to be the same as when the object fell straight down? Which statement best explains why this is not exactly the case in real-life situations?
A:
The speed was the same in the scenario in the animation because the object was sliding on the ice, where there is large amount of friction. In real life, much of the mechanical energy is lost as heat caused by friction.
B:
The speed was the same in the scenario in the animation because the object was sliding on the ice, where there is small amount of friction. In real life, much of the mechanical energy is lost as heat caused by friction.
C:
The speed was the same in the scenario in the animation because the object was sliding on the ice, where there is large amount of friction. In real life, no mechanical energy is lost due to conservation of the mechanical energy.
D:
The speed was the same in the scenario in the animation because the object was sliding on the ice, where there is small amount of friction. In real life, no mechanical energy is lost due to conservation of the mechanical energy.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 blooms-4 time-short display-simple-mc k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex021

ID: 2773@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.436Z

Question:
A $10\,\text{kg}$ rock falls from a $20\,\text{m}$ cliff. What are the kinetic and potential energy when the rock has fallen $10\,\text{m}$ ? (Round $g$ to $10\text{m/s}^2\!$ .)
A:
<span data-math="\text{KE} = 980\,\text{J}">\text{KE} = 980\,\text{J}</span> and <span data-math="\text{PE} = 980\,\text{J}">\text{PE} = 980\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="\text{KE} = 1960\,\text{J}">\text{KE} = 1960\,\text{J}</span> and <span data-math="\text{PE} = 980\,\text{J}">\text{PE} = 980\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="\text{KE} = 980\,\text{J}">\text{KE} = 980\,\text{J}</span> and <span data-math="\text{PE} = 1960\,\text{J}">\text{PE} = 1960\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="\text{KE} = 1960\,\text{J}">\text{KE} = 1960\,\text{J}</span> and <span data-math="\text{PE} = 1960\,\text{J}">\text{PE} = 1960\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex022

ID: 2774@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.453Z

Question:
A child slides down a playground slide. If the slide is $3\,\text{m}$ high and the child weighs $300\,\text{N}$ , how much potential energy does the child have at the top of the slide? (Round $g$ to $10\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ .)
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{J}">0\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="100\,\text{J}">100\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="300\,\text{J}">300\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="900\,\text{J}">900\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex023

ID: 2775@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.459Z

Question:
A $0.2\,\text{kg}$ apple on an apple tree has a potential energy of $10\,\text{J}$ . It falls to the ground, converting all of its PE to kinetic energy. What is the velocity of the apple just before it hits the ground?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{m/s}">0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2\,\text{m/s}">2\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50\,\text{m/s}">50\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex024

ID: 2776@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.470Z

Question:
Galileo’s experiments proved that, contrary to popular belief, heavy objects do not fall faster than light objects. How do the equations you used support this fact?
A:
Heavy objects do not fall faster than the light objects because while conserving the mechanical energy of the system, the mass term gets cancelled and the velocity is independent of the mass. In real life, the variation in the velocity of the different objects is observed because of the finite air resistance.
B:
Heavy objects do not fall faster than the light objects because while conserving the mechanical energy of the system, the mass term does not get cancelled and the velocity is dependent on the mass. In real life, the variation in the velocity of the different objects is observed because of the finite air resistance.
C:
Heavy objects do not fall faster than the light objects because while conserving the mechanical energy the system, the mass term gets cancelled and the velocity is independent of the mass. In real life, the variation in the velocity of the different objects is observed because of zero air resistance.
D:
Heavy objects do not fall faster than the light objects because while conserving the mechanical energy of the system, the mass term does not get cancelled and the velocity is dependent on the mass. In real life, the variation in the velocity of the different objects is observed because of zero air resistance.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex025

ID: 2777@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.482Z

Question:
Describe the transformation between forms of mechanical energy that is happening to a falling skydiver.
A:
Kinetic energy is being transformed into potential energy.
B:
Potential energy is being transformed into kinetic energy.
C:
Work is being transformed into kinetic energy.
D:
Kinetic energy is being transformed into work.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex026

ID: 2778@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.500Z

Question:
True or False: If a rock is thrown into the air, the increase in the height would increase the rock’s kinetic energy, and then the increase in the velocity as it falls to the ground would increase its potential energy.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex027

ID: 2779@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.505Z

Question:
Describe the changes in KE and PE of a person jumping up and down on a trampoline.
A:
While going up, the person’s KE would change to PE. While coming down, the person’s PE would change to KE.
B:
While going up, the person’s PE would change to KE. While coming down, the person’s KE would change to PE.
C:
While going up, the person’s KE would not change, but while coming down, the person’s PE would change to KE.
D:
While going up, the person’s PE would change to KE, but while coming down, the person’s KE would not change.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex028

ID: 2780@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.527Z

Question:
True or False: A cyclist coasts down one hill and up another hill until she comes to a stop. The point at which the bicycle stops is lower than the point at which it started coasting because part of the original potential energy has been converted to a quantity of heat and this makes the tires of the bicycle warm.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex029

ID: 2781@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.539Z

Question:
What is the kinetic energy of a $0.01\,\text{kg}$ bullet traveling at a velocity of $700\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="3.5\,\text{J}">3.5\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="7\,\text{J}">7\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.45 \times 10^3\,\text{J}">2.45 \times 10^3\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.45 \times 10^5\,\text{J}">2.45 \times 10^5\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex030

ID: 2782@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.549Z

Question:
A marble rolling across a flat, hard surface at $2$ rolls up a ramp. Assuming that $g = 10\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ and no energy is lost to friction, what will be the vertical height of the marble when it comes to a stop before rolling back down?
A:
<span data-math="0.1\,\text{m}">0.1\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.2\,\text{m}">0.2\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.4\,\text{m}">0.4\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2\,\text{m}">2\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex031

ID: 2783@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.561Z

Question:
Why is this expression for kinetic energy incorrect? $\text{KE} = (m)(v)^2$ .
A:
The constant <span data-math="g">g</span> is missing.
B:
The term <span data-math="v">v</span> should not be squared.
C:
The expression should be divided by <span data-math="2">2</span>.
D:
The energy lost to friction has not been subtracted.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex032

ID: 2784@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.582Z

Question:
What is the kinetic energy of a $10\text{kg}$ object moving at $2.0\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="10\,\text{J}">10\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="20\,\text{J}">20\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="40\,\text{J}">40\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="100\,\text{J}">100\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex033

ID: 2785@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.599Z

Question:
True or False: Use the formula for gravitational potential energy to explain why joules, $\text{J}$ , are equivalent to $\text{kg} \times \text{m}^2/ \text{s}^2\!$ .
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex034

ID: 2786@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.614Z

Question:
Which statement best explains why accelerating a car from $20\,\text{mph}$ to $40\,\text{mph}$ quadruples its kinetic energy?
A:
Because kinetic energy is directly proportional to the square of the velocity.
B:
Because kinetic energy is inversely proportional to the square of the velocity.
C:
Because kinetic energy is directly proportional to the fourth power of the velocity.
D:
Because kinetic energy is inversely proportional to the fourth power of the velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex035

ID: 2787@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.625Z

Question:
A coin falling through a vacuum loses no energy to friction, and yet, after it hits the ground, it has lost all its potential and kinetic energy. Which statement best explains why the law of conservation of energy is still valid in this case?
A:
When the coin hits the ground, the ground gains potential energy.
B:
When the coin hits the ground, it transfers all its mechanical energy into thermal energy.
C:
When the coin hits the ground, the ground gains kinetic energy.
D:
When the coin hits the ground, it transfers all its mechanical energy into work.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex036

ID: 2788@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.637Z

Question:
True or False: A marble rolls down a slope from height and up another slope to height , where $% $ . The difference $mg\left( {{h_1}-{h_2}}\right)$ is equal to the heat lost due to the friction.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex037

ID: 2789@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.649Z

Question:

Acceleration due to gravity on the moon is $1.6\,\text{m/s}^2$ or about $16\%$ of the value of $g$ on Earth.

  1. If an astronaut on the moon threw a moon rock to a height of $7.8\,\text{m}$ , what would be its velocity as it struck the moon’s surface?
  2. How would the fact that the moon has no atmosphere affect the velocity of the falling moon rock? Explain your answer.
A:
The velocity of the rock as it hits the ground would be <span data-math="4.9\,\text{m/s}">4.9\,\text{m/s}</span>. Due to the lack of air friction, there would be complete transformation of the potential energy into the kinetic energy as the rock hits the moon’s surface.
B:
The velocity of the rock as it hits the ground would be <span data-math="4.9\,\text{m/s}">4.9\,\text{m/s}</span>. Due to the lack of air friction, there would be incomplete transformation of the potential energy into the kinetic energy as the rock hits the moon’s surface.
C:
The velocity of the rock as it hits the ground would be <span data-math="12.4\,\text{m/s}">12.4\,\text{m/s}</span>. Due to the lack of air friction, there would be complete transformation of the potential energy into the kinetic energy as the rock hits the moon’s surface.
D:
The velocity of the rock as it hits the ground would be <span data-math="12.4\,\text{m/s}">12.4\,\text{m/s}</span>. Due to the lack of air friction, there would be incomplete transformation of the potential energy into the kinetic energy as the rock hits the moon’s surface.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok2 time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex038

ID: 2790@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.663Z

Question:
A boulder rolls from the top of a mountain, travels across a valley below, and rolls part way up the ridge on the opposite side. Describe all the energy transformations taking place during these events and identify when they happen.
A:
As the boulder rolls down the mountainside, KE is converted to PE. As the boulder rolls up the opposite slope, PE is converted to KE. The boulder rolls only partway up the ridge because some of the PE has been converted to thermal energy due to friction.
B:
As the boulder rolls down the mountainside, KE is converted to PE. As the boulder rolls up the opposite slope, KE is converted to PE. The boulder rolls only partway up the ridge because some of the PE has been converted to thermal energy due to friction.
C:
As the boulder rolls down the mountainside, PE is converted to KE. As the boulder rolls up the opposite slope, PE is converted to KE. The boulder rolls only partway up the ridge because some of the PE has been converted to thermal energy due to friction.
D:
As the boulder rolls down the mountainside, PE is converted to KE. As the boulder rolls up the opposite slope, KE is converted to PE. The boulder rolls only partway up the ridge because some of the PE has been converted to thermal energy due to friction.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex039

ID: 2791@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.679Z

Question:
Two children of different weights are riding a seesaw. How do they position themselves with respect to the pivot point (the fulcrum) so that they are balanced?
A:
The heavier child sits closer to the fulcrum.
B:
The heavier child sits farther from the fulcrum.
C:
Both children sit at equal distance from the fulcrum.
D:
Since both have different weights, they will never be in balance.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex040

ID: 2792@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.691Z

Question:
How could you use a pulley system to lift a light load to great height?
A:
reduce the radius of the pulley
B:
increase the number of pulleys
C:
decrease the number of ropes supporting the load
D:
increase the number of ropes supporting the load

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex041

ID: 2793@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.697Z

Question:
The input force of $11\,\text{N}$ acting on the effort arm of a lever moves $0.4\,\text{m}$ , which lifts a $40\text{N}$ weight resting on the resistance arm a distance of $0.1\,\text{m}$ . What is the efficiency of the machine?
A:
<span data-math="0.0091">0.0091</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.011">0.011</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.853">0.853</span>
D:
<span data-math="0.91">0.91</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex042

ID: 2794@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.713Z

Question:
What is the IMA of an inclined plane that is $5\,\text{m}$ long and $2\,\text{m}$ high?
A:
<span data-math="0.4">0.4</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.5">2.5</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.4\,\text{m}">0.4\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.5\,\text{m}">2.5\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex043

ID: 2795@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.731Z

Question:
If a pulley system can lift a $200\text{N}$ load with an effort force of $52\,\text{N}$ and has an efficiency of almost $100\%$ , how many ropes are supporting the load?
A:
<span data-math="1">1</span> rope is required because the actual mechanical advantage is <span data-math="0.26">0.26</span>.
B:
<span data-math="1">1</span> rope is required because the actual mechanical advantage is <span data-math="3.80">3.80</span>.
C:
<span data-math="4">4</span> ropes are required because the actual mechanical advantage is <span data-math="0.26">0.26</span>.
D:
<span data-math="4">4</span> ropes are required because the actual mechanical advantage is <span data-math="3.80">3.80</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex044

ID: 2796@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.737Z

Question:
True or False: The efficiency of a simple machine is always less than $100\%$ because some small fraction of the input work is always converted to heat energy due to friction.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex045

ID: 2797@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.752Z

Question:
The circular handle of a faucet is attached to a rod that opens and closes a valve when the handle is turned. If the rod has a diameter of $1\,\text{cm}$ and the IMA of the machine is $6$ , what is the radius of the handle?
A:
<span data-math="0.08\,\text{cm}">0.08\,\text{cm}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.17\,\text{cm}">0.17\,\text{cm}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.0\,\text{cm}">3.0\,\text{cm}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.0\,\text{cm}">6.0\,\text{cm}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex046

ID: 2798@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.764Z

Question:
How does a simple machine make work easier?
A:
It reduces the input force and the output force.
B:
It reduces the input force and increases the output force.
C:
It increases the input force and reduces the output force.
D:
It increases the input force and the output force.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex047

ID: 2799@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.781Z

Question:
We think of levers being used to decrease effort force. Which of the following describes a lever that requires a large effort force which causes a smaller force to act over a large distance and explains how it works?
A:
Anything that is swung by a handle, such as a hammer or racket. Force is applied near the fulcrum over a short distance, which makes the other end move rapidly over a long distance.
B:
Anything that is swung by a handle, such as a hammer or racket. Force is applied far from the fulcrum over a large distance, which makes the other end move rapidly over a long distance.
C:
A lever used to lift a heavy stone. Force is applied near the fulcrum over a short distance, which makes the other end lift a heavy object easily.
D:
A lever used to lift a heavy stone. Force is applied far from the fulcrum over a large distance, which makes the other end lift a heavy object easily

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex048

ID: 2800@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.796Z

Question:
A man is using a wedge to split a block of wood by hitting the wedge with a hammer. This drives the wedge into the wood creating a crack in the wood. When he hits the wedge with a force of $400\,\text{N}$ it travels $4\,\text{cm}$ into the wood. This caused the wedge to exert a force of $1,400\,\text{N}$ sideways increasing the width of the crack by $1\,\text{cm}$ . What is the efficiency of the wedge?
A:
<span data-math="0.875\%">0.875\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.14">0.14</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.751">0.751</span>
D:
<span data-math="87.5\%">87.5\%</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex049

ID: 2801@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.809Z

Question:
An illustration shows a pair of hand-held wire cutters. Look at the wire cutters in picture. An electrician grips the handles $10\,\text{cm}$ from the pivot and places a wire between the jaws $2\,\text{cm}$ from the pivot. If the cutter blades are $2\,\text{cm}$ wide and $0.3\,\text{cm}$ thick, what is the overall IMA of this complex machine? Explain your calculation.
A:
<span data-math="1.34">1.34</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.53">1.53</span>
C:
<span data-math="33.3">33.3</span>
D:
<span data-math="33.5">33.5</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex050

ID: 2802@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.826Z

Question:
A large radius divided by a small radius is the expression used to calculate the IMA of what?
A:
a screw
B:
a pulley
C:
a wheel and axle
D:
an inclined plane.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex051

ID: 2803@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.838Z

Question:
What is the IMA of a wedge that is $12\,\text{cm}$ long and $3\,\text{cm}$ thick?
A:
<span data-math="2">2</span>
B:
<span data-math="3">3</span>
C:
<span data-math="4">4</span>
D:
<span data-math="9">9</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex052

ID: 2804@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.844Z

Question:

Two diagrams are shown side by side. The diagram on the left shows a drawing of a hand pulling a mail out of wood using a lever. The diagram on the right shows an illustration of a lever and a fulcrum. The fulcrum is closer to the left side of the lever than the right side. The distance of the left side of the lever is labeled L r and the distance of the right side is labeled L e. A force vector is pointing down on the left side and is labeled F r, and a force vector is pointing down on the right side and is labeled F e. The equation IMA equals L e over L r is also shown.

Two diagrams are shown side-by-side. On the left, an inclined plane is shown. Its horizontal surface distance is labeled L and its height is labeled h. A box is shown on the surface with a force vector that points up the plane. The equation IMA equals L over h is shown. On the right, a wedge is shown. Its horizontal surface distance is labeled L. Its height is labeled t. The equation IMA equals L over t is also shown.

Why would you expect the lever shown in the first image to have a greater efficiency than the inclined plane shown in the second image?

A:
The resistance arm is shorter in case of the inclined plane.
B:
The effort arm is shorter in case of the inclined plane.
C:
The area of contact is greater in case of the inclined plane.
D:
The area of contact is less in case of the inclined plane.

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inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-3 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex053

ID: 2805@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.861Z

Question:
A diagram of a wheel is shown. The equation IMA equals capital R over lowercase r. A small grey circle is inside a larger blue circle. An arrow labeled lowercase r points from the center of the smaller circle to its edge. An arrow labeled capital R points from the center of the smaller circle to the edge of the larger circle. A mass is attached to the smaller circle and has a force vector, F r, pointing downward from it. Another force vector, F e, points downward and to the right from the edge of the larger circle. Explain why the wheel on a wheelbarrow is not a simple machine in the same sense as the simple machine shown in the picture.
A:
The wheel on the wheelbarrow has no fulcrum.
B:
The center of the axle is not the fulcrum for the wheels of a wheelbarrow.
C:
The wheelbarrow differs in the way in which load is attached to the axle.
D:
The wheelbarrow differs in the way in which load is attached to the axle.

Tags:

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ID: 2806@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.873Z

Question:
A worker pulls down on one end of the rope of a pulley system with a force of $75\,\text{N}$ to raise a hay bale tied to the other end of the rope. If she pulls the rope down $2.0\,\text{m}$ and the bale raises $1.0\,\text{m}$ , what else would you have to know to calculate the efficiency of the pulley system?
A:
the weight of the worker
B:
the weight of the hay bale
C:
the radius of the pulley
D:
The height of the pulley from ground

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex055

ID: 2807@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.885Z

Question:
True or False: A boy pushed a box with a weight of $300\,\text{N}$ up a ramp. He said that, because the ramp was $1.0\,\text{m}$ high and $3.0\,\text{m}$ long, he must have been pushing with force of exactly $100\,\text{N}$ .
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex056

ID: 2808@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.896Z

Question:

An illustration of a post hole digger is shown. The picture shows a posthole digger. To dig a hole, one holds the handles together and thrusts the blades into the ground. Next the handles are pulled apart which squeezes the dirt between them, making it possible to remove the dirt from the hole. This complex machine is composed of two pair of two different simple machines.

  1. Identify and describe the parts that are simple machines.
  2. Explain how you would find the IMA of each type of simple machine.
A:
<ol> <li>Each handle and its attached blade is a lever with the fulcrum at the hinge. Each blade is a wedge.</li> <li>The IMA of a lever would be the length of the handle divided by the length of the blade. The IMA of the wedges would be the length of the blade divided by its width.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>Each handle and its attached to blade is a lever with the fulcrum at the end. Each blade is a wedge.</li> <li>The IMA of a lever would be the length of the handle divided by the length of the blade. The IMA of the wedges would be the length of the blade divided by its width.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>Each handle and its attached blade is a lever with the fulcrum at the hinge. Each blade is a wedge.</li> <li>The IMA of a lever would be the length of the handle multiplied by the length of the blade. The IMA of the wedges would be the length of the blade multiplied by its width.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>Each handle and its attached blade is a lever with the fulcrum at the end. Each blade is a wedge.</li> <li>The IMA of a lever would be the length of the handle multiplied by the length of the blade. The IMA of the wedges would be the length of the blade multiplied by its width.</li> </ol>

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inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ex057

ID: 2809@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.912Z

Question:
A wooden crate is pulled up a ramp that is $1.0\,\text{m}$ high and $6.0\,\text{m}$ long. The crate is attached to a rope that is wound around an axle with a radius of $0.020\,\text{m}$ . The axle is turned by a $0.20\,\text{m}$ long. What is the overall IMA of the complex machine?
A:
<span data-math="6">6</span>
B:
<span data-math="10">10</span>
C:
<span data-math="16">16</span>
D:
<span data-math="60">60</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ex058

ID: 2810@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.918Z

Question:
A father pushes his child on a swing. He pushes with a force of $20\,\text{N}$ for a distance of $1\,\text{m}$ . How much work did the father do?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{N}">0\,\text{N}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0\,\text{J}">0\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="20\,\text{N}">20\,\text{N}</span>
D:
<span data-math="20\,\text{J}">20\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot001

ID: 2811@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.930Z

Question:
How much work is done when a taxi driver lifts a $100\text{N}$ suitcase $0.7\,\text{m}$ into the trunk of his cab?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{J}">0\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="70.0\,\text{J}">70.0\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="100.0\,\text{J}">100.0\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="142.9\,\text{J}">142.9\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot002

ID: 2812@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.942Z

Question:

Identify which of the following actions generates more power. Show your work.

  • lifting a $4\,\text{N}$ book $2\,\text{m}$ to a bookshelf in $1\,\text{s}$ or
  • carrying a $12\,\text{N}$ briefcase up $10\,\text{m}$ to the second floor in $12\,\text{s}$ ?
A:
Carrying a <span data-math="4\,\text{N}">4\,\text{N}</span> book <span data-math="2\,\text{m}">2\,\text{m}</span> to a bookshelf generates more power than carrying a <span data-math="12\,\text{N}">12\,\text{N}</span> briefcase <span data-math="10\,\text{m}">10\,\text{m}</span> to the second floor in <span data-math="12\,\text{s}">12\,\text{s}</span>, because power is defined as work done times the time interval.
B:
Carrying a <span data-math="4\,\text{N}">4\,\text{N}</span> book <span data-math="2\,\text{m}">2\,\text{m}</span> to a bookshelf generates more power than carrying a <span data-math="12\,\text{N}">12\,\text{N}</span> briefcase <span data-math="10\,\text{m}">10\,\text{m}</span> to the second floor in <span data-math="12\,\text{s}">12\,\text{s}</span> because power is defined as the ratio of work done to the time interval.
C:
Carrying a <span data-math="12\,\text{N}">12\,\text{N}</span> briefcase <span data-math="10\,\text{m}">10\,\text{m}</span> to the second floor in <span data-math="12\,\text{s}">12\,\text{s}</span> generates more power than carrying a <span data-math="4\,\text{N}">4\,\text{N}</span> book <span data-math="2\,\text{m}">2\,\text{m}</span> to a bookshelf because power is defined as work done times the time interval.
D:
Carrying a <span data-math="12\,\text{N}">12\,\text{N}</span> briefcase <span data-math="10\,\text{m}">10\,\text{m}</span> to the second floor in <span data-math="12\,\text{s}">12\,\text{s}</span> generates more power than carrying a <span data-math="4\,\text{N}">4\,\text{N}</span> book <span data-math="2\,\text{m}">2\,\text{m}</span> to a bookshelf because power is defined as the ratio of work done and the time interval.

Tags:

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ID: 2813@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.962Z

Question:
A basketball player is running down the court at $3\,\text{m/s}$ when he does $20\,\text{J}$ of work on the $0.56\text{kg}$ ball as he passes it forward. What is the speed of the ball as it leaves his hand?
A:
<span data-math="3.0\,\text{m/s}">3.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="8.5\,\text{m/s}">8.5\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.0\,\text{m/s}">9.0\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="11.5\,\text{m/s}">11.5\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot004

ID: 2814@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.967Z

Question:
Identify both the metric unit and its abbreviation that is used to express both work and energy.
A:
newton, <span data-math="\text{N}">\text{N}</span>
B:
pascal, <span data-math="\text{Pa}">\text{Pa}</span>
C:
joules, <span data-math="\text{J}">\text{J}</span>
D:
watt, <span data-math="\text{W}">\text{W}</span>

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot005

ID: 2815@1

2015-08-20T13:11:41.989Z

Question:
Define work.
A:
Work is defined as the ratio of the force over the displacement.
B:
Work is defined as the sum of the force and the displacement.
C:
Work is defined as the square of the force over the displacement.
D:
Work is defined as the product of the force and the displacement.

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ID: 2816@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.005Z

Question:
A book with a mass of $0.30\,\text{kg}$ falls $2\,\text{m}$ from a shelf to the floor. This event is described by the work-energy theorem: $W = fd = \frac{1}{2}mv_2^2 - \frac{1}{2}mv_1^2$ Explain why this is enough information to calculate the speed with which the book hits the floor.
A:
The mass of the book, <span data-math="m">m</span>, and distance, <span data-math="d">d</span>, are stated. <span data-math="F">F</span> is the weight of the book <span data-math="mg">mg</span>. <span data-math="{v_1}">{v_1}</span> is the initial velocity and <span data-math="{v_2}">{v_2}</span> is the final velocity. The final velocity is the only unknown quantity.
B:
The mass of the book, <span data-math="m">m</span>, and distance, <span data-math="d">d</span>, are stated. <span data-math="F">F</span> is the weight of the book <span data-math="mg">mg</span>. <span data-math="{v_1}">{v_1}</span> is the final velocity and <span data-math="{v_2}">{v_2}</span> is the initial velocity. The final velocity is the only unknown quantity.
C:
The mass of the book, <span data-math="m">m</span>, and distance, <span data-math="d">d</span>, are stated. <span data-math="F">F</span> is the weight of the book <span data-math="mg">mg</span>. <span data-math="{v_1}">{v_1}</span> is the initial velocity and <span data-math="{v_2}">{v_2}</span> is the final velocity. The final velocity and the initial velocities are the only unknown quantities.
D:
The mass of the book, <span data-math="m">m</span>, and distance, <span data-math="d">d</span>, are stated. <span data-math="F">F</span> is the weight of the book <span data-math="mg">mg</span>. <span data-math="{v_1}">{v_1}</span> is the final velocity and <span data-math="{v_2}">{v_2}</span> is the initial velocity. The final velocity and the initial velocities are the only unknown quantities.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot007

ID: 2817@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.019Z

Question:
True or False: To calculate the speed of the pebble dropped from the cliff as it hits the ground requires you to only know the height of the cliff and acceleration due to gravity.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok2 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot008

ID: 2818@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.031Z

Question:
Is it possible to do work on an object without changing the kinetic energy of the object?
A:
Yes, it is possible by raising the object to a greater height without acceleration.
B:
Yes, it is possible by raising the object to a greater height with acceleration.
C:
Yes, it is possible by moving the object without acceleration at the same height.
D:
Yes, it is possible by moving the object with acceleration at the same height.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot009

ID: 2819@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.037Z

Question:
True or False: When a ball is thrown into the air, the potential energy will increase as it rises and the kinetic energy will increase as it falls down.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

ost-chapter-review dok1 time-short display-simple-mc tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot010

ID: 2820@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.048Z

Question:
Which statement explains how it is possible to carry books to school without changing the kinetic or potential energy of the books or doing any work?
A:
by moving the book without acceleration and keeping the height of the book constant
B:
by moving the book with acceleration and keeping the height of the book constant
C:
by moving the book without acceleration and changing the height of the book
D:
by moving the book with acceleration and changing the height of the book

Tags:

dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot011

ID: 2821@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.060Z

Question:
After the first few seconds of a race, a runner runs at the same speed until she approaches the finish line, at which point she increases her speed. Which statement best explains why she only did work at the beginning and end of the race? (Ignore work done against air resistance and friction.)
A:
because work is equal to the change in kinetic energy and she accelerated only at the beginning and at the end of the race
B:
because work is equal to the change in kinetic energy and she didn’t accelerate at the beginning and at the end of the race
C:
because work is independent of the kinetic energy and she accelerated at the beginning and at the end of the race
D:
because work is independent of the kinetic energy and she didn’t accelerate at the beginning and at the end of the race

Tags:

dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot012

ID: 2822@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.078Z

Question:
A runner at the start of a race generates $250\,\text{W}$ of power as he accelerates to $5\,\text{m/s}$ . If the runner has a mass of $60\,\text{kg}$ , how long did it take him to reach that speed?
A:
<span data-math="0.33\,\text{s}">0.33\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.83\,\text{s}">0.83\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.2\,\text{s}">1.2\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.0\,\text{s}">3.0\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot013

ID: 2823@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.084Z

Question:
How many watts of power are generated as a $50\text{kg}$ person climbs a $10\text{-m}$ ladder in $5\,\text{s}$ ? (Round $g$ to $10\,\text{m/s}^2$ ).
A:
<span data-math="100\,\text{W}">100\,\text{W}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1,000\,\text{W}">1,000\,\text{W}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2500\,\text{W}">2500\,\text{W}</span>
D:
<span data-math="25000\,\text{W}">25000\,\text{W}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot014

ID: 2824@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.098Z

Question:
A skydiver jumps from a plane. Assuming she is not slowed by air resistance, what is her speed after falling $10\,\text{m}$ ? (Round $g$ to $10\,\text{m/s}^2$ ).
A:
<span data-math="-100\,\text{m/s}">-100\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="-14\,\text{m/s}">-14\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="14\,\text{m/s}">14\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="100\,\text{m/s}">100\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot015

ID: 2825@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.112Z

Question:
A car’s engine generates $100,000\,\text{W}$ of power as it exerts a force of $10,000\,\text{N}$ . How long does it take the car to travel $100\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.001\,\text{s}">0.001\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.1\,\text{s}">0.1\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{s}">10\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1000\,\text{s}">1000\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s01 k12phys-ch09-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot016

ID: 2826@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.124Z

Question:
A $5\,\text{kg}$ watermelon is raised $3\,\text{m}$ by carrying it up the stairs to the second floor. If $g$ is $10\,\text{m/s}^2$ , what is the potential energy gain of the watermelon?
A:
<span data-math="0\,\text{J}">0\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="15\,\text{J}">15\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="30\,\text{J}">30\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="150\,\text{J}">150\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot017

ID: 2827@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.145Z

Question:
What is the kinetic energy of $1,000\text{kg}$ car traveling at a velocity of $20\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="{1 \times 10}^4\,\text{J}">{1 \times 10}^4\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="{2\times10}^{4}\,\text{J}">{2\times10}^{4}\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="{1 \times 10^5}\,\text{J}">{1 \times 10^5}\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="{2 \times 10^5}\,\text{J}">{2 \times 10^5}\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot018

ID: 2828@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.152Z

Question:
A girl throws a ball straight up into the air, and it reaches a height of $5\,\text{m}$ . Assuming $g$ equals $10\,\text{m/s}^2$ and no energy is converted to heat, what will be the velocity of the ball when she catches it?
A:
<span data-math="3.2\,\text{m/s}">3.2\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="7.1\,\text{m/s}">7.1\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="100\,\text{m/s}">100\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot019

ID: 2829@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.163Z

Question:
A cyclist is traveling at $10\,\text{m/s}$ when he comes to a hill. He stops pedaling at the bottom of the hill and lets the bicycle coast up the hill. Assuming no energy is lost to friction and $g$ equals $10\,\text{m/s}^2$ , what will be the vertical height of the bicycle when it stops coasting?
A:
<span data-math="1\,\text{m}">1\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5\,\text{m}">5\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="10\,\text{m}">10\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="50\,\text{m}">50\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot020

ID: 2830@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.175Z

Question:
Identify equivalent terms for “stored energy” and “energy of motion.”
A:
Stored energy is potential energy, and energy of motion is kinetic energy.
B:
Energy of motion is potential energy, and stored energy is kinetic energy.
C:
Stored energy is the potential as well as the kinetic energy of the system.
D:
Energy of motion is the potential as well as the kinetic energy of the system.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot021

ID: 2831@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.192Z

Question:
You know the height from which an object is dropped. Which equation could you use to calculate the velocity as the object hits the ground?
A:
<span data-math="v = h">v = h</span>
B:
<span data-math="v = \sqrt{2h}">v = \sqrt{2h}</span>
C:
<span data-math="v = gh">v = gh</span>
D:
<span data-math="v = \sqrt{2gh}">v = \sqrt{2gh}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot022

ID: 2832@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.198Z

Question:
The starting line of a cross country foot race is at the bottom of a hill. Which form(s) of mechanical energy of the runners will change when the starting gun is fired?
A:
kinetic energy only
B:
potential energy only
C:
both kinetic and potential energy
D:
neither kinetic nor potential energy

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot023

ID: 2833@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.210Z

Question:
True or False: A father pushes his child on a playground swing. The child rises to a height of $3.0\,\text{m}$ then comes back down and rises to a height of $2.8\,\text{m}$ in the opposite direction. The child did not swing back to a height of $3.0\,\text{m}$ because some of the mechanical energy was converted to thermal energy.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot024

ID: 2834@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.222Z

Question:
Which statement best describes the PE-KE transformations for a javelin, starting from the point at which an athlete picks up the javelin and ending when the javelin is stuck into the ground after being thrown.
A:
Initial PE is transformed to KE until the javelin reaches the high point of its arc. On the way back down, KE is transformed into PE. At every point in the flight, mechanical energy is being transformed into heat energy.
B:
Initial KE is transformed to PE until the javelin reaches the high point of its arc. On the way back down, PE is transformed into KE. At every point in the flight, mechanical energy is being transformed into heat energy.
C:
Initial PE is transformed to KE until the javelin reaches the high point of its arc. On the way back down, there is no transformation of mechanical energy. At every point in the flight, mechanical energy is being transformed into heat energy.
D:
Initial KE is transformed to PE until the javelin reaches the high point of its arc. On the way back down, there is no transformation of mechanical energy. At every point in the flight, mechanical energy is being transformed into heat energy.

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time-medium dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot025

ID: 2835@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.239Z

Question:
At the beginning of a roller coaster ride, the roller coaster car has an initial energy mostly in the form of PE. Which statement explains why the fastest speeds car will be at the lowest points in the ride?
A:
At the bottom of the slope kinetic energy is at its maximum value and potential energy is at its minimum value.
B:
At the bottom of the slope potential energy is at its maximum value and kinetic energy is at its minimum value.
C:
At the bottom of the slope both kinetic and potential energy reach their maximum values
D:
At the bottom of the slope both kinetic and potential energy reach their minimum values.

Tags:

time-medium blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot026

ID: 2836@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.245Z

Question:
True or False: A car runs out of gas and coasts down one hill and up another until it comes to a stop. The point at which the car stops is lower than the point at which it started coasting because part of the original potential energy has been converted to a quantity of heat, which makes the tires feel warm.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot027

ID: 2837@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.256Z

Question:
True or False: When an acorn falls from a branch that is above the ground, you are not required to know the mass of the acorn to calculate the velocity of the acorn as it strikes the ground.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot028

ID: 2838@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.267Z

Question:
What is the kinetic energy of a $0.145\text{kg}$ baseball traveling at a velocity of $40\,\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="2.9\,\text{J}">2.9\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.8\,\text{J}">5.8\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="116\,\text{J}">116\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="232\,\text{J}">232\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot029

ID: 2839@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.280Z

Question:
A man with a mass of $60\,\text{kg}$ climbs two flights of stairs to the third floor of a building. If he gains $6\,\text{m}$ in altitude and $g$ is 10 $m/s^2$ , what is his potential energy gain?
A:
<span data-math="60\,\text{J}">60\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="360\,\text{J}">360\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="600\,\text{J}">600\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3600\,\text{J}">3600\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot030

ID: 2840@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.292Z

Question:
A skateboarder rolling across a flat, hard surface at $4\,\text{m/s}$ rolls up a ramp. Assuming that g is $10\,\text{m/s}^2\!$ and no energy is lost to friction, what will be the vertical height of the skateboarder when she comes to a stop before rolling back down?
A:
<span data-math="0.4\,\text{m}">0.4\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.8\,\text{m}">0.8\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.6\,\text{m}">1.6\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="8.0\,\text{m}">8.0\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot031

ID: 2841@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.304Z

Question:
A $1,200\text{kg}$ roller coaster car starts rolling up a slope at a speed of $15\,\text{m/s}$ . What is the highest point it could reach?
A:
<span data-math="1.5\,\text{m}">1.5\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="11.5\,\text{m}">11.5\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="23.0\,\text{m}">23.0\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="112.5\,\text{m}">112.5\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s02 k12phys-ch09-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot032

ID: 2842@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.319Z

Question:
What is the IMA of a wedge that is $5\,\text{cm}$ thick and $20\,\text{cm}$ long?
A:
<span data-math="0.25">0.25</span>
B:
<span data-math="4">4</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.25\,\text{cm}">0.25\,\text{cm}</span>
D:
<span data-math="4.0\,\text{cm}">4.0\,\text{cm}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot033

ID: 2843@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.335Z

Question:
What is the IMA of a wheel and axle that has an axle with a radius of $2\,\text{cm}$ and a wheel with a radius of $15\,\text{cm}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="0.13">0.13</span>
B:
<span data-math="7.5">7.5</span>
C:
<span data-math="0.13\,\text{m}">0.13\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="7.50\,\text{m}">7.50\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot034

ID: 2844@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.346Z

Question:
It is necessary to pull $12\,\text{m}$ of rope to lift a load $3\,\text{m}$ using a pulley system. How many ropes are supporting the load?
A:
<span data-math="1">1</span> rope is required because actual mechanical advantage is <span data-math="0.25">0.25</span>.
B:
<span data-math="1">1</span> rope is required because actual mechanical advantage is <span data-math="4.0">4.0</span>.
C:
<span data-math="4">4</span> ropes are required because actual mechanical advantage is <span data-math="0.25">0.25</span>.
D:
<span data-math="4">4</span> ropes are required because actual mechanical advantage is <span data-math="4.0">4.0</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot035

ID: 2845@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.358Z

Question:
A man who works for a moving company is loading a box onto a moving van. He pushes a $200\text{N}$ box up a $5\text{m}$ long ramp. If he pushes with a force of $60\,\text{N}$ and the ramp is $1\,\text{m}$ high, what is the efficiency of the inclined plane?
A:
<span data-math="0.3">0.3</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.67">0.67</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.5">1.5</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.33">3.33</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot036

ID: 2846@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.379Z

Question:
True or False: The friction in the pulley wheels reduces the efficiency of the machine. The efficiency is less than $100\%$ because friction prevents all the input work from being converted to output work
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot037

ID: 2847@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.385Z

Question:
Which type of simple machine is a knife?
A:
a ramp
B:
a wedge
C:
a pulley
D:
a screw

Tags:

dok1 time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot038

ID: 2848@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.401Z

Question:
The bucket of a well is pulled up by a rope that is wrapped around an axle that is $6\,\text{cm}$ in diameter. Turning a crank spins the axle. If the IMA of the machine is $10$ , what is the length of the crank?
A:
<span data-math="0.3\,\text{cm}">0.3\,\text{cm}</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.6\,\text{cm}">0.6\,\text{cm}</span>
C:
<span data-math="30\,\text{cm}">30\,\text{cm}</span>
D:
<span data-math="60\,\text{cm}">60\,\text{cm}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot039

ID: 2849@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.412Z

Question:
A simple machine has an IMA of $7$ . If the effort force of $5\,\text{N}$ is applied over a distance of $4\,\text{m}$ , what is the ideal resistance force, and how far does the load travel?
A:
<span data-math="F_r = 0.71\,\text{N}">F_r = 0.71\,\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="d_r = 0.57\,\text{m}">d_r = 0.57\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="F_r = 0.71\,\text{N}">F_r = 0.71\,\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="d_r = 28\,\text{m}">d_r = 28\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="F_r = 35\,\text{N}">F_r = 35\,\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="d_r = 0.57\,\text{m}">d_r = 0.57\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="F_r = 35\,\text{N}">F_r = 35\,\text{N}</span> and <span data-math="d_r = 28\,\text{m}">d_r = 28\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot040

ID: 2850@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.424Z

Question:
If a simple machine makes work easier by decreasing the force that must be applied, why does it not reduce the amount of work?
A:
Because the input force is applied over a longer time and the output force acts over a shorter time.
B:
Because the input force is applied over a greater distance while the output force acts over a shorter distance.
C:
Because the input force is applied over a shorter time while the output force acts over a longer time.
D:
Because the input force is applied over a shorter distance and the output force acts over a greater distance.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot041

ID: 2851@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.435Z

Question:
True or False: A wedge is similar to an inclined plane because a wedge can be seen as two inclined planes back-to-back.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-2 display-simple-mc tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot042

ID: 2852@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.450Z

Question:
A baseball bat is a lever. Which of the following explains how a baseball bat differs from a lever like a pry bar?
A:
In a baseball bat, effort force is smaller and is applied over a large distance, while the resistance force is smaller and is applied over a long distance.
B:
In a baseball bat, effort force is smaller and is applied over a large distance, while the resistance force is smaller and is applied over a short distance.
C:
In a baseball bat, effort force is larger and is applied over a short distance, while the resistance force is smaller and is applied over a long distance.
D:
In a baseball bat, effort force is larger and is applied over a short distance, while the resistance force is smaller and is applied over a short distance.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium blooms-4 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot043

ID: 2853@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.469Z

Question:
A black and white illustration of Archimedes' screw is shown. Which statement correctly describes the simple machines that make up Archimedes screw and the forces they apply?
A:
The crank is a wedge in which the IMA is the length of the tube divided by the radius of the tube. The applied force is the effort force and the weight of the water is the resistance force.
B:
The crank is an inclined plane in which the IMA is the length of the tube divided by the radius of the tube. The applied force is the effort force and the weight of the water is the resistance force.
C:
The crank is a wheel and axle. The effort force of the crank becomes the resistance force of the screw.
D:
The crank is a wheel and axle. The resistance force of the crank becomes the effort force of the screw.

Tags:

dok3 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc time-long critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo01 k12phys-ch09-ot044

ID: 2854@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.481Z

Question:
A chef is using a knife split a large squash in half. When she pushes down with a force of $40\,\text{N}$ , the knife travels $6\,\text{cm}$ into the squash. As she pushes, the knife to exerts a sideways force of $1,000\,\text{N}$ creating a $0.2\text{cm}$ crack in the squash. What is the efficiency of the knife?
A:
<span data-math="0.833\%">0.833\%</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.0416">0.0416</span>
C:
<span data-math="83.30\%">83.30\%</span>
D:
<span data-math="93.2\%">93.2\%</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot045

ID: 2855@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.495Z

Question:

Three pulley systems are shown in side-by-side diagrams. The first consists of a single pulley and is shown holding a mass. The mass is labeled with a force vector, F r, that also points downward. Another force vector, F e, is shown pointing downward from the pulley. N equals one is also shown. The second pulley system consists of a single pulley holding a mass. A force vector, F e, points upward from the pulley. N equals two is shown. The last pulley system shows four pulleys. holding a mass with a hook. A force vector, F e, points downward from the pulley. N equals four is shown. Look at the pulley system on right-hand side of the image. Assume this is an ideal machine.

  1. How hard would you have to pull on the rope to lift a $120\,\text{N}$ load?
  2. How many meters of rope would you have to pull out of the system to lift the load $1\,\text{m}$ ?
A:
<ol> <li><span data-math="480\,\text{N}">480\,\text{N}</span></li> <li><span data-math="4\,\text{m}">4\,\text{m}</span></li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li><span data-math="480\,\text{N}">480\,\text{N}</span></li> <li><span data-math="\frac {1}{4}\,\text{m}">\frac {1}{4}\,\text{m}</span></li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li><span data-math="30\,\text{N}">30\,\text{N}</span></li> <li><span data-math="4\,\text{m}">4\,\text{m}</span></li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li><span data-math="30\,\text{N}">30\,\text{N}</span></li> <li><span data-math="\frac{1}{4}\,\text{m}">\frac{1}{4}\,\text{m}</span></li> </ol>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot046

ID: 2856@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.501Z

Question:
An illustration shows a pair of gardening shears. Look at the pruning shears in the picture. A gardener grips the handles $70\,\text{cm}$ from the pivot and places a branch between the jaws $5\,\text{cm}$ from the pivot. If the blade that does the cutting is $5\,\text{cm}$ wide and $0.6\,\text{cm}$ thick, what is the overall IMA of this complex machine?
A:
<span data-math="1.69">1.69</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.31">2.31</span>
C:
<span data-math="112">112</span>
D:
<span data-math="117">117</span>

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review time-long tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot047

ID: 2857@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.522Z

Question:
Two diagrams are shown side-by-side. On the left, an inclined plane is shown. Its horizontal surface distance is labeled L and its height is labeled h. A box is shown on the surface with a force vector that points up the plane. The equation IMA equals L over h is shown. On the right, a wedge is shown. Its horizontal surface distance is labeled L. Its height is labeled t. The equation IMA equals L over t is also shown. Pushing a load up an inclined plane, such as the one shown in the picture, can be hard work because of the friction between the load and the surface. Is it possible to make this easier by designing a complex machine that combines a wheel and axel with an inclined plane? Write an expression for the overall IMA of your machine.
A:
It is not possible to design such a machine with IMA greater than <span data-math="1">1</span>.
B:
It is possible to design such a machine and its IMA will be <span data-math="\left(\frac{L}{h}\right)\!\left(\frac{R}{r}\right)">\left(\frac{L}{h}\right)\!\left(\frac{R}{r}\right)</span>.
C:
It is possible to design such a machine and its IMA will be <span data-math="\frac{\left( \frac{L}{h} \right)}{\left( \frac{R}{r} \right)}">\frac{\left( \frac{L}{h} \right)}{\left( \frac{R}{r} \right)}</span>.
D:
It is possible to design such a machine and its IMA will be <span data-math="\left( \frac{L}{h} \right)">\left( \frac{L}{h} \right)</span>.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response ost-chapter-review time-long blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch09 k12phys-ch09-s03 k12phys-ch09-s03-lo02 k12phys-ch09-ot048

ID: 2858@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.533Z

Question:
The video shows what was expected in the experiment. Why were the results different?
A:
The accelerating nature of Earth was not taken into account.
B:
The time difference between the arrivals of the light rays was too small for the experimental setup to detect.
C:
There is no ether, so there is nothing the Earth is passing through that would change the velocity of light.
D:
Ether is not at rest, it also moves with a non-zero velocity.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex001

ID: 2859@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.545Z

Question:
An airliner traveling at $200\,\text{m/s}$ emits a light from the front of the plane. How fast does the beam of light travel in the same direction as the plane? Explain your answer.
A:
A speed of <span data-math="200\,\text{m/s}">200\,\text{m/s}</span> is added to the speed of light in air.
B:
A speed of <span data-math="200\,\text{m/s}">200\,\text{m/s}</span> is subtracted from the speed of light in air.
C:
Light emitted by the airline will travel with a speed of <span data-math="2.99792458 \times 10^8 \text{m/s}">2.99792458 \times 10^8 \text{m/s}</span>.
D:
The speed of the airline has no effect on the speed of light emitted by it.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-2 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex002

ID: 2860@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.559Z

Question:
How does your measured value of the speed of light compare to the accepted value ( $\%$ error)?
A:
The measured value of speed will be equal to <span data-math="c">c</span>.
B:
The measured value of speed will be slightly less than <span data-math="c">c</span>.
C:
The measured value of speed will be slightly greater than c.
D:
The measured value of speed will depend on the frequency of the microwave.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 time-short k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex003

ID: 2861@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.576Z

Question:
The sun is $1.50 \times10^8\,\text{km}$ from Earth. How long, in minutes and seconds, does it take light to travel from the sun to Earth?
A:
<span data-math="0.8\,\text{minutes}">0.8\,\text{minutes}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4\,\text{minutes}">4\,\text{minutes}</span>
C:
<span data-math="8\,\text{minutes}">8\,\text{minutes}</span> and <span data-math="20\,\text{seconds}">20\,\text{seconds}</span>
D:
<span data-math="30\text{,}000\,\text{minutes}">30\text{,}000\,\text{minutes}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex004

ID: 2862@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.582Z

Question:
Light travels through $1.00\,\text{m}$ of water in $4.42 \times 10^{-9}\,\text{s}$ . What is the speed of light in water?
A:
<span data-math="4.42 \times 10^{-9}\,\text{m/s}">4.42 \times 10^{-9}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.42 \times 10^9\,\text{m/s}">4.42 \times 10^9\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.26 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.26 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="226 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">226 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex005

ID: 2863@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.593Z

Question:
An astronaut on the moon receives a message from mission control on Earth. The signal is sent by a form of electromagnetic radiation and takes $1.28\,\text{s}$ to travel the distance between Earth and the moon. What is the distance from the Earth to the moon?
A:
<span data-math="2.34 \times 10^5\,\text{km}">2.34 \times 10^5\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.34 \times 10^8\,\text{km}">2.34 \times 10^8\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.84 \times 10^5\,\text{km}">3.84 \times 10^5\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.84 \times 10^8\,\text{km}">3.84 \times 10^8\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex006

ID: 2864@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.610Z

Question:
Explain what is meant by a frame of reference.
A:
A frame of reference is a graph plotted between distance and time.
B:
A frame of reference is a graph plotted between speed and time.
C:
A frame of reference is the velocity of an object through empty space without regard to its surroundings.
D:
A frame of reference is an arbitrarily fixed point with respect to which motion of other points is measured.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex007

ID: 2865@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.621Z

Question:
Two people swim away from a raft that is floating downstream. One swims upstream and returns, and the other swims across the current and back. If this scenario represents the Michelson-Morley experiment, what do (i) the water, (ii) the swimmers, and (iii) the raft represent?
A:
<ol> <li>the ether</li> <li>rays of light</li> <li>the Earth</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>rays of light</li> <li>the ether</li> <li>the Earth</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>the ether</li> <li>the Earth</li> <li>rays of light</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>the Earth</li> <li>rays of light</li> <li>the ether</li> </ol>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex008

ID: 2866@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.628Z

Question:
Why was it once believed that light must travel through a medium and could not propagate across empty space?
A:
The longitudinal nature of light waves implies this.
B:
Light shows the phenomenon of diffraction.
C:
The speed of light is the maximum possible speed.
D:
All other wave energy needs a medium to travel.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 k12phys concept k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex009

ID: 2867@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.645Z

Question:
Explain how the two postulates of Einstein’s theory of special relativity, when taken together, could lead to a situation that seems to contradict the mechanics and laws of motion as described by Newton.
A:
In Newtonian mechanics, velocities are multiplicative but the speed of a moving light source cannot be multiplied to the speed of light because according to special relativity, the speed of light is the maximum speed possible.
B:
In Newtonian mechanics, velocities are additive but the speed of a moving light source cannot be added to the speed of light because the speed of light is the maximum speed possible.
C:
An object which is at rest in one frame of reference may appear to be in motion in another frame of reference, while in Newtonian mechanics such a situation is not possible.
D:
The postulates of Einstein’s theory of special relativity do not contradict any situation that Newtonian mechanics explains.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex010

ID: 2868@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.652Z

Question:
It takes light $6.0\,\text{minutes}$ to travel from the sun to the planet Venus. How far is Venus from the sun?
A:
<span data-math="18 \times 10^6\,\text{km}">18 \times 10^6\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="18 \times 10^8\,\text{km}">18 \times 10^8\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.08 \times 10^{11}\,\text{km}">1.08 \times 10^{11}\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.08 \times 10^8\,\text{km}">1.08 \times 10^8\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex011

ID: 2869@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.669Z

Question:
In 2003 Earth and Mars were the closest they had been in $50\text{,}000\,\text{years}$ . At that time it took light from the Sun $500\,\text{s}$ to reach Earth and $687\,\text{s}$ to get to Mars. What was the distance from Mars to Earth?
A:
<span data-math="5.6 \times 10^7\,\text{km}">5.6 \times 10^7\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.6 \times 10^{10}\,\text{km}">5.6 \times 10^{10}\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="6.2 \times 10^6\,\text{km}">6.2 \times 10^6\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.2 \times 10^{12}\,\text{km}">6.2 \times 10^{12}\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex012

ID: 2870@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.684Z

Question:
What was the purpose of the Michelson-Morley experiment?
A:
to determine the exact speed of light
B:
to analyze the electromagnetic spectrum
C:
to establish that Earth is the true frame of reference
D:
to learn how the ether affected the propagation of light

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex013

ID: 2871@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.696Z

Question:
What is the speed of light in a vacuum to three significant figures?
A:
<span data-math="1.86 \times 10^5\,\text{m/s}">1.86 \times 10^5\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">3.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="6.71 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">6.71 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.50 \times 10^{11}\,\text{m/s}">1.50 \times 10^{11}\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex014

ID: 2872@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.709Z

Question:
What is the postulate having to do with the speed of light on which the theory of special relativity is based?
A:
The speed of light remains the same in all inertial frames.
B:
The speed of light depends on the speed of the source emitting the light.
C:
The speed of light changes with change in medium through which it travels.
D:
The speed of light does not change with change in medium through which it travels.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex015

ID: 2873@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.720Z

Question:
What is the postulate having to do with reference frames on which the theory of special relativity is based?
A:
The frame of reference chosen is arbitrary.
B:
The frame of reference is chosen to have constant nonzero acceleration.
C:
The frame of reference is chosen in such a way that the object under observation is at rest.
D:
The frame of reference is chosen in such a way that the object under observation is moving with a positive constant speed.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex016

ID: 2874@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.731Z

Question:
If you look out the window of a moving car at houses going past, you sense that you are moving. What have you chosen as your frame of reference?
A:
the car
B:
yourself
C:
a house

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex017

ID: 2875@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.743Z

Question:
Why did Michelson and Morley orient light beams at right angles to each other?
A:
To observe the particle nature of light
B:
To observe the effect of the passing ether on the speed of light.
C:
To obtain a diffraction pattern by combination of light.
D:
To obtain a constant path difference for interference of light

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex018

ID: 2876@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.748Z

Question:
Explain how Einstein’s conclusion that nothing can travel faster than the speed of light contradicts an older concept about the speed of an object propelled from another, already moving, object. Give an example of the relativistic view and the older view.
A:
The older concept is that speeds are subtractive. If a person throws a ball while running, the speed of the ball relative to the ground is the speed at which the person was running minus the speed of the throw. Light emitted from car headlights moves no faster than the speed of light. The car’s speed is not added to the speed of light.
B:
The older concept is that speeds are additive. If a person throws a ball while running, the speed of the ball relative to the ground is the speed at which the person was running plus the speed of the throw. Light emitted from car headlights moves no faster than the speed of light. The car’s speed is not added to the speed of light.
C:
The older concept is that speeds are multiplicative. If a person throws a ball while running, the speed of the ball relative to the ground is the speed at which the person was running multiplied by the speed of the throw. Light emitted from car headlights moves no faster than the speed of light. The car’s speed is not added to the speed of light.
D:
The older concept is that speeds are frame independent. If a person throws a ball while running, the speed of the ball relative to the ground has nothing to do with the speed at which the person was running. Light emitted from car headlights moves no faster than the speed of light. The car’s speed is not added to the speed of light.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive time-long blooms-5 k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex019

ID: 2877@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.765Z

Question:
A rowboat is drifting downstream. One person swims $20\,\text{m}$ toward the shore and back, and another, leaving at the same time, swims upstream $20\,\text{m}$ and back to the boat. The swimmer who swam toward the shore gets back first. Explain how this outcome is similar to the outcome expected in the Michelson-Morley experiment.
A:
The rowboat represents the Earth, the swimmers are beams of light, and the water is acting as the ether. Light going against the current of the ether would get back later because by then the Earth would have moved on.
B:
The rowboat represents the beam of light, the swimmers are the ether, and water is acting as the Earth. Light going against the current of the ether would get back later because by then the Earth would have moved on.
C:
The rowboat represents the ether, the swimmers are ray of light, and the water is acting as the Earth. Light going against the current of the ether would get back later because by then the Earth would have moved on.
D:
The rowboat represents the Earth, the swimmers are the ether, and the water is acting as the rays of light. Light going against the current of the ether would get back later because by then the Earth would have moved on.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex020

ID: 2878@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.777Z

Question:
True or false: An observer traveling at one-third the speed of light would be able to visibly notice length contraction in a passing object.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex021

ID: 2879@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.788Z

Question:
Show how you would calculate the relativistic factor, $\gamma$ , for a particle traveling at $99.7\,\%$ of the speed of light.
A:
<span data-math="0.08">0.08</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.71">0.71</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.41">1.41</span>
D:
<span data-math="12.9">12.9</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 time-short blooms-3 k12phys grasp-check k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex022

ID: 2880@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.794Z

Question:
One night you are out looking up at the stars and an extraterrestrial spaceship flashes across the sky. The ship is $50\,\text{meters}$ long and is traveling at $95\%$ of the speed of light. How long would the ship appear to you from your Earthbound frame of reference?
A:
<span data-math="69\,\text{m}">69\,\text{m}</span>
B:
<span data-math="50\,\text{m}">50\,\text{m}</span>
C:
<span data-math="16\,\text{m}">16\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="11\,\text{m}">11\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys worked-example k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex023

ID: 2881@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.811Z

Question:
Calculate the relativistic factor, $\gamma$ , for an object traveling at $2.00\times10{^8}\,\text{m/s}$
A:
<span data-math="0.74">0.74</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.83">0.83</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.2">1.2</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.34">1.34</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex024

ID: 2882@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.823Z

Question:
The distance between two points, called the proper length, $L_0$ , is $1.00\,\text{km}$ . An observer in motion with respect to the frame of reference of the two points measures $0.800\,\text{km}$ , which is $L$ . What is the relative speed of the frame of reference with respect to the observer?
A:
<span data-math="1.80 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">1.80 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.34 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.34 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.84 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">3.84 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="5.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">5.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex025

ID: 2883@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.835Z

Question:
Describe time dilation and state under what conditions it becomes significant.
A:
When the speed of one frame of reference past another reaches the speed of light, a time interval between two events at the same location in one frame appears longer when measured from the second frame.
B:
When the speed of one frame of reference past another becomes comparable to the speed of light, a time interval between two events at the same location in one frame appears longer when measured from the second frame.
C:
When the speed of one frame of reference past another reaches the speed of light, a time interval between two events at the same location in one frame appears shorter when measured from the second frame.
D:
When the speed of one frame of reference past another becomes comparable to the speed of light, a time interval between two events at the same location in one frame appears shorter when measured from the second frame.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex026

ID: 2884@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.847Z

Question:
The equation used to calculate relativistic momentum is $p = \gamma \cdot m \cdot u$ . Define the terms to the right of the equal sign and state how $m$ and $u$ are measured.
A:
<span data-math="\gamma">\gamma</span> is the relativistic factor, <span data-math="m">m</span> is the rest mass measured when the object is at rest in the frame of reference, and <span data-math="u">u</span> is the velocity of the frame.
B:
<span data-math="\gamma">\gamma</span> is the relativistic factor, <span data-math="m">m</span> is the rest mass measured when the object is at rest in the frame of reference, and <span data-math="u">u</span> is the velocity relative to an observer.
C:
<span data-math="\gamma">\gamma</span> is the relativistic factor, <span data-math="m">m</span> is the relativistic mass <span data-math="\left(\text{i.e.} \frac{m}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{u^2}{c^2}}}\right)">\left(\text{i.e.} \frac{m}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{u^2}{c^2}}}\right)</span> measured when the object is moving in the frame of reference, and <span data-math="u">u</span> is the velocity of the frame.
D:
<span data-math="\gamma">\gamma</span> is the relativistic factor, <span data-math="m">m</span> is the relativistic mass <span data-math="\left(\text{i.e.} \frac{m}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{u^2}{c^2}}}\right)">\left(\text{i.e.} \frac{m}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{u^2}{c^2}}}\right)</span> measured when the object is moving in the frame of reference, and <span data-math="u">u</span> is the velocity relative to an observer.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex027

ID: 2885@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.858Z

Question:
A $\beta$ particle (a free electron) is speeding around the track in a cyclotron, rapidly gaining speed. How will the particle’s momentum change as its speed approaches the speed of light? Explain.
A:
The particle’s momentum will rapidly decrease.
B:
The particle’s momentum will rapidly increase.
C:
The particle’s momentum will remain constant.
D:
The particle’s momentum will approach zero.

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short k12phys concept k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex028

ID: 2886@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.870Z

Question:
Halley’s Comet comes near Earth every $75\,\text{years}$ as it travels around its $22\,\text{billion}\,\text{km}$ orbit at a speed of up to $700,000\,\text{m/s}$ . If it were possible to put a clock on the comet and read it each time the comet passed, which part of special relativity theory could be tested? What would be the expected result? Explain.
A:
It would test time dilation. The clock would appear to be slightly slower.
B:
It would test time dilation. The clock would appear to be slightly faster.
C:
It would test length contraction. The length of the orbit will appear to be shortened from Earth’s frame of reference.
D:
It would test length contraction. The length of the orbit will appear to be shortened from the comet’s frame of reference.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex029

ID: 2887@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.882Z

Question:
Deuterium ( $^2\text{H}$ ) is an isotope of hydrogen that has one proton and one neutron in its nucleus. The binding energy of deuterium is $3.56 \times 10^{-13}\,\text{J}$ . What is the mass defect of deuterium?
A:
<span data-math="3.20 \times 10^{ - 4}\,\text{kg}">3.20 \times 10^{ - 4}\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.68 \times 10^{-6}\,\text{kg}">1.68 \times 10^{-6}\,\text{kg}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.19 \times 10^{-21}\,\text{kg}">1.19 \times 10^{-21}\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.96 \times 10^{-30}\,\text{kg}">3.96 \times 10^{-30}\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex030

ID: 2888@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.893Z

Question:
The sun orbits the center of the galaxy at a speed of $2.3 \times 10^5\,\text{m/s}$ . The diameter of the sun is $1.391684 \times 10^9\,\text{m}$ . An observer is in a frame of reference that is stationary with respect to the center of the galaxy. True or False: The sun is moving fast enough for the observer to notice length contraction of the sun’s diameter.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc time-long blooms-5 k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex031

ID: 2889@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.909Z

Question:
How long, from the point of view of people on Earth would it take a spaceship to travel to Alpha Centauri and back at $0.90\,\text{c}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="4.23\,\text{years}">4.23\,\text{years}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.86\,\text{years}">4.86\,\text{years}</span>
C:
<span data-math="8.74\,\text{years}">8.74\,\text{years}</span>
D:
<span data-math="9.71\,\text{years}">9.71\,\text{years}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex032 performance

ID: 2890@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.920Z

Question:
What does this expression represent: $\frac{1}{\sqrt {1 - \frac{u^2\!}{c^2\!}}}$ ?
A:
time dilation
B:
relativistic factor
C:
relativistic energy
D:
length contraction

Tags:

inbook-yes display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep multiple-choice k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex033

ID: 2891@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.926Z

Question:
What is the rest energy, $E_0$ , of an object with a mass of $1.00\,\text{g}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="3.00 \times 10^5 \,\text{J}">3.00 \times 10^5 \,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.00 \times 10^{11}\,\text{J}">3.00 \times 10^{11}\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="9.00 \times 10^{13}\,\text{J}">9.00 \times 10^{13}\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="9.00 \times 10^{16}\,\text{J}">9.00 \times 10^{16}\,\text{J}</span>

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ID: 2892@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.942Z

Question:
What is the relationship between the binding energy and the mass defect of an atomic nucleus?
A:
The binding energy is the energy equivalent of the mass defect, as given by <span data-math="E_0 = mc">E_0 = mc</span>.
B:
The binding energy is the energy equivalent of the mass defect, as given by <span data-math="E_0 = mc^2\!">E_0 = mc^2\!</span>.
C:
The binding energy is the energy equivalent of the mass defect, as given by <span data-math="E_0 = \frac{m}{c}">E_0 = \frac{m}{c}</span>.
D:
The binding energy is the energy equivalent of the mass defect, as given by <span data-math="E_0 = \frac{m}{c^2\!}">E_0 = \frac{m}{c^2\!}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex035

ID: 2893@1

2015-08-20T13:11:42.953Z

Question:
True or False: “It is possible to just use the relationships $F = ma$ and $E = Fd$ to show that both sides of the equation $E_0 = mc^2$ have the same units.”
A:
True
B:
False

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inbook-yes time-medium blooms-4 dok2 display-simple-mc k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex036

ID: 2894@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.084Z

Question:
Explain why the special theory of relativity caused the law of conservation of energy to be modified.
A:
The law of conservation of energy is not valid in relativistic mechanics.
B:
The law of conservation of energy has to be modified because of time dilation.
C:
The law of conservation of energy has to be modified because of length contraction.
D:
The law of conservation of energy has to be modified because of mass-energy equivalence.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex037

ID: 2895@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.095Z

Question:
The sun loses about $4 \times10^9\,\text{kg}$ of mass every second. Explain in terms of special relativity why this is happening.
A:
The Sun loses mass because of its high temperature.
B:
The Sun loses mass because it is continuously releasing energy.
C:
The Sun loses mass because the diameter of the sun is contracted.
D:
The Sun loses mass because the speed of the sun is very high and close to speed of light.

Tags:

inbook-yes time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok1 k12phys ost-test-prep short-answer k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex038

ID: 2896@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.107Z

Question:
A helium-4 nucleus is made up of two neutrons and two protons. The binding energy of helium-4 is $4.53\times10^{-12}\,\text{J}$ . What is the difference in the mass of this helium nucleus and the sum of the masses of two neutrons and two protons? Which weighs more, the nucleus or its constituents?
A:
<span data-math="1.51 \times 10^{-20}\,\text{kg}">1.51 \times 10^{-20}\,\text{kg}</span>; the constituents weigh more
B:
<span data-math="5.03 \times 10^{-29}\,\text{kg}">5.03 \times 10^{-29}\,\text{kg}</span>; the constituents weigh more
C:
<span data-math="1.51\times10^{-29}\,\text{kg}">1.51\times10^{-29}\,\text{kg}</span>; the nucleus weighs more
D:
<span data-math="5.03\times10^{-29}\,\text{kg}">5.03\times10^{-29}\,\text{kg}</span>; the nucleus weighs more

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response blooms-4 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ex039

ID: 2897@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.119Z

Question:
Use the equation for length contraction to explain the relationship between the length of an object perceived by a stationary observer who sees the object as moving, and the proper length of the object as measured in the frame of reference where it is at rest.
A:
As the speed <span data-math="v">v</span> of an object moving with respect to a stationary observer approaches <span data-math="c">c</span>, the length perceived by the observer approaches zero. For other speeds, the length perceived is always less than the proper length.
B:
As the speed <span data-math="v">v</span> of an object moving with respect to a stationary observer approaches <span data-math="c">c</span>, the length perceived by the observer approaches zero. For other speeds, the length perceived is always greater than the proper length.
C:
As the speed <span data-math="v">v</span> of an object moving with respect to a stationary observer approaches <span data-math="c">c</span>, the length perceived by the observer approaches infinity. For other speeds, the length perceived is always less than the proper length.
D:
As the speed <span data-math="v">v</span> of an object moving with respect to a stationary observer approaches <span data-math="c">c</span>, the length perceived by the observer approaches infinity. For other speeds, the length perceived is always greater than the proper length.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-3 time-long k12phys ost-test-prep extended-response k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ex040

ID: 2898@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.130Z

Question:
How much would the astronauts on the space ship have aged by the time they got back?
A:
<span data-math="3.81\,\text{years}">3.81\,\text{years}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.32\,\text{years}">4.32\,\text{years}</span>
C:
<span data-math="4.37\,\text{years}">4.37\,\text{years}</span>
D:
<span data-math="8.74\,\text{years}">8.74\,\text{years}</span>

Tags:

inbook-yes dok3 time-medium display-free-response ost-chapter-review blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 performance k12phys-ch10-ex041

ID: 2899@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.147Z

Question:
Which of these obstacles would apply to travel round-trip to a star 20 to 30 light years away, assuming speeds close to the speed of light?
A:
The astronauts would return <span data-math="40">40</span> to <span data-math="60\,\text{years}">60\,\text{years}</span> older.
B:
The astronauts would have aged by much more than <span data-math="40">40</span> to <span data-math="60\,\text{years}">60\,\text{years}</span>.
C:
Everyone on Earth would have aged by at least <span data-math="40">40</span> to <span data-math="60\,\text{years}">60\,\text{years}</span>.
D:
Observers on Earth would see a far shorter travel time than <span data-math="40">40</span> to <span data-math="60\,\text{years}">60\,\text{years}</span>.

Tags:

inbook-yes dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short display-simple-mc blooms-3 k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 performance k12phys-ch10-ex042

ID: 2900@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.159Z

Question:
Light travels through $1.00\,\text{m}$ of glass in $5.08 \times 10^{-9}\,\text{s}$ . What is the speed of light in glass?
A:
<span data-math="5.08 \times 10^{-9}\,\text{m/s}">5.08 \times 10^{-9}\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="5.08 \times 10^9\,\text{m/s}">5.08 \times 10^9\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.97 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">1.97 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="197 \times 10^8 \,\text{m/s}">197 \times 10^8 \,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

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ID: 2901@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.178Z

Question:
How far does light travel in $1.00\,\text{min}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="1.80 \times 10^7\,\text{km}">1.80 \times 10^7\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="1.80 \times 10^{13}\,\text{km}">1.80 \times 10^{13}\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.00 \times 10^6\,\text{m}">5.00 \times 10^6\,\text{m}</span>
D:
<span data-math="5.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m}">5.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot002

ID: 2902@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.190Z

Question:
Sunlight reaches the planet Mercury in $3\,\text{min}\,13\,\text{s}$ . How far is Mercury from the sun?
A:
<span data-math="64.3 \times 10^5\,\text{km}">64.3 \times 10^5\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="64.3 \times 10^{11}\,\text{km}">64.3 \times 10^{11}\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="5.79 \times 10^7\,\text{km}">5.79 \times 10^7\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="5.79 \times 10^{13}\,\text{km}">5.79 \times 10^{13}\,\text{km}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot003

ID: 2903@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.205Z

Question:
A comet speeds up to $4.5 \times 10^5\,\text{m/s}$ as it approaches the sun. 1. If $c = 2.9979 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}$ , how fast is a beam of light emitted from the front of the comet traveling according to Einstein’s postulates? 2. How fast would the light be going according to Newtonian physics?
A:
<ol> <li><span data-math="2.9979 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.9979 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="2.9934 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.9934 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span></li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li><span data-math="2.9979 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.9979 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="3.0024 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">3.0024 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span></li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li><span data-math="2.9934 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.9934 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="2.9934 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.9934 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span></li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li><span data-math="3.0024 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">3.0024 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span></li> <li><span data-math="3.0024 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">3.0024 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span></li> </ol>

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time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot004

ID: 2904@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.211Z

Question:
If Michelson and Morley had observed the interference pattern shift in their interferometer, what would that have indicated?
A:
The speed of light is the same in all frames of reference.
B:
The speed of light depends on the motion relative to the ether.
C:
The speed of light changes upon reflection from a surface.
D:
The speed of light in vacuum is less than <span data-math="3.00 × 10^8 \,\text{m/s}">3.00 × 10^8 \,\text{m/s}</span>.

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ID: 2905@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.229Z

Question:
If you designate a point as being fixed and use that point to measure the motion of surrounding objects, what is the point called?
A:
an origin
B:
a frame of reference
C:
a moving frame
D:
a coordinate system

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display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short tutor-only blooms-1 k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot006

ID: 2906@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.265Z

Question:

Describe the relative motion of the Earth and the Sun:

  1. if Earth is taken as the inertial frame of reference and
  2. if the Sun is taken as the inertial frame of reference.
A:
<ol> <li>Earth is at rest and the Sun orbits the Earth.</li> <li>The Sun is at rest and Earth orbits the Sun.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>The Sun is at rest and Earth orbits the Sun.</li> <li>Earth is at rest and the Sun orbits the Earth.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>The Sun is at rest and Earth orbits the Sun.</li> <li>The Sun is at rest and Earth orbits the Sun.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>Earth is at rest and the Sun orbits the Earth.</li> <li>Earth is at rest and the Sun orbits the Earth.</li> </ol>

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time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot007

ID: 2907@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.277Z

Question:
Explain why so many scientists were convinced that there must be a medium through which light traveled.
A:
Light shows a polarization effect.
B:
The longitudinal nature of light waves implies this.
C:
The speed of light is the maximum possible speed.
D:
All other wave energy needs a medium to travel.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot008

ID: 2908@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.288Z

Question:
Describe two ways in which light differs from all other forms of wave energy.
A:
<ol> <li>Light travels as a longitudinal wave.</li> <li>Light travels through a medium that fills up the empty space in the universe.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>Light travels as a transverse wave.</li> <li>Light travels through a medium that fills up the empty space in the universe.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>Light travels at the maximum possible speed in the universe.</li> <li>Light travels through a medium that fills up the empty space in the universe.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>Light travels at the maximum possible speed in the universe.</li> <li>Light does not require any material medium to travel.</li> </ol>

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time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot009

ID: 2909@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.306Z

Question:
Describe what is meant by the sentence, “Simultaneity is not absolute.”
A:
Events may appear simultaneous in all frames of reference.
B:
Events may not appear simultaneous in all frames of reference.
C:
The speed of light is not the same in all frames of reference.
D:
The laws of physics may be different in different inertial frames of reference.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot010

ID: 2910@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.318Z

Question:
Use the postulates of the special relativity theory to explain why the speed of light emitted from a fast moving light source cannot exceed $3.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}$ .
A:
The speed of light is maximum in the frame of reference of the moving object.
B:
The speed of light is minimum in the frame of reference of the moving object.
C:
The speed of light is the same in all frames of reference, including in the rest frame of its source.
D:
Light always travels in a vacuum with a speed less than <span data-math="3.00 \times10^8 \,\text{m/s}">3.00 \times10^8 \,\text{m/s}</span> regardless of the speed of the source.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review blooms-2 critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot011

ID: 2911@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.323Z

Question:
Explain relative motion as it was understood before the introduction of Einstein’s theory of special relativity. Explain it in terms of the frame of reference of a passenger in an airliner and a person looking up at the plane from the ground.
A:
A person on the surface of the Earth sees himself as stationary and the plane as moving. The passenger in the plane sees herself and the plane as stationary and sees the Earth moving by under her.
B:
A person on the surface of the Earth sees himself as moving and the plane as stationary. The passenger in the plane sees herself and the plane as stationary and sees the Earth moving by under her.
C:
A person on the surface of the Earth sees himself as stationary and the plane as moving. The passenger in the plane sees herself and the plane as moving and sees the Earth stationary under her.
D:
A person on the surface of the Earth sees himself as moving and the plane as stationary. The passenger in the plane sees herself and the plane as moving and sees the Earth stationary under her.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 ost-chapter-review critical-thinking tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot012

ID: 2912@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.340Z

Question:
The planet Venus is $1.08 \times 10^8\,\text{km}$ from the Sun. How long does it take light to reach Venus from the Sun?
A:
<span data-math="0.36\,\text{s}">0.36\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="3.6\,\text{s}">3.6\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="36\,\text{s}">36\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="360\,\text{s}">360\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot013

ID: 2913@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.357Z

Question:
It takes light $4\,\text{hours and}\,10\,\text{minutes}$ to travel from the sun to the Planet Neptune. How far is Neptune from the sun?
A:
<span data-math="1.2 \times 10^8\,\text{km}">1.2 \times 10^8\,\text{km}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.5 \times 10^9\,\text{km}">4.5 \times 10^9\,\text{km}</span>
C:
<span data-math="12 \times 10^8\,\text{km}">12 \times 10^8\,\text{km}</span>
D:
<span data-math="45 \times 10^9\,\text{km}">45 \times 10^9\,\text{km}</span>

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display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot014

ID: 2914@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.369Z

Question:
In 2003 Earth and Mars were $5.6 \times 10^7\,\text{km}$ from each other, which was the closest they had been in $50\text{,}000\,\text{years}$ . People looking up saw Mars as a very bright red star on the horizon. If Mars was $2.06 \times 10^8\,\text{km}$ from the Sun, how long did the reflected light people saw take to travel from the Sun to Earth?
A:
<span data-math="14\,\text{min}">14\,\text{min}</span> and <span data-math="33\,\text{s}">33\,\text{s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="12\,\text{min}">12\,\text{min}</span> and <span data-math="15\,\text{s}">15\,\text{s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="11\,\text{min}">11\,\text{min}</span> and <span data-math="27\,\text{s}">27\,\text{s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3\,\text{min}">3\,\text{min}</span> and <span data-math="7\,\text{s}">7\,\text{s}</span>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot015

ID: 2915@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.381Z

Question:

The back ends of two cars are shown on a highway, side-by-side. The car on the left is labeled X and the car on the right is labeled Y. A person is standing on the left side of the road, and looking in the direction of the cars. Person X in car X is traveling at $10\,\text{m/s}$ . Person Y is in car Y traveling at $15\,\text{m/s}$ as it passes car X. Person Z is standing on the sidewalk.

  1. What is the speed of persons Y and Z from the reference frame of car X?
  2. What is the speed of persons X and Z from the reference frame of car Y?
A:
<ol> <li>Y is moving forward at <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>, and Z is moving backward at <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>.</li> <li>X is moving backward at <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>, and Z is moving backward at <span data-math="15\,\text{m/s}">15\,\text{m/s}</span>.</li> </ol>
B:
<ol> <li>Y is moving backward at <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>, and Z is moving forward at <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>.</li> <li>X is moving backward at <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>, and Z is moving backward at <span data-math="15\,\text{m/s}">15\,\text{m/s}</span>.</li> </ol>
C:
<ol> <li>Y is moving forward at <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>, and Z is moving backward at <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>.</li> <li>X is moving forward at <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>, and Z is moving forward at <span data-math="15\,\text{m/s}">15\,\text{m/s}</span>.</li> </ol>
D:
<ol> <li>Y is moving backward at <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>, and Z is moving forward at <span data-math="10\,\text{m/s}">10\,\text{m/s}</span>.</li> <li>X is moving forward at <span data-math="5\,\text{m/s}">5\,\text{m/s}</span>, and Z is moving forward at <span data-math="15\,\text{m/s}">15\,\text{m/s}</span>.</li> </ol>

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response blooms-4 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s01 k12phys-ch10-s01-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot016

ID: 2916@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.392Z

Question:
Calculate the relativistic factor, $\gamma$ , for an object traveling at $2.50\times10^8\,\text{m/s}$ .
A:
<span data-math="0.55">0.55</span>
B:
<span data-math="0.8">0.8</span>
C:
<span data-math="1.3">1.3</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.81">1.81</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot017

ID: 2917@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.404Z

Question:
The nucleus of the isotope fluorine-18 ( $^{18}\text{F}$ ) has mass defect of $2.44 \times 10^{-28\!}\,\text{kg}$ . What is the binding energy of $^{18}\text{F}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="2.2 \times 10^{-11}\,\text{J}">2.2 \times 10^{-11}\,\text{J}</span>
B:
<span data-math="7.3 \times 10^{-20}\,\text{J}">7.3 \times 10^{-20}\,\text{J}</span>
C:
<span data-math="2.2 \times 10^{-20}\,\text{J}">2.2 \times 10^{-20}\,\text{J}</span>
D:
<span data-math="2.4 \times 10^{-28}\,\text{J}">2.4 \times 10^{-28}\,\text{J}</span>

Tags:

display-free-response dok1 time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot018

ID: 2918@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.421Z

Question:
The distance between two points, called the proper length, $L_0$ , is $1.00\,\text{km}$ . An observer in motion with respect to the frame of reference of the two points measures $0.900\,\text{km}$ , which is $L$ . What is the relative speed of the frame of reference with respect to the observer?
A:
<span data-math="1.31 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">1.31 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.23 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.23 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="4.04 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">4.04 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="6.88 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">6.88 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot019

ID: 2919@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.443Z

Question:
If the relativistic factor, $\gamma$ , for a fast-moving subatomic particle equals $3.30$ , how fast is the particle traveling?
A:
<span data-math="1.81 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">1.81 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.86 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.86 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">3.00 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="3.31 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">3.31 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-problems k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot020

ID: 2920@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.449Z

Question:
Describe length contraction and state when it occurs.
A:
When the speed of an object becomes the speed of light, its length appears to shorten when viewed by a stationary observer.
B:
When the speed of an object approaches the speed of light, its length appears to shorten when viewed by a stationary observer.
C:
When the speed of an object becomes the speed of light, its length appears to increase when viewed by a stationary observer.
D:
When the speed of an object approaches the speed of light, its length appears to increase when viewed by a stationary observer.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok1 time-short blooms-2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot021

ID: 2921@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.461Z

Question:
An astronaut goes on a long space voyage at near the speed of light. When she returns home, how will her age compare to the age of her twin who stayed on Earth?
A:
Both of them will be the same age.
B:
This is a paradox and hence the ages cannot be compared.
C:
The age of the twin who traveled will be less than the age of her twin.
D:
The age of the twin who traveled will be greater than the age of her twin.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok1 time-short tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot022

ID: 2922@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.473Z

Question:
Describe how relativistic momentum of an object varies as its speed approaches $3.00\times10^8\,\text{m/s}$ and explain how this variation supports the statement that nothing can travel faster than the speed of light.
A:
As the speed of an object approaches the speed of light, its momentum approaches infinity. Since momentum cannot be infinite, an object with mass cannot travel at the speed of light.
B:
As the speed of an object approaches the speed of light, momentum approaches zero. Since momentum cannot be zero for a moving object, an object with mass cannot travel at the speed of light.
C:
As the speed of an object approaches the speed of light, its momentum becomes negative. Since momentum cannot be negative, an object with mass cannot travel at the speed of light.
D:
As the speed of an object approaches the speed of light, its momentum approaches a constant value. Since momentum cannot be constant for a varying speed, an object with mass cannot travel at the speed of light.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot023

ID: 2923@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.486Z

Question:
A comet reaches its greatest speed as it travels near the sun. True or false: Relativistic effects make the comet’s tail look longer to an observer on Earth.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

time-medium dok2 display-simple-mc blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys os-practice-concepts k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot024

ID: 2924@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.500Z

Question:
An $\alpha$ particle (a free helium nucleus) is speeding around the track in a cyclotron, rapidly gaining speed. How will the particle’s momentum change as its speed approaches the speed of light? Explain.
A:
The particle’s momentum will rapidly decrease.
B:
The particle’s momentum will rapidly increase.
C:
The particle’s momentum will remain constant.
D:
The particle’s momentum will approach zero.

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive blooms-4 dok2 ost-chapter-review tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot025

ID: 2925@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.511Z

Question:
The fuel rods in a nuclear reactor must be replaced from time to time because so much of the radioactive material has reacted that they can no longer produce energy. How would the mass of the spent fuel rods compare to their mass when they were new? Explain your answer.
A:
The mass of the spent fuel rods would decrease.
B:
The mass of the spent fuel rods would increase.
C:
The mass of the spent fuel rods would remain the same.
D:
The mass of the spent fuel rods will become close to zero.

Tags:

display-free-response display-rec-sensitive dok2 ost-chapter-review time-short blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys concept k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot026

ID: 2926@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.524Z

Question:
A spaceship making a round trip to the planet Neptune would travel about $10\,\text{million km}$ . Such a ship would have to travel at a very high speed to return in a reasonable amount of time. If a clock were put on board such a ship, which part of special relativity theory would scientists be testing? What would be the expected result? Explain.
A:
It would test time dilation. The clock would appear to be slightly slow.
B:
It would test time dilation. The clock would appear to be slightly fast.
C:
It would test length contraction. The length of the orbit will appear to be shortened from Earth’s frame of reference.
D:
It would test length contraction. The length of the orbit will appear to be shortened from Earth’s frame of reference.

Tags:

dok3 time-medium display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot027

ID: 2927@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.535Z

Question:
Explain why light can travel through empty space at the speed of light but a spaceship could not possibly reach that speed.
A:
Light has photons and photons have zero rest mass but the spaceship has a non-zero rest mass.
B:
Light has photons and photons have very small rest mass but the spaceship has a finite rest mass.
C:
The relativistic factor <span data-math="\gamma">\gamma</span> is zero for light while it is infinite for a spaceship traveling with a speed equal to the speed of light.
D:
The relativistic factor <span data-math="\gamma">\gamma</span> is 1 for light while it is infinite for a spaceship traveling with a speed equal to the speed of light.

Tags:

dok3 display-free-response display-rec-sensitive ost-chapter-review time-long critical-thinking blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo01 k12phys-ch10-ot028

ID: 2928@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.547Z

Question:
Tritium ( $^3\text{H}$ ) is an isotope of hydrogen that has one proton and two neutrons in its nucleus. The binding energy of tritium is $1.36 \times 10^{-12}\,\text{J}$ . What is the mass defect of tritium?
A:
<span data-math="1.22 \times 10^{-4}\,\text{kg}">1.22 \times 10^{-4}\,\text{kg}</span>
B:
<span data-math="4.08 \times 10^{-4\!}">4.08 \times 10^{-4\!}</span> kg
C:
<span data-math="4.53 \times 10^{-21}\,\text{kg}">4.53 \times 10^{-21}\,\text{kg}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.51 \times 10^{-29}\,\text{kg}">1.51 \times 10^{-29}\,\text{kg}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot029

ID: 2929@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.562Z

Question:
A proton has a rest mass of $1.67 \times 10^{-27}\text{kg}$ . What is the relativistic momentum of a proton traveling in a cyclotron at a speed of $2.90 \times 10^8\text{m/s}$ ?
A:
<span data-math="1.89 \times 10^{-18}\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">1.89 \times 10^{-18}\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="6.73 \times 10^{-19}\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">6.73 \times 10^{-19}\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="3.48 \times 10^{-19} \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">3.48 \times 10^{-19} \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="1.24 \times 10^{-19}\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}">1.24 \times 10^{-19}\,\text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}</span>

Tags:

time-medium display-free-response dok2 ost-chapter-review blooms-3 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot030

ID: 2930@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.575Z

Question:
Other galaxies are moving away from our galaxy because the universe is expanding. Suppose another galaxy is moving away from us at a speed of $3.00 \times 10^6\,\text{m/s}$ . True or False: It is not possible to observe length contraction when measuring the width of the galaxy.
A:
True
B:
False

Tags:

dok3 ost-chapter-review display-simple-mc time-long blooms-5 tutor-only k12phys problem k12phys-ch10 k12phys-ch10-s02 k12phys-ch10-s02-lo02 k12phys-ch10-ot031

ID: 2931@1

2015-08-20T13:11:43.586Z

Question:
An astronomer living in another galaxy measures the galaxy’s width to be $1.230 \times 10^5 \,\text{light years}$ . An Earthbound astronomer measures the width of the other galaxy to be $1.224 \times 10^5 \,\text{light years}$ . How fast is the galaxy moving relative to Earth?
A:
<span data-math="1.485 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">1.485 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
B:
<span data-math="2.985 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">2.985 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
C:
<span data-math="4.23 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">4.23 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>
D:
<span data-math="8.76 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}">8.76 \times 10^8\,\text{m/s}</span>